1. Reducing project scope
3. Critical-chain
4. Compromise quality.
These are the options for accelerating a project schedule when resources are constrained or the budget is severely constrained.
The term "critical chain" means what?The Critical Chain is "the longest path in the schedule, including activity dependency and resource limits." This means that the CCPM analyzes the schedule to identify the tasks that, if postponed, will push back the project's completion date.
What is the critical chain's main focus?A project management methodology called critical chain project management (CCPM) enables you to prioritize related tasks and keep track of crucial resources so that you can complete projects as quickly as feasible.
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When resources are limited or the cost is severely restricted, a critical-chain method is used to accelerate the project timetable.
What does the term "critical chain" mean?The Critical Chain is the path in the schedule and takes resource limits and activity interdependence into account. This means that CCPM analyzes the schedule to identify the tasks that, if prolonged, will push back the project's completion date.
Why is the critical chain crucial?You can finish projects more quickly because of it. It helps project managers concentrate better. It improves scheduling accuracy and enables you to make the best use of the available resources. It avoids improper float/slack management. In order to accomplish projects as quickly as possible, critical chain projects let you rank dependent tasks while also maintaining track of crucial resources.
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contribute to and benefit from information that use in performing, acquiring, searching, analyzing, organizing, storing, programming, producing, distributing, marketing, or selling functions.
Knowledge workers contribute to and benefit from the information that uses in performing, acquiring, searching, analyzing, organizing, storing, programming, producing, distributing, marketing, or selling functions.
A company is a collection of individuals who paint together, like a community association, a charity, a union, or an enterprise. You could use the phrase enterprise to consult an institution or commercial enterprise, or to the act of forming or organizing something.
An organization agency is an entity that is founded for the cause of wearing on the industrial employer of promoting ashioand buying. Those organizations are based totally on the systems of law that governs agreement and this exchange, assets rights, and incorporation.
An organizational function is defined by using its characteristic inside a bigger group.
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Which of the following is NOT protected by copyright?
A)Trade secrets
B)Photographs
C)Written music
D)Newspapers
Newspapers released prior to 1927 are exempt from copyright and are deemed to be in the "public domain." Hence option D is correct .
What is Copyright ?A copyright is a sort of intellectual property that, typically for a certain period of time, grants its owner the sole authority to reproduce, transmit, adapt, exhibit, and perform a creative work.
The creative work could take the form of something musical, artistic, educational, or literary. A creative work's original expression of a concept is what copyright is meant to protect, not the idea itself. A copyright may be susceptible to restrictions based on factors of public interest, such as the fair use doctrine in the US.
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identify the statements that correctly describe the tariff of 1816 and its context
a. The law protected American-made goods by taxing similar goods from abroad.
b. The law admitted imported goods that could not be produced in the United States tax-free
The law admitted imported goods that could not be produced in the United States tax-free is the statements that correctly describe the tariff of 1816 and its context. Hence, option B is correct.
What is the US import law?To enter the country lawfully, imported items must arrive at the port of entry, have the delivery authorized by CBP, and have the estimated duties paid. The importer of record is responsible for planning the inspection and the release of the goods.
The convention aims to simplify temporary admittance procedures and support the expansion of international trade by streamlining and harmonizing procedures through the use of standardized model papers, such as international customs documents with international security.
Thus, option B is correct.
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In a closed economy, national savings will be:
a. lower than private savings if the government runs a deficit.
b. higher than private savings if the government runs a deficit.
c. lower than private savings if the government runs a surplus.
d. None of these is true.
National savings in a closed economy is the total of private and public savings. Private, public, and net capital inflows are added to determine national saving in an open economy.
Are investments made in a closed economy equal to national savings?Particularly, for a closed economy, national saving and investment must be equal. The system by which the economy matches one person's saving with another person's investing is comprised of financial institutions.
What is the most effective technique to comprehend a closed economy?Since Robinson Crusoe was unable to trade, economists frequently utilize the analogy of Crusoe's island. The simplest method for comprehending closed economies is the one-man economy.
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Section 1 Question 1 of 22. A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect taxpayers by: o Providing them with an accurate return, including all tax benefits to which they are entitled. o Guaranteeing their returns will not be questioned by the IRS. o Promising they will be free from IRS penalties. o Protecting the tax preparer, not the taxpayer. Mark for follow up Question 2 of 22. A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect the tax preparer through all of the following EXCEPT: o Providing a quality product that helps them increase client retention o Minimizing the risk of being subject to preparer penalties. o Showing integrity in the return preparation process. o Eliminating the need for preparer due diligence notes Mark for follow up Question 4 of 22. Beatrice is eligible to claim EITC based on Jordyn, her granddaughter and qualifying child. Jordyn's mother, Beth, is also eligible and plans to claim Jordyn as a qualifying child for EITC. Which of the following statements is accurate? o Beth holds a higher right and may claim EITC based on Jordyn because Beth is Jordyn's parent. o As long as Beatrice files before Beth, you may prepare her return claiming EITC based on Jordyn. o Beatrice may claim EITC based on Jordyn if her AGI was higher than Beth's and if she files first o Beatrice and Beth may agree to each claim one-half of the EITC based on Jordyn, their qualifying child. Mark for follow up Question 5 of 22. Virginia comes to your tax office to have her income tax return prepared. She is eligible to claim EITC based on Kellie, her granddaughter and qualifying child. Virginia has $24.000 in wages and owns the home where she, Kellie, and Kellie's father, Herman, live. Herman would also like to claim Kellie as a qualifying child for EITC; however, Herman's only income for the year was $2,500 of unemployment income. He contributed nothing to the household expenses. Which of the following statements is accurate? o Herman holds a higher right and may claim EITC based on Kellie because Herman is Kellie's parent o As long as Virginia files before Herman, you may prepare her return claiming EITC based on Kellie. o Virginia may daim EITC based on Kellie, as her AGI was higher than Herman's and Herman has no earned income and thus does not qualify for the EITC o Herman and Virginia may agree to each claim one-half of the EITC based on Kellie, their qualifying child. Mark for follow up Question 6 of 22 Henry who is not a dependent states he wishes to claim EIC this year for his 35 year old dependent child. Both reside in the US Henry states that the child wes with Henry, is not mamed, is disabled, and has not worked during the year. What does Henry's tax preparer need to do to determine if the child can quality Henry for ETC? o Enter Henry's child on this return and identify him as a disabled qualifying child o Advice the tax payer of the tax definition of disabled and apply sound judgment and common sense to see if the definition is met o Ask for proof of the child's name o Explain to Henry that a 35-year-old child is too old to be a qualiting child for EITC Mark for follow Up
A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect taxpayers by option A: Providing them with an accurate return, including all tax benefits to which they are entitled.
A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect the tax preparer through except option D: Eliminating the need for preparer due diligence notes Mark for follow up
The statement that is accurate is option C: Beatrice may claim EITC based on Jordyn if her AGI was higher than Beth's and if she files first.
What are tax ethics?Tax ethics, is known to be the term for the taxpayer's moral duty to pay taxes, is influenced by their interaction with the government as citizens. Tax evasion and tax ethics are frequently used synonymously.
When filing taxes, a tax preparer should take certain ethical considerations into account:
Inform the appropriate third parties about the suspected fraudulent behavior.Inform the IRS and other tax authorities of the alleged fraudulent activities.Think about ending the engagement.Therefore, one can say that anyone who prepares a tax return may now be held accountable for errors committed in filing a return for someone else due to a change in tax regulations that took effect more than ten years ago. An IRS monetary penalty may be imposed on a tax preparer who made errors on your return.
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although it is a strong relationship, a cooperative alliance lacks the that is needed between the various buying and supplying firms in order to optimize the benefits for all of the members of the supply chain.
Although it is a strong relationship, a cooperative alliance lacks the teamwork that is needed between the various buying and supplying firms in order to optimize the benefits for all of the members of the supply chain.
What does the International Cooperative Alliance mean?The International Co-operative Alliance (ICA) is a free, non-governmental organization that unites, advocates for, and supports cooperatives all over the world. It exists to offer a powerful and effective global voice and venue for knowledge, expertise, and coordinated action for and about cooperatives.
What is the International Cooperative Alliance's main goal?The primary goals of the ICA are to advance "the world cooperative movement: to promote and safeguard cooperative values and principles; to enable the establishment of economic and other mutually beneficial links amongst its member organizations."
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Insurers sometimes grant underwriting authority to producers. This authority is usually granted based on all of the following, EXCEPT:_____.
A. Location
B. Experience
C. Contractual arrangements
D. Profitability
Option (a), Producers occasionally receive underwriting approval from insurers. The standard criteria for granting this permission are all of the following, except location.
What standards are usually used for underwriting?Underwriting standards, which are established by banks and other lending organizations, are used to evaluate a borrower's creditworthiness (i.e. a loan). Underwriting criteria have a role in determining how much debt should be issued, as well as its terms and interest rates. These rules help to protect banks by limiting risk and losses to a reasonable level.
What exactly is underwriting in life insurance?Underwriting is the process of assessing a life insurance application to determine whether or not a policy should be approved, depending on the risk profile of the applicant.
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Resource leveling or smoothing can have all the following results on a project EXCEPTSingle choice.
a. Lower peak resource demand.
b. Reduced resource need
c. A longer project duration
Resource leveling or smoothing can have all the following results on a project except a longer project duration. So option c is the correct option .
Resource leveling: What does that mean?Resource leveling is a strategy in resource management that can assist teams in anticipating project timeframes and better accommodating resource restrictions. It aids in avoiding bad project management, which frequently results in last-minute delays, exhausted team members, and expense overruns.
What does "resource leveling" and "resource smoothing" mean?Changing a project's start and finish dates to account for scarce resources is a practice known as resource leveling. While resource smoothing involves altering project operations to make sure that work is finished in accordance with current timelines.
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In October of 2004, British regulators were forced to suspend the license of a flu vaccine plant in Liverpool operated by the Chiron Corporation due to concerns over bacterial contamination. As a result, the market was less competitive and the remaining suppliers of the flu vaccine experienced an increase in their market power. Suppose the market for one of the remaining firms is represented by the following graph. a. Place point E on the remaining producer's profit maximizing price and output. Price (5 per dose) 99888 RNR2209 0 2 4 Marginal Revenue Demand 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 Quantity (millions of doses) b. Compare the marginal benefit and marginal cost at the firm's profit maximizing level of output. The marginal benefit is O reflected by the demand curve, so the marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost. Society would benefit if more flu vaccines were produced. O reflected by the demand curve, so the marginal cost is greater than the marginal benefit. Society is expending too many resources on flu vaccines. O reflected by the marginal revenue curve, so the marginal benefit is equal to the marginal cost. The socially optimal amount is produced O reflected by the marginal cost curve, so the marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost. Society is expending too many resources on flu vaccines. c. If this were a perfectly competitive market, what would be the equilibrium price? Price: $ 12 d. If this were a perfectly competitive market, what would be the equilibrium output? Equilibrium output: million doses
The most a consumer will spend on one additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit .the difference in cost for producing one extra good or additional unit of a product is known as the marginal cost of production.
Both the marginal benefit and marginal cost are indicators of how a product's price or value shifts. While marginal cost affects the producer, marginal benefit affects the consumer. When producing, setting a price for, and marketing a product, businesses must take into account both ideas. The maximum sum of money a consumer will spend on an additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit. Customers' satisfaction tends to decline as spending increases. The difference in price caused by producing an extra unit of a good or service is known as the marginal cost. profit maximizing level of output.=Total revenue-total cost
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The most a consumer will spend on one additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit .the difference in cost for producing one extra good or additional unit of a product is known as the marginal cost of production.
Both the marginal benefit and marginal cost are indicators of how a product's price or value shifts. While marginal cost affects the producer, marginal benefit affects the consumer. When producing, setting a price for, and marketing a product, businesses must take into account both ideas. The maximum sum of money a consumer will spend on an additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit. Customers' satisfaction tends to decline as spending increases. The difference in price caused by producing an extra unit of a good or service is known as the marginal cost. profit maximizing level of output.=Total revenue-total cost
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vince buys 500 shares of common stock in water services, inc. as a shareholder of record, vince owns a proportionate interest with regard to water’s
Vince owns proportionate interest with regard to water’s earnings, control and net worth.
What is net worth?A person or institution's net worth is calculated as the total value of all of its financial and non-financial assets less the total value of all of its outstanding liabilities. It can apply to organizations, people, governments, or even entire nations. Economic sectors like the financial sector are also included. Equity is another name for net worth in company. It is often based on the carrying value of all assets and liabilities, which is the value as it is stated on the financial statements. The net worth will be incorrect to the degree that the balance sheet items do not accurately reflect their genuine (market) value. When looking at the balance sheet, it is clear that net value is negative if accumulated losses exceed shareholder equity.
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which of the following occurs on the date of record?
a. The company accrues the dividend to be paid.
b. The board of directors declares the dividend.
c. The company pays the dividend.
d. A list of shareholders entitled to receive the dividend is prepared.
e. None of the choices occurs at the date of record.
Option (e), None of the options are true as of the record date.
What is record date of an event?
The issuing corporation establishes a fixed date when the investor must own shares in order to become eligible to engage in corporate events like receiving dividend, bonus shares etc. Record date refers to this.
The record date, which establishes the deadline by which shareholders must be listed on the business's books in order to be entitled to receive dividends on their shares, is decided by the board of directors of a corporation. A stock's price normally drops by the amount of the declared dividend on the ex-dividend day.
If I buy just on record date, would I get the dividend?Stocks normally have an ex-dividend date set one business day prior to the record date. You won't get the next dividend payment if you buy a stock on the ex-dividend date or later. Instead, the seller gets the dividend. If you acquire well before ex-dividend date, then will get the dividend.
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Moving average (MA) methods work best when? a long planning horizon is involved. a cyclical pattern is observed in a time series. demand is relatively stable and consistent. there is a major trend in a time series.
When demand is reasonably solid and consistent, moving average (MA) techniques are most effective.
What can you infer from a moving average?A stock indicator known as a moving average (MA) is frequently for use in technical analysis to assist smooth out price data by generating a continuously updated average price. An uptrend is indicated by a rising moving average, whilst a downtrend is shown by a dropping moving average for the securities.
Which moving averages is the ideal one?In the world of stock trading, the 200-day similar method is thought to be highly important. Generally speaking, a stock is considered to have been in a bullish trend if its 50-day moving average is higher than its 200-day long - term average. A crossover of the 200-day rising average to the downward is seen as bearish.
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your next assignment is to analyze the f-41 broadsword. this strike figher operates as both an atmospheric and exo-atmospheric platform for planetary defense. the united nations space command (unsc) is concerned about the handling qualities of the aircraft. specifically, the damping appears to be too low for the phugoid mode so pilots are reportedly being distracted by the slowly-decaying oscillations.
This strike fighter serves as a platform for both atmospheric and extra-atmospheric defence of the planet. Concerns about the aircraft's handling have been raised by the United Nations Space Command (unsc).
Pilots are reportedly distracted by the oscillations that are slowly degrading because the damping appears to be too low for the phugoid mode. The gases that make up the atmosphere that envelops the Earth. By giving us air to breathe, protecting us from the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation, retaining heat to warm the planet, and minimising extreme temperature variations between day and night, it contributes to the viability of life.
The atmospheres of all the planets in our solar system contain gases, but none of them are distributed in the same proportions or have the same layered structures as Earth's.
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camilo's property, with an adjusted basis of $210,400, is condemned by the state. camilo receives property with a fair market value of $241,960 as compensation for the property taken. a. What is Camilo’s realized and recognized gain?
Camilo's realized gain is $_____ and his recognized gain is $_____.
b. What is the basis of the replacement property?
The basis of the replacement property is $_____.
The property taken. a. What is Camilo’s realized and recognized gain are:
Camilo's realized gain is $31560and his recognized gain is $31560.
The basis of the replacement property is $$210400.
Recognized gain = $241,960 - S210,400
= $31560
The whole Recognized gain can be deferred as it is like kind exchange so deferred gain is $31560.
Tax basis of new Prperty = cost - postponed gain
= $241,960 - $31560
= $210400.
A identified benefit is whilst an funding or asset is offered for an quantity this is extra than what changed into in the beginning paid. Recognizing profits on an asset will cause a capital profits situation, however best if the asset is deemed to be capital in nature.
Calculate a Recognized Gain. A benefit is calculated as the sale rate of an asset, minus the acquisition value of the asset. For example, whilst an investor buys a residence for $500,000 and sells it a yr later for $600,000, the identified benefit is $100,000.
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when a perfect hedge is not available to eliminate transaction exposure, the firm may consider methods to at least reduce exposure, such as: (lo 9.4)
when a perfect hedge is not available to eliminate transaction exposure, the firm may consider methods to at least reduce exposure, such as: (lo 9.4), is the true statement.
What is transaction exposure?The degree of risk that businesses engaged in international trade must control is known as transaction exposure. It is specifically the possibility that exchange rates will change after a corporation has committed financial resources.
the risk connected to exchange rate variations associated with consolidating financial statements as well as the risk related to exchange rate fluctuations that have an impact on cash flow movement in the company's day-to-day operations.
Thus, it is the true statement.
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How is monopolistic competition similar to perfect competition and how is it similar to monopoly?
Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition in that there are many sellers and buyers, producers have limited price control, and there is market freedom to enter and exit. It is similar to monopoly in the sense that the products sold are differentiated but still similar.
What is monopolistic competition?When many companies offer competing products or services that are similar but not perfect substitutes, monopolistic competition exists. In a monopolistic competitive industry, the barriers to entry are low, and the decisions of any one firm have no direct impact on its competitors. Pricing and marketing decisions help competing companies differentiate themselves.
The same profit maximization rule is followed by monopolistic competition, monopoly, and perfect competition. Firms in the aforementioned market structures maximize profits by setting their marginal revenue equal to their marginal cost.
Therefore, monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition in terms of buyers and sellers and barriers to entry. It is similar to monopoly in terms of product sold.
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this stage of research allows the creative team to understand what needs to be changed, or redefined, in order to keep pace, or in fact, keep ahead of the marketplace.
Revitalized brand research is the stage of research that allows the creative team to understand what needs to be changed, or redefined, to keep pace, or in fact, keep ahead of the marketplace.
When a brand reaches its mature phase and sales start to fall off, the marketing strategy is used. Market expansions, product changes, and brand repositioning are a few methods of revival.
In a cutthroat industry, brand rejuvenation aids in shattering stereotypes and luring in the intended clientele. Reviving the brand is important to address particular problems that hurt the company's reputation or frighten customers or workers.
While brand revival seeks to develop the customer base of a product that isn't earning enough money, brand reinforcement works to increase the number of consumers of an established and successful brand.
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firms based online have often pursued a strategy of increasing profits not by raising price but by increasing their of sales.
Online businesses have frequently pursued a strategy of growing profits by increasing sales volume rather than raising prices.
What is the significance of growing profitability?Profit generation allows organizations to continue to grow and compete in their industries, therefore increasing profitability is critical for many. Profitability growth can also assist businesses in obtaining capital from financial institutions, investors, and shareholders. If a firm does not now generate profit, improving profitability may enable for the eventual generating of profit, allowing the business to continue to function. Meeting with members of your team to set similar goals connected to growing profits is one of the first ways to help in increasing profitability. Market research may assist you in identifying and comprehending target audiences.
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in 2010, jerry sold blackacre to tiffany. tiffany did not record but immediately assumed possession of blackacre, where she continues to live. in 2015, jerry sold blackacre, the same parcel, to chris by statutory special warranty deed. chris recorded the deed but never assumed possession. thereafter, jerry fled the jurisdiction. blackacre is in a state whose recording statute provides: a conveyance of an interest in land is not valid against any subsequent purchaser for value without notice thereof, unless the conveyance is recorded. this jurisdiction has a 10-year statute of limitations for claims of breach of warranty in a deed. identify this recording statute.
Based on the information provided, the recording statute is notice statute.
Recording statute, also called a recording act, is a state law which regulates the recording of deeds and other interests in real estate property and is utilized to establish priority between parties claiming an interest in the same property. There are three major types of recording statue: Race statute, Notice statute, and Race-notice statute. Notice statute refers to a recording act that extends priority of title of the property to the party with the most recently obtained claim, but only if the party also lacked notice of an earlier claim. Under a notice statute, a later purchaser of an interest has the priority interest if the later purchaser is a bona fide purchaser. A bona fide purchaser for value cannot have actual, constructive, or inquiry notice of any other claim against the property.
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Mayra and nancy went to home goods to buy centerpieces for their new event hall. Mayra bought 7 small centerpieces and 12 large centerpieces and paid $275. 50. Nancy paid $347. 25 for 15 large centerpieces and 9 small centerpieces. How much did each small centerpiece and each large centerpiece cost?.
The cost of small centerpieces is $ 11.5 and large centerpieces is $16.25.
Calculation:-
Mayra bought small centerpieces = 7
Large centerpieces = 12
Total amount paid = $275. 50.
Nancy paid = $347. 25
large centerpieces = 15
small centerpieces = 9
let cost of small centerpieces = x
Large Nancy = y
Using simultaneous equation:-
$347. 25 = 9x + 15y × 4
$275. 50 = 7x + 12y × 5
------------------------------
11.5 = x + 0y
Cost of small centerpieces is $ 11.5
Large centerpieces is $347. 25 = 9x + 15y
= $347. 25 = 9(11.5) + 15y
= $347. 25 = 103.5+ 15y
= 243.75 = 15y
= y = 243.75/15
= $16.25
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the estimation of costs is generally most difficult when the ___________ process has been chosen.
The estimation of costs is generally most difficult when the job shop process has been chosen.
What is a job shop process?Generally, Job shops are primarily small manufacturing systems that manage job production, also known as custom/bespoke or semi-custom/bespoke manufacturing processes.
These processes may include batch jobs or client orders ranging from small to medium in size. Job shops are also known as batch shops. Work shops often move on to various projects after one job is done before beginning another.
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on january 1, year 1, beatie company borrowed $390,000 cash from central bank by issuing a five-year, 5 percent note. the principal and interest are to be paid by making annual payments in the amount of $90,080. payments are to be made december 31 of each year, beginning december 31, year 1.
The amortization schedule of the company is shown and $0 is the final balance after five years.
What is the amortization schedule?Based on the amortization process, a periodic payment amount owed on a loan (usually a mortgage) is calculated using an amortization calculator.
The total amount of each payment under the amortization repayment plan is the same, but each installment contains different amounts of interest and principal.
An amortization schedule calculator is frequently used to adjust the loan amount until the monthly payments comfortably fit into a budget.
It may also be used to change the interest rate to see what kind of property or car a person can buy depending on the rate.
So, the amortization schedule of the company is attached below.
Therefore, the amortization schedule of the company is shown and $0 is the final balance after five years.
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Correct question:
On January 1, Year 1, Beatie Co. borrowed $200,000 cash from Central Bank by issuing a five-year, 6 percent note. The principal and interest are to be paid by making annual payments in the amount of $47,479. Payments are to be made on December 31 of each year, beginning December 31, Year 1.
Required:
1. Prepare an amortization schedule for the interest and principal payments for the five-year period. (Round your answers to the nearest dollar amount.)
as the recipient of their customer's efforts, the supply firm manager has the opportunity to improve the relationship with the customer. improved relationships can result in increased market share, growth opportunities and other benefits. group of answer choices mod sdp sop pos pods flag question: question 44
As the recipient of their customer's SD efforts, the supply firm manager has the opportunity to improve the relationship with the customer.
The supply curve indicates us the quantity that a firm will produce at extraordinary fees. Discern 7.21 "The deliver Curve of an individual firm" exhibits something great: the individual supply curve. It's far the same as a company's marginal fee curve. of the firm is the marginal value curve.
The deliver curve is a image illustration of the correlation between the fee of an excellent or provider and the quantity supplied for a given duration. In a typical illustration, the rate will appear on the left vertical axis, whilst the quantity provided will appear at the horizontal axis.
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Why can the fed control the real interest rate in the short run but not in the long run?.
Prices are sticky in the near term and it takes inflation into account. Therefore, the real interest rate fluctuates in the same way as the nominal interest rate whenever the Fed's monetary policy is altered.
Does the Fed have any immediate influence over the actual interest rate?Only if the Fed uses different policy measures from what the public perceives it is doing can real interest rates be sensibly expected to rise by the Fed. In other words, even if the public is aware of the Fed's stance on a certain day, real rates won't change that day.
Do long-term interest rates have any impact from the Fed?The management of long-term interest rates is not done by central banks. Market variables (supply and demand) that also have an impact on long-term interest rates determine the values of long-term bonds.
How does the real interest rate on short-term loans fluctuate?The interest rate actually drops if we increase the money supply in the near term while the price level and predicted inflation remain stable. Therefore, a boost in the money supply could result in a short-term decrease in interest rates.
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collision insurance covers your vehicle against risks such as falling objects, hail, and other non-accident situations.
The vehicle is made drivable by comprehensive physical damage coverage, which guards against these dangers.
What is physical damage?Physical damage is defined as actual physical harm to a property that, whether due to an accident or otherwise, materially reduces its usability, marketability, or value. This includes, but is not limited to, damage brought on by fire, the destruction of tangible property, construction flaws, land subsidence, earth movement, or slippage, flood, earthquake, war, civil insurrection, or riot, as well as damage resulting from these events. It is not considered physical damage if there is asbestos, lead paint, or radon gas in the home on the property. Physical damage refers to actual, unintentional physical loss or damage to the aircraft, also referred to as loss. It excludes, however, loss of use and any potential residual value depreciation after repairs have been made.
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during the baroque period in england _____________ was considered brittan’s greatest architect.
During the baroque period in England Gian Lorenzo Bernini was considered Britain’s greatest architect.
What is architecture?Architecture is referred to as an innovative technique or artwork based on building or physical structures that aims at creating cultural values for upcoming generations to understand the importance of history.
One of the most important Baroque architects was Gian Lorenzo Bernini. His name would become associated with the development of dramatic settings that sought to generate strong emotions as the Rome-based aesthetic spread throughout Europe.
The excellent structural compositions of Bernini are also well recognized. St. Peter's gallery was the location of his most imposing design.
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Which of the following statements about botnets is not true?
A. Botnets are often used to perpetrate DDoS attacks. B. Eighty percent of the world's malware is delivered by botnets. C. Botnets are often used for click fraud. D. It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet. E. Ninety percent of the world's spam is delivered by botnets.
The statement that is not true about the botnet is that It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet. Option D is correct.
What is Botnet?A botnet (short for “robot network”) is a network of infected computers controlled by a single attacking party known as the “bot-herder.” A bot is any individual machine under the control of the bot-herder.
Botnets are frequently used to launch DDoS attacks, and botnets deliver 80% of the world's malware, which is frequently used for click fraud. It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet, which is a false statement about botnets.
Therefore, option D is correct.
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an assigned risk pool includes people who are able to obtain auto insurance due to a great driving record.
An assigned risk pool includes people who are able to obtain auto insurance due to a great driving record is False.
The three types of auto insurance commonly offered are third-party collision damage waiver and comprehensive. Drivers can continue to purchase other types of car insurance, including If something bad happens to you the insurance company will pay you, or someone you choose.
Insurance protects against possible financial losses. You can't predict the future so you never know when something bad will happen to you or your property. Insurance can prepare for the worst. Provides protection against many risks. B. Unexpected property damage illness or injury.
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"Unitech industries offers comparatively low compensation but many unique benefits to its employees. Which approach is the best way to communicate this information?A. Conduct compensation and benefits training sessions with employeesB. Schedule an annual compensation and benefits fair for employeesC. Send monthly memos highlighting the compensation and benefits plansD. Create a total rewards dashboard summarizing the value of all benefits offered to employeesE. Publish reports describing competitor compensation and benefits plans"
The best way to communicate the unique benefits that Unitech industries offers to its employees is by creating a total rewards dashboard summarizing the value of all benefits offered to employees. Thus, the correct answer is option D.
What are benefits to employees?Employee benefits are any forms of perks or compensation that are provided to employees in addition to their base salaries and wages. Any form of indirect pay offered to an employee, either mandatory or voluntary, can be classified as an employee benefit.
Some employee benefits are required by law. There are standard benefit regulations all employers must follow. A dashboard must be created to summarize all the benefits that a company is offering to its employee.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D.
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which one of the following is not a tool that company managers can use to promote operating excellence in performing value chain activities?
Six Sigma quality programs
Resource optimization programs
Adoption of best practices
Benchmarking
Total quality management programs
Resource optimization programs is not a tool that company managers can use to promote operating excellence in performing value chain activities.
Which four elements make to operational excellence?"There are four primary categories that make up operational excellence. The International Society of Six Sigma Professionals' Chairman and CEO Peter Peterka lists these as strategy deployment, performance management, high performance work teams, and process excellence.
is a useful tool for assisting business managers in determining the optimal approach to take when carrying out a specific activity?Benchmarking is the process of looking externally to identify the best practice for carrying out a task, followed by the development of data to assess how well a company's performance of that task compares to the best-practice standard.
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