Cuánto es -2+(-3)+4-(-3)-5

Answer:

B.

right scalene triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a given rectangular prism is 100 cubic meter.

A rectangular prism is a three-dimensional solid shape with six faces that including rectangular bases. A cuboid is also a rectangular prism. The cross-section of a cuboid and a rectangular prism is the same. Volume of a rectangular prism = Area of a base × Height.

We know that, a rectangular prism has a length of 10 m, a height of 2 m, and a width of 5 m.

Here, volume = 10×5×2

= 100 cubic meter

Therefore, the volume of a given rectangular prism is 100 cubic meter.

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Answer:

Y=2x+0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The gradient is 2/1=2x

The y-intercept looks to be around 0.5

Answer:

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

Calculate m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 1, 0) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (1, 1) ← 2 points on the line

m = [tex]\frac{1-0}{1-(-1)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{1+1}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] , then

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + c ← is the partial equation

To find c substitute either of the 2 points into the partial equation

Using (1, 1 ) , then

1 = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] + c ⇒ c = 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ← equation of line

Answer:

13.7

Step-by-step explanation:

-----------------------------

Using an absolute value inequality, it is found that the range of temperatures is between 70ºF and 74ºF.

---------------

[tex]|x| = x, x \geq 0[/tex]

[tex]|x| = -x, x < 0[/tex]

---------------

[tex]|x - 72| \leq 2[/tex]

Solving the inequality:

[tex]x - 72 \geq >= -2[/tex]

[tex]x \geq 70[/tex]

And

[tex]x - 72 \leq 2[/tex]

[tex]x \leq 74[/tex]

Thus, the range of temperatures is between 70ºF and 74ºF.

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Based on the results of the simulation, the probability that Michaela will walk animals on:

a. both days = 1/6

b. one day only = 2/3

c. at least one day = 5/6

Probability is simply how likely something is to happen.

Grooming = 0, 1, 2

Walking = 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

Cleaning = 8, 9

Based on the data generated in simulation, categorizing it into "Michael will walk animals zero days/ one day only/ both days based on the digit categorization given above.

(2,9) - zero days

(5,2) - one day

(3,9) - one day

(0,1) - zero days

(8,3) -one day

(0,5) - one day

(8,3) - one day

(6,8) - one day

(4,7) - two days

(7,4) - two days

(1,5) - one day

Probability that Michaela will walk animals both days = [tex]\frac{2}{12} = \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Probability that Michaela will walk animals one day only = [tex]\frac{8}{12} = \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Probability that Michaela will walk animals at least one day = Probability that Michaela will walk animals one day only + Probability that Michaela will walk animals two days only  = [tex]\frac{8}{12}+ \frac{2}{12} = \frac{10}{12} = \frac{5}{6}[/tex]

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Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle A_\text{shaded}=18-\frac{9}{2}\pi \text{ units}^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the area of the rectangle:

[tex]A_\text{rect}=9(3)=18\text{ units}^2[/tex]

In order to find the area of the shaded region, we can subtract the areas of the two sectors from the total area of the rectangle.

Find the area of the sectors. We can use the sector formula:

[tex]\displaystyle A=\pi r^2\cdot \frac{\theta}{360^\circ}[/tex]

The left sector has a radius of three units and an angle of 90°. Hence, its area is:

[tex]\displaystyle A_\text{L}=\pi (3)^2\cdot \frac{90}{360}=9\pi\cdot \frac{1}{4}=\frac{9}{4}\pi[/tex]

The right sector is identical to the left sector. So, the total area of the two sectors is:

[tex]\displaystyle A_{\text{T}}=\frac{9}{4}\pi +\frac{9}{4}\pi =\frac{9}{2}\pi[/tex]

Hence, the area of the shaded region is:

[tex]\displaystyle A_\text{shaded}=18-\frac{9}{2}\pi \text{ units}^2[/tex]

Answer:

D po

Step-by-step explanation:

yan po!sana nakatulong po

Answer:

20 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add 20 minutes to 7:55 P.M., it becomes 8:15 P.M.

Answer:

20 minutos

Step-by-step explanation:

De 7:55 pm hasta las 8: pasaron 5 minutos, luego de 8:00 a 8:15 pm pasaron 15 minutos.

Así que sería 5 + 15 = 20 minutos

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Using this same method of solving, solve the rest. I will help you with 2 more.

5. [tex]10^6[/tex] = 1,000,000

8. [tex]10^0[/tex] = 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine the x-intercept, we set y equal to zero and solve for x. Similarly, to determine the y-intercept, we set x equal to zero and solve for y.

To find the x-intercept, set y = 0 \displaystyle y=0 y=0.

To find the y-intercept, set x = 0 \displaystyle x=0 x=0.

Answer:

1m=1000 mm.

1m^2=(1000)*(1000)=10^6 mm^2

So just multiply the given result in m^2 by 10^6 to get the result in mm^2.

So ,16 m^2 =16*(10^6)mm^2.

Hope you got it.

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

They are completing the square

x^2 +12x +29

Take the coefficient of the x term

12

Divide by 2

12/2 = 6

Square  it

6^2 = 36

Add 36 and subtract 36

(x^2 +12x +36) -36 +29

Inside the parentheses becomes ( x+6)^2

Answer:

a) 38.74% probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

b) Approximately 100% probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections.

c) The expected number of inspections in which the main printer is operating properly is 9.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each inspection, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is operating correctly, or it is not. The probability of the printer operating correctly for an inspection is independent of any other inspection, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Based on past experience, the main printer in a university computer centre is operating properly 90% of the time.

This means that [tex]p = 0.9[/tex]

Suppose inspections are made at 10 randomly selected times.

This means that [tex]n = 10[/tex]

A) What is the probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

This is [tex]P(X = 9)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 9) = C_{10,9}.(0.9)^{9}.(0.1)^{1} = 0.3874[/tex]

38.74% probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

B) What is the probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections?

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.9)^{0}.(0.1)^{10} \approx 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.9)^{1}.(0.1)^{9} \approx 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{10,2}.(0.9)^{2}.(0.1)^{8} \approx 0[/tex]

Thus:

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0 + 0 = 0[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3) = 1 - 0 = 1[/tex]

Approximately 100% probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections.

C) What is the expected number of inspections in which the main printer is operating properly?

The expected value for the binomial distribution is given by:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

In this question:

[tex]E(X) = 10(0.9) = 9[/tex]

Answer: rounded off to the nearest tenths, the volume is equivalent to

4022.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex] {i}^{1} = i \\ {i}^{2} - 1 \\ {i}^{3} = - i \\ {i}^{4} = 1[/tex]

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Answer:

<ABE = 109

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle Formed by Two Chords= 1/2(sum of Intercepted Arcs)

< ABE = 1/2 ( 38+180)

< ABE = 1/2 (218)

<ABE = 109

Answer:

Formula: Half the sum of the two arcs. So, this would be the equation:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex][tex](38[/tex]+[tex]180[/tex])

Solve:

218 / 2 = 109

Answer: 109

Answer:

x=-6 and x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

[tex]3x^2+15x-18[/tex]

Now,

[tex]3x^2+15x-18=0\\[/tex]

Using the quadratic formula where a=3, b=15, and C=-18

x=-b±[tex]\sqrt{b^2-4ac} /2a[/tex]

x=-15±[tex]{\sqrt{15^2-4(3)(-18} } /2(3)[/tex]

x=-15±[tex]\sqrt{441} /6[/tex]

the discriminant [tex]b^2-4ac>0[/tex]

So, there are two real roots

x=-15±21/6

[tex]x=\frac{6}{6} \\x=1\\x=\frac{-36}{6} \\x=-6[/tex]

Therefore, x=-6 and x=1

Answer:

2300 apples

Step-by-step explanation:

2500 - 200 = 2300

Answer:

2300

Step-by-step explanation:

2500 - 200 = 2300

Note: "have left" means the answer after subtraction.

Answer:

banks change people fees to make a profit off of them other wise they would be giving away free money.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps and what you were asking for.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

16 - 7 = 9

Answer:

pls dont kill me for wacky lines. this shall just give you a basic idea. the important part is the 90° angle

Answer:

73

Step-by-step explanation:

(9x - 62)

(9(15) - 62) =

(135 - 62) =

(73)

m∠KJL = 73

Answer:

We have 28 bags of butter cookies and 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

Let b be the number of butter cookies and c the number of chocolate chips.

Since we have them in the ratio 7:3, b/c = 7/3   (1)

Also, when Mrs Benjamin gives away 24 butter cookies, the ratio becomes 11:6. So, the remaining number of butter cookies are b - 24. So, the ratio of remaining butter cookies to chocolate chips is (b - 24)/c = 11/6   (2)

From (1) b = 7c/3 and from (2) 6(b - 24)  = 11c  ⇒  6b - 144 = 11c  (3)

Substituting b into (3), we have

6b - 144 = 11c

6(7c/3) - 144 = 11c

2 × 7c - 144 = 11c

14c - 144 = 11c

subtracting 11c from both sides, we have

14c - 11c - 144 = 11c - 11c

14c - 11c - 144 = 0

adding 144 to both sides, we have

14c - 11c -144 + 144 = 144

14c - 11c = 144

3c = 144

c = 144/3

c = 48

So, b = 7c/3 = 7(48)/3 = 7 × 16 = 112

Since each cookie is packed into bags of 4, we divide the number of each cookie by 4 to find the number of bags of cookies.

So, number of bags of butter cookies = b/4 = 112/4 = 28 bags of butter cookies

number of bags of chocolate chip cookies = c/4 = 48/4 = 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

So, we have 28 bags of butter cookies and 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

Answer:

question 1:

step #1:divide both sides by x

step #2:multiply both sides by 4

step #3: plug it into equation

Step-by-step explanation:

question 1:

step #1: divide both sides by x

you get x/4 = 1

step #2:multiply both sides by 4

you get x = 4

step #3: plug it into equation

4 squared/4 = 4

The answer is 19 they worked it out right above the question.

Answer:

19

Step-by-step explanation:

3(x+6) = 5(x-4)

Distribute

3x+18 = 5x-20

Subtract 3x from each side

18 = 2x-20

Add 20 to each side

38 = 2x

Divide by 2

19 = x

The solution is 19

option

(c) is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

jsjsjd

Answer:

?=5

Step-by-step explanation:

So let's do 16-6 (3*2)

10/2=5

Answer: ?=5

Step-by-step explanation:

In a rectangle the opposite sides are congruent (same length).

So we have ?+?+3+3=16

Let's use a variable for ?

x+x+3+3=16

Since there are 2 of the variable x we can write it as 2x since 2 of something means it's doubled. We can also combine 3 and 3.

2x+6=16

Let's subtract 6 from both sides.

[tex]2x+6-6=16-6\\2x=10[/tex]

Now let's divide both sides by 2 to find the value of x (which is ?)

[tex]\frac{2x}{2} =\frac{10}{2} \\x=5[/tex]

The value of x/? is 5.