I need help desperately

Answer:

We have a 52 card deck:

a. Find the probability that both cards are clubs.

The probability of drawing a club will be equal to the quotient between the number of clubs in the deck divided by the total number of cards in the deck.

We initially have 13 clubs and 52 cards, then the probability of drawing a club in the first draw is:

p1 = 13/52.

Now the probability of drawing a club in the second draw will be:

p2 = 12/51

Where each number is decreased by one because we already drew a card, and that card was a club.

Then the probability of both events happening will be equal to the product of the individual probabilities:

P = p1*p2 = (13/52)*( 12/51) = 0.059

b. Find the probability that the first card is a spade and the second is a club.

Same as before, the probability of first drawing a spade is:

p1 = 13/52

And the probability of drawing a club in the second draw will be:

p2 = 13/51

This case differs from the prior one because for the second draw we have 13 clubs in the deck, and as we already drew one card (that was not a club) the total number of cards in the deck is 51.

Now the joint probability will be:

P = p1*p2 = (13/52)*(13/51) = 0.064

Answer:

7703.66666667

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

n=9

Step-by-step explanation:

7n+5=68  Subtract 5 on both sides.

    -5  -5

7n=63       Divide both sides by 7.

/7   /7

n=9

Hope this helps! Have a nice day ^^

Answer:

n = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Move similar terms to one side. Here we are moving the 5 over to the side with 68 by subtracting it. We also have to subtract 5 from the other side too (what you do to one side you must do to the other)

7n + 5 = 68

     - 5   -5

      7n = 63

2) Isolate the variable. We do this by dividing the 7 from 7n. We also have to divide 7 from other other side too.

     7n = 63

     /7    /7

       n =9

Answer:

x = 45

Step-by-step explanation:

Because these are two congruent triangles inside of each other we can set up an equivalency ratio.

25/35 = x/65

Multiply both sides by 65 to get x alone

65 * 25/35 = x/65 * 65

(65 * 25)/35 = x1

1576/35 = x

x = 45

Hope this helps,

Answer:Around 10 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think it's 118°73°49° not really sure

sorry

Answer:

hey  welcome to Brainly, and 2 + 2 = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

2+2=4

3+3=6

4+4=8

5+5=10

and so on just keep adding 2

Answer:

its 3 and 16 just trust me

The least common multiple is divisible by both a and b. The two numbers below have a least common multiple of 48 is 3 and 16.

The least common multiple that is divisible by both a and b is the smallest positive integer, lowest common multiple, or smallest common multiple of two numbers a and b, generally indicated by LCM.

The two numbers below have a least common multiple of 48 are,

3 and 16 ⇒ 3×16=48

Hence, the two numbers below have a least common multiple of 48 is 3 and 16.

Learn more about LCM:

https://brainly.com/question/20739723

#SPJ2

Answer:

4.687225

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer is C, u can find this just by looking at domain

Answer:

Marianne is 15 years old and her brother is 5 years old; is the relationship between their ages proportional?

Step-by-step explanation:

i just did it !!

Answer:

The required probability is 0.09875

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given information;

the probability of repairing the telephones = 0.70

the probability of the replaced = 0.30

Suppose we consider  Mto denotes the telephone that is submitted for service while under warranty and must be replaced.

Then;

p = P(S) = P(replaced | submitted) P(submitted)

= 0.30 × 0.20

= 0.06

Now, the probability that exactly two will end up being replaced under warranty given that it assumes  a binomial distribution where n = 10 and p = 0.06

[tex]P(X=2)=\bigg (^{10}_{2}\bigg) 0.06^2(1-0.06)^{10-2}[/tex]

[tex]P(X=2)=\dfrac{10!}{2!(10-2)!}\times 0.06^2\times (0.94)^{8}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(X=2)=0.09875}[/tex]

Answer is B. 6a/b^7

If correct make brainliest?

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a. m<CBA = m<DBA because of the definition of an angle bisector (angle bisector cuts the angle in half) We are also told that segment BD and Segment BC are congruent.

We don't know if segment AC and AD are congruent so we can't say those angles (the other two) are congruent.

b. point A and B will stay fixed because they are colinear to segment AB (on the same line)

c. Those two are needed because If those are true we can prove that they are congruent by SAS (Side Angle Side)

d. the reflection an prove that the lines and angles are congruent.

Answer:

I think it's the first one... but I'm not pretty sure.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 2020

Answer:

No you dont have to solve it. And I believe it is perpendicular.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Perpendicular

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to solve both. If you make the lines in a graph it will turn out to be perpendicular because they are going to intersect.

Answer:2,7

Step-by-step explanation: I honestly don’t know this might not be right

Answer:

Thus, the original price of the pair of shoes was $100.

Step-by-step explanation:

Percentages

After a 60% discount, the sale price is now valued at 100-60=40% of its original price.

If the sale price is $40, then the original price is calculated as

$40 / 40 * 100 = $100

Thus, the original price of the pair of shoes was $100.

Verify applying 60% discount:

$100 - 60*$100/100 =  $40

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Follow the numbers.

Answer:

The correct option is c.

Step-by-step explanation:

The percentage probability distribution is:

Size (X)      Percentage

 2                   39.9

 3                   24.4

 4                   20.1

 5                   10.8

 6                    3.3

 7                     1.5

Total             100.0

Compute the probability that the size of the family is 4 or more as follows:

P (X ≥ 4) = P (X = 4) + P (X = 5) + P (X = 6) + P (X = 7)

              = 0.201 + 0.108 + 0.033 + 0.015

              = 0.357

Thus, the probability that the size of the family is 4 or more is 0.357.

The correct option is c.

Answer:

I'm not sure of my answer but try this:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

225+40h=y

225 + 40x = 385

-225 -225

------- -------

40x = 160

x= 4

Answer:

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD = 4 [tex]ft^2[/tex]

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ABC = 16 [tex]ft^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

D is a point on AB.

and ABC is a triangle.

AD:DB = 1 : 3

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]CDB = 12 [tex]ft^2[/tex]

Kindly refer to the attached image as per the given dimensions and values.

To find:

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD and Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ABC = ?

Solution:

Formula for area of a triangle = [tex]\frac{1}{2}\times Base \times Height[/tex]

The altitudes of triangles [tex]\triangle[/tex]CDB and [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD are equal in dimensions.

Therefore the area of triangles [tex]\triangle[/tex]CDB and [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD will be equal to the ratio of their bases.

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD : Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]CDB = AD: DB = 1 : 3

[tex]\Rightarrow[/tex] Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD = [tex]\frac{12}{3} = \bold{4 ft^2}[/tex]

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ABC = Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD + Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]CDB = 12 + 4 = 16 [tex]ft^2[/tex]

Therefore, the answer is:

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ACD = 4 [tex]ft^2[/tex]

Area of [tex]\triangle[/tex]ABC = 16 [tex]ft^2[/tex]

I may be wrong but I got x³- 2 + 12.

Answer:

34

Step-by-step explanation:

just guessing but u gotta really put a mind to it aha

Answer:

28

Step-by-step explanation:

50+4= 54

54/2=28

Answer:

2a - 4 = 50

Step-by-step explanation:

Less than means that you subtract 4.

Twice a number just means that you multiply a number by 2.

And we know that all of that equals 50.

If you want to solve it..

2a - 4 = 50

    +4     +4

-----------------

2a = 54

Divide both sides by 2. 54/2 = 27

a = 27

Answer:

144

Step-by-step explanation:

3x2x2

the sum is 12, and after that you do 12^2

the final answer is 144

The number of distinct ways to arrange 2 orange marbles, 2 clear marbles, and 3 yellow marbles in a row will be 144.

A permutation is an act of arranging items or elements in the correct order.

There are 2 orange marbles, 2 clear marbles, and 3 yellow marbles.

Then the number of distinct ways to arrange 2 orange marbles, 2 clear marbles, and 3 yellow marbles in a row will be

⇒ (3 x 2 x 2)²

⇒ 12²

⇒ 144

More about the permutation link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/11732255

#SPJ2

Answer:

0.21

Step-by-step explanation:

3.36/16=0.21

Answer:

$0.21

Step-by-step explanation: