Explain, step by step, how to calculate the amount of current (I) that will go through the resistor in this circuit

Answer: A

Explanation:

Because someone who is aggressive, stubborn, or proud of theirselves are more likely to think they're above everyone else and be a bully. However someone who is willing to compromise is better since you can generally make everyone happy that way

HOPE THIS HELPS ^^

Answer:

[tex]65.6\ \text{J/m}^3[/tex]

[tex]0.11\ \text{J}[/tex]

Explanation:

B = Magnetic field = [tex]\mu_0 \dfrac{N}{l}I[/tex]

[tex]\mu_0[/tex] = Vacuum permeability = [tex]4\pi10^{-7}\ \text{H/m}[/tex]

N = Number of turns = 1270

[tex]l[/tex] = Length of solenoid = 93.9 cm = 0.939 m

[tex]I[/tex] = Current = 7.8 A

A = Area of solenoid = [tex]17.3\ \text{cm}^2[/tex]

Energy density of a solenoid is given by

[tex]u_m=\dfrac{B^2}{2\mu_0}\\\Rightarrow u_m=\dfrac{(\mu_0 \dfrac{N}{l}I)^2}{2\mu_0}\\\Rightarrow u_m=\dfrac{\mu_0N^2I^2}{2l^2}\\\Rightarrow u_m=\dfrac{4\pi\times 10^{-7}\times 1230^2\times 7.8^2}{2\times 0.939^2}\\\Rightarrow u_m=65.6\ \text{J/m}^3[/tex]

The energy density of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is [tex]65.6\ \text{J/m}^3[/tex]

Energy is given by

[tex]U_m=u_mAl\\\Rightarrow U_m=65.6\times 17.3\times 10^{-4}\times 0.939\\\Rightarrow U_m=0.11\ \text{J}[/tex]

The total energy in joules stored in the magnetic field is [tex]0.11\ \text{J}[/tex].

Answer:

1 and 3

Explanation:

because they are going up from 0

Answer:

speed: 35m/s

direction: left

Explanation:

Assuming the right side is the positive direction:

before explosion:

P = mv = 0

after explosion:

P' = 15P + 5P

(Set the velocity of the 15kg piece after explosion as v1' and the velocity of the 5kg piece after explosion as v2')

P' = 0.75mv1' + 0.25mv2'

P' = (15kg)v' + (5kg)(105m/s)

P' = 525kg/m/s + (15kg)v1'

P = P'

525kg/m/s + (15kg)v1' = 0

(15kg)v1' = -525kg/m/s

v1' = -35m/s

speed = |-35| = 35m/s

direction is to the left since the right side is the positive direction.

Answer:

Option D. ²³⁹₉₃Np

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were:

²³⁹₉₂U —> ⁰₋₁e + __

Let ⁿₘX represent the unknown. Thus, the equation above becomes

²³⁹₉₂U —> ⁰₋₁e + ⁿₘX

Next, we shall determine n, m and X. This can be obtained as follow:

239 = 0 + n

239 = n

n = 239

92 = –1 + m

Collect like terms

92 + 1 = m

93 = m

m = 93

ⁿₘX => ²³⁹₉₃X => ²³⁹₉₃Np

Thus, the balanced equation becomes:

²³⁹₉₂U —> ⁰₋₁e + ⁿₘX

²³⁹₉₂U —> ⁰₋₁e + ²³⁹₉₃Np

Option D gives the correct answer to the question.

Answer:

D

Explanation:

239 93 Np

A 4.0 kg block is moving at 5.0 m/s along a horizontal frictionless surface toward an ideal spring that is attached to a wall, the maximum speed of the block when the spring is compressed to one-half of the maximum distance is 4.33 m/s

From the conservation of energy; the kinetic energy of the mass is equal to the work done on the spring.

i.e.

[tex]\mathbf{\dfrac{1}{2} mv^2 = \dfrac{1}{2}kx^2_{max}}[/tex]

Given that:

∴

From the equation above, multiplying both sides with 2, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{mv^2 =kx^2_{max}}[/tex]

Making (k) the subject of the formula;

[tex]\mathbf{k = \dfrac{mv^2}{x^2_{max}}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{k = \dfrac{4 \times 5^2}{0.68^2}}[/tex]

k = 216.26 N/m

However, when compressed to one-half of the maximum distance; the speed is computed as follows:

x = 0.68/2 = 0.34 m

∴

[tex]\mathbf{\dfrac{1}{2}mv_o^2 - \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2 = \dfrac{1}{2}kx^2}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{m(v_o^2 -v^2) =kx^2}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{(v_o^2 -v^2) =\dfrac{kx^2}{m}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{(5^2 -v^2) =\dfrac{216.26 \times 0.34^2}{4.0}}[/tex]

25 - v² = 6.25

25 -6.25 = v²

v² = 18.75

[tex]\mathbf{ v= \sqrt{18.75 }}[/tex]

v = 4.33 m/s

Therefore, we can conclude that the speed of the block when the spring is compressed to only one-half of the maximum distance is 4.33 m/s

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Answer:

C: will brake and quickly come to rest.

Explanation:

Correct answer is option C because for the swinging motion of the copper plates between the magnetic field which is set up as a result of it being between the two magnetic poles, there will be a continuous change of magnetic field flux that will be linked with the swinging pendulum.

As a result of this continuous change of magnetic field flux, it makes eddy currents to be set up in the copper plate which according to the Lenz's laws of electromagnetic induction tries to oppose the motion of the swinging pendulum and finally will make it come to rest.

Answer:

Option C

Explanation:

Options for the question are as follows -

A. At a faucet close to entrance valve

B. At a faucet away from the entrance valve

C. It will be the same at all faucets

D. There will be no increase in the pressure at the faucets

Solution -

The static force will be the same at all faucets and also the area of the faucets be same.

Thus, the pressure created at all faucets will be the same.

Thus, option C is correct

Answer:

The moon does not stay at the same distance of the earth because the ortbit of the moon is slightly elliptical. If earth is not tilted at an angle of 66.5°, there will be no change in the season and the earth will have equal length of days and night.

Explanation:

mark me brainlest

Answer:

[tex]3.49\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega\text{m}[/tex]

Explanation:

r = Radius = [tex]\dfrac{2}{2}=1\ \text{mm}[/tex]

B = Magnetic field = 3 mT

1 mm = Distance from the surface of the wire

V = Voltage

x = Distance from the probe = [tex]r+1=1+1=2\ \text{mm}[/tex]

R = Resistance

L = Length of wire = 4.5 m

Magnetic field is given by

[tex]B=\dfrac{\mu_0I}{2\pi x}\\\Rightarrow I=\dfrac{B2\pi x}{\mu_0}\\\Rightarrow I=\dfrac{3\times 10^{-3}\times 2\times \pi 2\times 10^{-3}}{4\pi 10^{-7}}\\\Rightarrow I=30\ \text{A}[/tex]

Voltage is given by

[tex]V=IR\\\Rightarrow R=\dfrac{V}{I}\\\Rightarrow R=\dfrac{1.5}{30}\\\Rightarrow R=0.05\ \Omega[/tex]

Resistivity is given by

[tex]\rho=\dfrac{RA}{L}\\\Rightarrow \rho=\dfrac{0.05\times \pi (1\times 10^{-3})^2}{4.5}\\\Rightarrow \rho=3.49\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega\text{m}[/tex]

The resistivity of the material is [tex]3.49\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega\text{m}[/tex].

Answer:

I guess it is kinetic energy

Answer:

kinetic energy because my dog told me

Answer:

8 kV

Explanation:

Here is the complete question

Assume a device is designed to obtain a large potential difference by first charging a bank of capacitors connected in parallel and then activating a switch arrangement that in effect disconnects the capacitors from the charging source and from each other and reconnects them all in a series arrangement. The group of charged capacitors is then discharged in series. What is the maximum potential difference that can be obtained in this manner by using ten 500 μF capacitors and an 800−V charging source?

Solution

Since the capacitors are initially connected in parallel, the same voltage of 800 V is applied to each capacitor. The charge on each capacitor Q = CV where C = capacitance = 500 μF and V = voltage = 800 V

So, Q = CV

= 500 × 10⁻⁶ F × 800 V

= 400000 × 10⁻⁶ C

= 0.4 C

Now, when the capacitors are connected in series and the voltage disconnected, the voltage across is capacitor is gotten from Q = CV

V = Q/C

= 0.4 C/500 × 10⁻⁶ F

= 0.0008 × 10⁶ V

= 800 V

The total voltage obtained across the ten capacitors is thus V' = 10V (the voltages are summed up since the capacitors are in series)

= 10 × 800 V

= 8000 V

= 8 kV

Answer:

B. it increases

Explanation:

As shown in the table provided, the speed of sound in water (1493 m/s) is greater than the speed of sound in air (346 m/s).

Answer:

B is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Answer:

The final speed will be "[tex]1.185\times 10^7 \ m/sec[/tex]".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Potential difference,

Δv = 400 v

Radius,

r = 0.5580 cm

As we know,

⇒  [tex]W=e \Delta v[/tex]

and,

⇒  [tex]\frac{1}{2}mv^2=e \Delta v[/tex]

then,

⇒  [tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{2e \Delta v}{m} }[/tex]

On substituting the values, we get

⇒     [tex]=\sqrt{\frac{2\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 400}{9.11\times 10^{-31}} }[/tex]

⇒     [tex]=\sqrt{\frac{1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 800}{9.11\times 10^{-31}}}[/tex]

⇒     [tex]=1.185\times 10^7 \ m/sec[/tex]

Hello. Your question is incomplete. However, I managed to find it completely on the internet and I realized that you forgot to mention that the question asks you for the maximum energy difference between velovistas and non-athletes, considering that the spring constant for the tendon of the two groups is equal to 33n/mm.

To make this calculation you will need to use Hooke's law, using the formula: ¹/2*K*x², where "K" will be the value of the spring constant for the tendon and "X" will be the value of the sprinter and non-athlete terms.

So for the sprinter we will have the calculation:

¹/2*33*41² -------> 0,5*33*1681 = 27736. 5 Nmm

(To facilitate the calculation, first solve the division of ¹/2 and then multiply 41 by 41, lastly, just multiply all the results.)

For the non-athlete we will have the calculation:

¹/2*33*33² -------> 0,5*33*1089 = 17968. 5 Nmm

(To facilitate the calculation, first solve the division of ¹/2 and then multiply 41 by 41, lastly, just multiply all the results.)

Now, to reach the final result, you only need to subtract the two values presented by the sprinter and the non-athlete.

27736.5 - 17968.5 = 9768 Nmm

Answer:

a = 52s²

Explanation:

How to find acceleration

Acceleration (a) is the change in velocity (Δv) over the change in time (Δt), represented by the equation a = Δv/Δt. This allows you to measure how fast velocity changes in meters per second squared (m/s^2). Acceleration is also a vector quantity, so it includes both magnitude and direction.

Solve

We know initial velocity (u = 16), velocity (v = 120) and acceleration (a = ?)

We first need to solve the velocity equation for time (t):

v = u + at

v - u = at

(v - u)/a = t

Plugging in the known values we get,

t = (v - u)/a

t = (16 m/s - 120 m/s) -2/s2

t = -104 m/s / -2 m/s2

t = 52 s

Answer:

Explained below.

Explanation:

We are told that the surface material is ejected into space at a high speed. This means that it will have a likely high momentum as well.

Now, we can say that the total momentum is conserved because the entire asteroid system behaves like an isolated system.

Also, as the surface material is moving with the high momentum like we established earlier, it will cause the asteroid to move with a speed in an opposite direction which also means deflection in an opposite direction.

Answer:

Explained below.

Explanation:

The material ejected from the surface of the asteroid would have a significant momentum. Since the asteroid and all its material is an isolated system, the ejection would cause an oppositely directed change in momentum of the asteroid, according to the law of conservation of momentum.

The ejected material is analogous to gases expelled from a rocket, and the asteroid is analogous to a rocket.

Answer:

I'd say D

Explanation:

because not all weather happens within the atmosphere, and most weather depends on region (lile if your near the equator or not)

Answer:

SO₂ + 2H₂ —> S + 2H₂O

The coefficients are: 1, 2, 1, 2

Explanation:

SO₂ + H₂ —> S + H₂O

The above equation can be balance as follow:

SO₂ + H₂ —> S + H₂O

There are 2 atoms of O on the left side and 1 atom on the right side. It can be balance by writing 2 before H₂O as shown below:

SO₂ + H₂ —> S + 2H₂O

There are 2 atoms of H on the left side and 4 atoms the right side. It can be balance by writing 2 before H₂ as shown below:

SO₂ + 2H₂ —> S + 2H₂O

Now, the equation is balanced.

The coefficients are: 1, 2, 1, 2

Answer:

isopropyl alcohol would form smaller droplets, because it has lower surface tension than water has

Explanation:

Ap3x

The droplets made of isopropyl alcohol instead of water be smaller due to surface tension.

The single drop of a liquid in the form of sphere is called droplet.

Water can form large dewdrops in nature. Isopropyl alcohol would form smaller droplets, because it has lower surface tension than water.

Surface tension is the property of the liquid to acquire minimum surface area.

Thus, droplets made of isopropyl alcohol instead of water be smaller.

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The final angular velocity of the carnival ride at a displacement of 6.3 rad is 25.2 rad/s.

The final angular velocity of the carnival ride is determined by applying third kinematic equation as shown below;

ωf = ωi + 2αθ

where;

ωf = 0 + 2(2.0) x 6.3

ωf = 25.2 rad/s

Thus, the final angular velocity of the carnival ride at a displacement of 6.3 rad is 25.2 rad/s.

​

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Answer: 5.0 rad/s

Explanation: Because that’s what khan said so try it out.

Answer:

The Solar System has plants? I assume you meant planets. If so, that is false

Explanation:

Answer:

We apply an electric field in the negative y direction

Explanation:

Since A uniform magnetic field is in the positive z direction and A positively charged particle is moving in the positive x direction through the field, the magnetic force acting on the positively charged particle is in the positive y direction according to Fleming's right-hand rule.

For the net force on the particle to be zero, we apply an electric field in the negative y direction to create an electric force on the positively charged particle, so as to cancel out the magnetic force.

Answer:

W = 1.875 J

Explanation:

For this exercise let's use the relationship between work and kinetic energy

          W = ΔK

The kinetic energy of rotational motion is

         K₀ = ½ I w²

we can assume that the box is small, so it can be treated as a point object, with moment of inertia

          I = m rₐ²

angular and linear velocity are related

          v = w r

          w = v / r

we substitute in the equation, for point A

         K₀ = ½ (m rₐ²) (v / rₐ)²

         K₀ = ½ m v²

For the final point B, as the system is isolated the angular momentum is conserved

initial        L₀ = Io wo

final          L_f = I_f w_f

                L₀ = L_f

                 I₀ w₀ = I_f w_f

                (m rₐ²) w₀ = (m  [tex]r_{b} ^2[/tex]) w_f

                 w_f = (rₐ/r_b)² w₀

with this value we find the final kinetic energy

         K_f = ½ I_f w_f²

         K_f = ½ (m [tex]r_{b}^2[/tex]) ( (rₐ / r_b)²  w₀) ²

         K_f = ½ m [tex]\frac{r_a^4}{r_b^2} \ w_o^2[/tex]

we substitute in the realcion of work

          W = K_f - K₀

          W = ½ m  [tex]( \( \frac {r_a^2 }{r_b} )^2[/tex] w₀² - ½ m v²

          W = ½ m  [tex]\frac{r_a^4}{r_b^2} ( \frac{v}{r_a} ) ^2[/tex] - ½ m v²

           W = ½ m [tex]\frac{r_a^2}{r_b^2} \ v^2[/tex] - ½ m v2

          W = ½ m v² (([tex]( \ (\frac{r_a}{r_b})^2 -1)[/tex]

let's calculate

           W = ½ ( [tex]\frac{8}{32}[/tex] ) 5 ((2/1)² -1)

           W = 0.625 (3)

           W = 1.875 J

Answer:

[tex]5.76\times 10^{-18}\ \text{N}[/tex] perpendicular to the velocity and magnetic field

Explanation:

B = Magnetic field = [tex]4\times 10^{-5}\ \text{T}[/tex]

[tex]\theta[/tex] = Angle the magnetic field makes with the horizontal = [tex]30^{\circ}[/tex]

v = Velocity of electron = [tex]9\times 10^5\ \text{m/s}[/tex]

q = Charge of electron = [tex]1.6\times 10^{-19}\ \text{C}[/tex]

Magnetic force is given by

[tex]F=qvB\sin\theta\\\Rightarrow F=1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 9\times 10^5\times 4\times 10^{-5}\sin30^{\circ}\\\Rightarrow F=2.88\times 10^{-18}\ \text{N}[/tex]

The magnitude of the magnetic force is [tex]2.88\times 10^{-18}\ \text{N}[/tex] and the direction is perpendicular to the velocity and magnetic field.

Answer:

1) It seems that he would need the central gravitational force

   (the sun)

2) Also the planets would need to be included (orbits around the sun)

    Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, etc.

3. Then, many of the planets have significant objects (moons) rotating about them.

Those would seem to be objects to be included in a model of the solar system.

1) He would need the central gravitational force (the sun)

2) The planets would need to be included: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, etc.

3) Many of the planets have specific moons rotating about them.

Larry should put the Earth between the planets Venus, and Mars.