I need help on this physics problem.

Answer:

Yes, when an apple falls towards the earth, the apple gets accelerated and comes down due to the gravitational force of attraction used by the earth. The apple also exerts an equal and opposite force on the earth but the earth does not move because the mass of the apple is very small, due to which the gravitational force produces a large acceleration in it (a = F/m) but the mass of the earth is very large, the same gravitational force produces very small acceleration in the earth and we don't see the earth rising towards the apple.

In 2009 Usain Bolt set the world record time by running 100 meters in 9.58 seconds, assuming that he ran this race with constant acceleration, then the required constant acceleration would have been

There are three equations of motion given by  Newton

v = u + at

S = ut + 1/2×a×t²

v² - u² = 2×a×s

By using the second equation of motion given by Newton,

S = ut + 1/2at²

100= 0 + 0.5*a*9.58²

a = 2.17 meters / second²

Thus,the required constant acceleration of Usain Bolt would have been 2.17 meters / second².

To learn more about equations of motion here, refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/5955789

#SPJ2

Answer and Explanation:

a. An oxygen-filled balloon is not able to float in the air, because the oxygen inside the balloon is of the same density, that is, the same "weight" as the oxygen outside the balloon and present in the atmosphere. The balloon can only float if the gas inside it is less dense than atmospheric oxygen. Helium gas is less dense than atmospheric gas, so if a balloon is filled with helium gas, that balloon will be able to float because of the difference in density.

b. The ship is able to float in the water because its steel construction is hollow and full of air. This makes the average density of this ship less than the density of water, which makes the ship lighter than water and for this reason, this ship is able to float. In addition, the ship is partially immersed, allowing the weight of the ship on the water to counteract the buoyant force that the water promotes on the ship. Weight and buoyant are two opposing forces that keep the ship afloat.

Answer:

hi the question isn't obvious and need a photo I guess

Answer:

See the answer below

Explanation:

After seeing an object on a slide at the low-power objective of the microscope and it disappears on changing to high power, the following can be done to resolve the problem

1. Drop a few drops of immersion oil on the slide and view again under high the power objective.

2. If the object is still not visible after the action above, return the microscope to the low-power objective and make sure the object is refocused and centered. Then carefully change back to the high power objective and use the fine adjustment to bring it into focus.

Answer: masses

Explanation:

Trust me

Answer:

Natae Si Jordan Kaya Sya Napaihe

Explanation:

haha

the simple answer is from 61kmph to 120kmph

Explanation:

no explanation is needed

Complete Question

A 12.5-m fire truck ladder is leaning against a wall. Find the distance d the ladder goes up the wall​ (above the fire​ truck) if the ladder makes an angle of  

40° 16' with the horizontal.

Answer:

 [tex]d=8.01m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Length of ladder [tex]l=12.5m[/tex]

Angle [tex]\theta=40° 16'=20.26 \textdegree[/tex]

Generally the Trigonometric equation for distance d it goes up the wall is mathematically given by

 [tex]d=l sin \theta[/tex]

 [tex]d=12.5 sin 40.26[/tex]

 [tex]d=8.01m[/tex]

Answer:

hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm y

We have that  the distance to Betelgeuse, and the uncertainty in that measurement is

From the Question we are told that

Betelgeuse (in Orion)  has a parallax of 0.00451 + 0.00080

Generally

[tex]Distance\ in\ parsecs =\frac{ 1}{(parallax\ measured\ in\ arcseconds}[/tex]

Where

Parallax [tex]P =0.00451[/tex]

Uncertainty [tex]U = 0.00080[/tex]

Generally the equation for the distance  is mathematically given as

[tex]d=(\frac{1}{P}pc\pm(\frac{U}{P}*100\%))[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]d=(\frac{1}{0.00451}pc\pm(\frac{0.00080}{0.00451}*100\%))[/tex]

[tex]d=(221.7\pm39.33)pc[/tex]

For more information on this visit

https://brainly.com/question/12319416?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

The distance of a mass 25g from the pivot​ is 18cm

Explanation:

Given

[tex]m_1 = 10g[/tex]

[tex]d_1 = 45cm[/tex]

[tex]m_2 = 25g[/tex]

Required

Distance of m2 from the pivot

To do this, we make use of:

[tex]m_1 * d_1 = m_2 * d_2[/tex] --- moments of the masses

So, we have:

[tex]10 * 45= 25* d_2[/tex]

[tex]450= 25* d_2[/tex]

Divide both sides by 25

[tex]18= d_2[/tex]

Hence:

[tex]d_2 = 18[/tex]

Answer:

243 N

Explanation:

The formula for electromagnetic force is F= Kq1q2/r^2

where r is the distance between the charges, if the distance between the charges is reduced by 1/3 then F will increase by 9 [(1/3r)^2 becomes 1/9r which is 9F] so 27*9 is 243N

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Specific heat capacity is an intensive property of a material. The specific heat of a material is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one unit mass m of material by one unit of temperature.

a) Temperature is inversely proportional to specific heat capacity. If the same amount of heat is applied to all three balls, the ball that will reach the highest temperature is the ball with the least specific heat capacity.

Hence lead will have the highest temperature since it has the least specific heat capacity.

b) The quantity of heat is directly proportional to the specific heat capacity. Hence if all balls experience the same temperature change, the ball that have the most energy will be that with the highest specific heat capacity.

Hence aluminum will have the most heat since it has the highest specific heat capacity.

Answer:

a)  y = 0.98 t², t=1s y= 0.98 m,  

b) he two blocks must move the same distance

c) v = 1.96 m / s,  d)  a = -1.96 m / s², e)  x = 0.98 m

Explanation:

For this exercise we can use Newton's second law

Big Block

Y axis

             N-W = 0

             N = M g

X axis

             T- fr = Ma

the friction force has the expression

             fr = μ N

             fr = μ Mg

small block

             w- T = m a

we write the system of equations

             T - fr = M a

             mg - T = m a

we add and resolved

             mg-  μ Mg = (M + m) a

             a = [tex]g \ \frac{m - \mu M}{m+M}[/tex]

             a = [tex]9.8 \ \frac{10- 0.2 \ 20}{ 10 \ +\ 20}[/tex]

             a = 9.8 (6/30)

             a = 1.96 m / s²

a) now we can use the kinematic relations

             y = v₀ t + ½ a t²

the blocks come out of rest so their initial velocity is zero

             y = ½ a t²

             y = ½ 1.96 t²

             y = 0.98 t²

for t = 1s y = 0.98 m

       t = 2s y = 1.96 m

b) Time is a scale that is the same for the entire system, the question should be oriented to how far the big block will move.

As the curda is in tension the two blocks must move the same distance

c) the velocity of the block M

           v = vo + a t

           v = 0 + 1.96 t

for t = 1 s v = 1.96 m / s

       t = 2 s v = 3.92 m / s

d) the deceleration if the chain is cut

when removing the chain the tension becomes zero

           -fr = M a

          - μ M g = M a

          a = - μ g

          a = - 0.2 9.8

          a = -1.96 m / s²

e) the distance to stop the block is

         v² = vo² - 2 a x

        0 = vo² - 2a x

        x = vo² / 2a

        x = 1.96² / 2 1.96

        x = 0.98 m

the time to travel this distance is

        v = vo - a t

        t = vo / a

        t = 1.96 /1.96

        t = 1 s

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

High-speed stroboscopic photographs show that the head of a 200 g golf club is traveling at 60 m/s just before it strikes a  50 g golf ball at rest on a tee. After the collision, the club head travels (in the same direction) at 40 m/s. Find the speed of the golf ball just after impact.

Solution :

We know that momentum = mass x velocity

The momentum of the golf club before impact = 0.200 x 60

                                                                             = 12 kg m/s

The momentum of the ball before impact is zero. So the total momentum before he impact is 12 kg m/s. Therefore, due to the conservation of momentum of the two bodies after the impact is 12 kg m/s.

Now the momentum of the club after the impact is = 0.2 x 40

                                                                                    = 8 kg m/s

Therefore the momentum of the ball is = 12 - 8

                                                                = 4 kg m/s

We know momentum of the ball, p = mass x velocity

                                                     4 = 0.050 x velocity

∴ Velocity =  [tex]$\frac{4}{0.050}$[/tex]

                 = 80 m/s

Hence the speed of the golf ball after the impact is 80 m/s.

Answer:

True

Explanation:

With the gravitational pull that our planets have, we are able to remain in orbit. This demonstrates how every object in the galaxy is attracted to every other object. Every object in the universe that has mass exerts a gravitational pull on every other mass. We as humans do it too, but since our force isn't strong, we don't have much of an effect. I hope this helped and please don't hesitate to reach out with more questions!

The total net force acting on the balloon will be 24498 Newtons

Given that

Volume of the balloon = 2210 cubic meter

Density of the air inside the balloon = 1.13  kg/m3

Here force on the balloon will be equal to the weight of the air displaced by balloon

[tex]F= mass of air displaced\times gravity[/tex]

[tex]F= Density \times volume \times gravity[/tex]

[tex]F=1.13 \times 2210 \times 9.81[/tex]

[tex]F=24498 N[/tex]

The total net force acting on the balloon will be 24498 Newtons

To know more about buoyancy force follow

https://brainly.com/question/117714

Answer:

A) nm, um, mm, cm

B) 1mm, 1cm, 1m, 1km

A) 3500g, B) 2500m, C) 7200 seconds

Answer:

What is (a) the x component and (b) the y component of the net electric field at the square's center

Answer:

0.001 A

Explanation:

Applying,

V = IR.............. Equation 1

Where V = Voltage of the motor, I = current, R = resistance

make I the subject of the equation

I = V/R.............. Equation 2

From the question,

Given: V = 1000 V, R = 1 MΩ = 10⁶ Ω

Substitute these values into equation 2

I = 1000/10⁶

I = 10⁻³ A

I = 0.001 A

Answer:

a)  [tex]v_1=-0.833m/s[/tex]

b)  [tex]V_2=12.5m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Hockey puck Mass [tex]m_1=0.495kg[/tex]

Hockey puck Speed [tex]u_1=4.50m/s[/tex]

Puck Mass [tex]m_2=0.720kg[/tex]

Assuming

Initial speed of Puck [tex]u_2=0[/tex]

Generally the equation for Speed of First Puck is mathematically given by

 [tex]v_1=(\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2})*v_1+(\frac{2m_2}{m_1+m_2})u_2[/tex]

 [tex]v_1=(\frac{0.495-0.720}{0.495+0.720})*4.50+0[/tex]

 [tex]v_1=-0.833m/s[/tex]

Generally the equation for Speed of Second Puck is mathematically given by

 [tex]V_2=(\frac{2m_1}{m_1+m_2})u_2-(\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2})v[/tex]

 [tex]V_2=(\frac{2*0.495}{0.495*0.720})*4.50-0[/tex]

 [tex]V_2=12.5m/s[/tex]

Answer: hello  below is the missing part of your question

A mass m = 10 kg rests on a frictionless table and accelerated by a spring with spring constant k = 5029 N/m. The floor is frictionless except for a rough patch. For this rough path, the coefficient of friction is μk = 0.49. The mass leaves the spring at a speed v = 3.4 m/s.

answer

x = 0.0962 m

Explanation:

First step :

Determine the length of the rough patch/spot

F = Uₓ (mg)

and  w = F.d = Uₓ (mg)  * d

hence;

d( length of rough patch) = w / Uₓ (mg) = 46.55 / (0.49 * 10 * 9.8) = 0.9694 m

next :

work done on unstretched spring length

Given that block travels halfway i.e. d = 0.9694 / 2 = 0.4847 m

w' = Uₓ (mg)  * d

    = 0.49 * 10 * 9.81 * 0.4847 = 23.27 J

also given that the Elastic energy of spring = work done ( w')

1/2 * kx^2 = 23.27 J

x = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{2*23.27}{5029} }[/tex]  = 0.0962 m

Answer:

  r ’= 4 r

Explanation:

Electric potential energy is

          U = [tex]k \frac{q_1q_2}{r_{12}}[/tex]k q1q2 / r12

in this exercise

          q₁ = q₂ = q

          U = k q² / r

for when the charge change

           U ’= k q’² / r’

indicate that

      q ’= 2q

      U ’= U

we substitute

           U = k (2q) ² / r ’

           U = 4 k q² / r ’

we substitute

           [tex]k \ \frac{q^2}{r} = 4 k \ \frac{q^2}{r'}[/tex]k q² / r = 4 k q² / r ’

           r ’= 4 r

Answer:

K = 0 J

Explanation:

Given that,

The mass of the particle, m = 1.2 mg

The speed of the particle, [tex]v=1.62\times 10\ cm/h[/tex]

We need to find the kinetic energy of the particle at time t = 0 s.

At t = 0 s, the particle is at rest, v = 0

So,

[tex]K=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

If v = 0,

[tex]K=0\ J[/tex]

So, the kinetic energy of the particle at time t = 0 s is 0 J.

Answer:

Units. Torque has the dimension of force times distance, symbolically T−2L2M. Although those fundamental dimensions are the same as that for energy or work, official SI literature suggests using the unit newton metre (N⋅m) and never the joule. The unit newton metre is properly denoted N⋅m.

Dimension: M L2T−2

In SI base units: kg⋅m2⋅s−2

Other units: pound-force-feet, lbf⋅inch, ozf⋅in

Answer:

hope it is helpful to you

☆☆☆☆☆☆☆☆☆☆☆

Explanation:

A circuit breaker is an electrical switch designed to protect an electrical circuit from damage caused by overcurrent/overload or short circuit. Its basic function is to interrupt current flow after protective relays detect a fault.

Circuit breakers have been designed to detect when there is a fault in the electricity, so it will “trip” and shut down electrical flow. ... This detection is key to preventing surges of electricity that travel to appliances or other outlets, which can cause them to break down

Answer:

It is all a thermodynamic system that is highly related to each other.

Explanation:

Because they are in the physics of thermodynamics it is not wrong to say they follow the same thermodynamic rules and has highly the same properties of energy.

Answer:

Point C

Explanation:

Greatest Kinetic Energy means lowest potential energy since energy is conserved. Lowest potential energy means lowest height which is at Point C.