Answer:
The summary of something like the particular question is demonstrated in the following portion on either the clarity.
Explanation:
Inspiration depends on either the diaphragm contracting, as well as the influence including its external intercostal has been limited throughout normal breathing. Maximum inhalation or even just expiration time depth, as well as rate, are fairly directly proportional to one another because.We may link the whole observation to something like the sequence of expiratory versus inspiratory movement as it takes much longer than either the inspiratory speed throughout our sample since expiration becomes passive yet requires having to return to something like the steady levels.Which location is least likely to experience a volcanic eruption? Α. an island hot spot, such as the island of Hawaii B. Hamilton County on the plains of central Texas с. a convergent boundary, as in the Ring of Fire D a volcanic island arc, such as the Aleutian Arc in Alaska
Answer:
i think that the answer is B. Hamilton County on the plains of central Texas i took the test
Explanation:
Hamilton County on the plains of central Texas is least likely to experience a volcanic eruption. Therefore, option (B) is correct.
What are volcanoes?Molten rock and gases stored under the surface erupt through a volcano, generating a hill or mountain.
Active, inactive, or extinct volcanoes. Active volcanoes are likely to erupt again. Dormant volcanoes may erupt again. Extinct volcanoes won't erupt.Magma collects inside active volcanoes. The magma chamber's pressure forces it through rock channels and onto the planet's surface.
Volcanic eruptions can be violent or slow-moving. Volcanoes erupt through vents on the sides or a primary entrance at the top. The volcano's morphology depends on eruption rate and magma chemistry. Land and sea volcanoes exist. As lava cools and hardens, underwater volcanoes build mountains and ranges. When volcanoes rise above the ocean, they create islands.
Learn more about volcano, here:
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Could an object, tool, or structure be made without the use of a natural resource? Explain your answer.
g UV radiation causes covalent dimerization of two subsequent ______ bases in DNA. This dimer is recognized and repaired by ______.
Answer: The options are not given.
Here are the options.
a. C and C ;;;; DNA photolyase
b. T and T ;;;;; DNA photolyase
c. C and C ;;;; DNA photoisomerase
d. T and T ;;;;; DNA photoisomerase
e. None of the above
Explanation:
UV light damages the DNA of cells that are exposed by making bonds to be formed between adjacent pyrimidine bases, usually thymines, in the DNA chains. The thymine dimers inhibit or hinder the DNA correct replication during reproduction of the cell.
UV radiation causes covalent dimerization of two subsequent T and T because Thymine bases of DNA directly absorbs a UVB photon . UVB light causes thymine base pairs close to each other in genetic sequences to bond together into pyrimidine dimers, thereby causing a disruption in the strand, which reproductive enzymes cannot copy.
UV-induced thymine dimers can be repaired by photoreactivation, in a process where energy from visible light is used to split the bonds forming the cyclobutane ring through the action of DNA photolyase, an enzyme that repaired damaged cause by uv radiation to dna.
Which sentence about protist is accurate
Answer:
there are no sentences
Explanation:
A decrease in muscular activity or damage to neurons that attach to skeletal muscle can lead to a reduction in the size of muscle called
Answer:
The correct answer is atrophy
Use the following scenario to answer the next following question(s):
You and your friends go to the beach for vacation. You all walk down to the beach to go swimming. When you get there, you see the water is murky and green, and there are algae blooms floating on top.
Reference: Ref 6-3
If it is excess nutrients which are feeding the algae blooms and lowering the oxygen content in the water, that process is called:
A. nutrient cycling.
B. nitrification.
C. eutrophication.
D. hypoxia.
Answer:
eutrophication
Explanation:
Eutrophication refers to a situation in which the aquatic environment becomes excessively enriched with nutrients. This leads to algal blooms in aquatic habitats such as lakes. These nutrients come from Fertilisers used in farming, which find their way into water bodies through run-off thereby increasing nutrient levels.
Excess nutrients causes phytoplankton to grow and reproduce at an alarming rate resulting in algal blooms. This bloom disrupts the balance in the ecosystem leading to many problems.
The algae may end up using all the oxygen in the water, causing oxygen shortage for aquatic life. Some of the algae may die, their decay may lead to further oxygen depletion. As oxygen is depleted, aquatic organisms may also begin to die.
What processes can change igneous rock into sedimentary rock?
Answer: Erosion
Explanation:The process of erosion and depositing rock grains (also known as sedimentation) can change igneous rock into sedimentary rock.
identify the components ( parts) of DNA
Answer:
Phosphorus group, a sugar(like deoxyribose or ribose), and a nitrogenous base
You continue this approach by designing two separate experiments. In the first experiment, you use glucose where "Coccupies position 1. In the second experiments, 14C occupies position 2 and 6 in the glucose molecules. For each experiment, you use 0.2 moles of radiolabeled glucose and you assume that all the pyruvate formed is converted to acetyl-CoA. What following statements are correct? (select 3)
a) When glucose is labeled on carbon #1, 0.2 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled
b) When glucose is labeled on carbon #1, 0.1 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled
c) When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and #6, 0.2 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled
d) When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and 6, 0.1 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled
e) When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and 6, the carbonyl groups of half of the acetyl-CoA molecules are radiolabeled
f) When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and 6, the methyl groups of half of the acetyl-CoA molecules are radiolabeled
Answer:
b) When glucose is labeled on carbon #1, 0.1 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled
c) When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and #6, 0.2 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled
e) When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and 6, the carbonyl groups of half of the acetyl-CoA molecules are radiolabeled
f) When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and 6, the methyl groups of half of the acetyl-CoA molecules are radiolabeled
Explanation:
When glucose undergoes glycolysis, it is converted into two molecules of pyruvate with carbon 1 to 3 forming the first molecule of pyruvate and carbon 4 to 6 the second molecule of pyruvate. The C-1 and C-6 of the glucose molecule becomes the methyl groups of each of the two molecules of pyruvate. The C-2 and C-5 of the glucose molecule forms the carbonyl carbon of each of the two pyruvate molecules. Each of the two pyruvate molecules undergoes further oxidation to yield acetyl-CoA with the carbonyl and methyl groups of pyruvate retained in the acetyl-CoA molecules.
Thus when 0.2 moles of glucose are labelled at C-1 and then C-2 and C-6 in each of the two experiments the following results are obtained:
When glucose is labeled on carbon-1, 0.1 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled since half of the two pyruvate molecules are obtained from C-1
When glucose is labeled on carbon-2 and carbon-6, 0.2 mole of acetyl-CoA is radiolabeled since the C-2 and C-6 of the glucose molecules forms a part of one of each of the two pyruvate molecules.
When glucose is labeled on carbons #2 and 6, the carbonyl groups of half of the acetyl-CoA molecules are radiolabeled since one of the two carbonyl groups of the two pyruvate molecules is formed from C-2 of glucose.
When glucose is labeled on carbon-2 and carbon-6, the methyl groups of half of the acetyl-CoA molecules are radiolabeled since one of the two methyl groups of the two pyruvate molecules is formed from C-6 of glucose.
A mutation that hides the effect of another mutation at a site that is distinct from the site of the original mutation, but with in the same gene. This mutation is best described as a
Answer:
The correct answer is intragenic suppressor mutation.
Explanation:
A suppressor mutation partially or completely converses the effects of a different mutation. A suppressor mutation is of two kinds, that is, an intragenic suppressor and an intergenic suppressor. An intragenic suppressor converses the influence of a mutation at a distinct site in a similar gene.
On the other hand, an intergenic suppressor converses the influence of a mutation at a distinct locus of the gene. It is the intragenic suppressor mutation, which takes place in a similar gene where the occurrence of the first mutation had taken place. Therefore, the mutation, which hides the influence of another mutation at a location, which is different from the location of the original mutation, but taking place in a similar gene can be illustrated as the intragenic suppressor mutation.
Activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system:______
a. enhances digestion.
b. causes conversion of glycogen to glucose.
c. triggers release of epinephrine.
d. increases heart rate.
Answer:
A - enhances digestion
use the numbers 12345 to place the protien creations steps below in the correct order
Use the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 to place the protein creation steps below in the correct order. Ribosome attaches to the mRNA. Information is transcribed in DNA to mRNA. tRNA anticodon carries an amino acid that compliments the mRNA codon. mRNA leaves the nucleus. The chain of amino acids forms a protein.
if it is helpfull please mark as brainlist
Answer:
please list numbers 12345 and then i will
Explanation:
(06.03 LC) Which of the following is an example of how HIV can be transmitted from one person to another? Contact between infected blood and a mucus membrane Contact between infected saliva and an open wound Contact between infected blood and skin Contact between infected saliva and lining of mouth
Answer:
i believe the answer is contact between a infected blood and a mucus membrane
Explanation:
Why do roosters hibernate?
Answer:
The answer is
Explanation:
Roosters hibernate to escape the harsh seasonal variations as it cannot fly to different lands and is a flightless bird.
Hope this helps....
Have a nice day!!!!
The end result of a chemical reaction is always:
A. the formation of new kinds of elements.
B. the production of water molecules.
c. a substance that was not ope of the reactants.
ak
s
D. a molecule that does not have an electric charge.
Answer:
The formation of new kinds of elements.
When a chemical reaction is finished, a new type of element is made. because the chemicals couldn't react to eachother without making something new.
For this task, you will imagine that you are a reporter for a scientific magazine. Your task is to explain the process of protein synthesis to someone who does NOT have a science background. Therefore, the explanation needs to be in simple enough terms for anyone to understand. You will organize your article in the following way: Structure and Function of DNA and RNA Transcription and RNA processing Translation Protein modification (general) You must also include the following terms: Double helix Helicase Codon Polymerase 5’ cap Poly (A) tail Introns Exons Splicesomes rRNA, tRNA, Mrna Ribosomes Anticodons E site, P site, A site Initiation Elongation Termination
Answer:
Please find the explanation below
Explanation:
Our nucleus is made up of a genetic material called deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which is a double-helical structure that stores the genetic information needed for the optimal functioning of any organism. DNA, alongside RNA are nucleic acids that are composed of NUCLEOTIDES subunits. The nucleotide consists of a pentose sugar (deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA), nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.
However, the genetic information stored in the DNA molecule needs to be expressed in order to form useful products (proteins). This genetic expression is done in two stages viz: transcription and translation. Transcription, which is catalyzed by an enzyme called RNA polymerase is the process whereby the information stored in the DNA is used to synthesize a mRNA molecule. However, this mRNA molecule is considered pre-mature until it is processed. RNA processing occurs in three stages viz: 5' capping, polyadenylation, and splicing.
5' capping involves adding a 5' cap to the marks molecule. Polyadenylation involves adding a poly(A) tail to the mRNA molecule while splicing is the removal of introns (non coding regions) with the aid of Spliceosomes and joining of the exons (coding region). After processing, the mRNA becomes matured and ready to be translated.
Translation is the process whereby the mRNA transcript is used to synthesize a protein molecule. It occurs in the ribosomes (organelles for protein synthesis, a complex of rRNA and proteins) where the mRNA is read in a group of three nucleotides called CODON. The reading is done by the Anticodon of a transfer RNA (tRNA), which is complementary to the codon.
Translation occurs in three stages: initiation, elongation and termination. The mRNA attaches to the P site of the ribosomes (initiation) where it is attached to by a tRNA's anticodon complementary to it. The anticodon carries the amino acid corresponding the codon and shifts to the A-site. The addition of amino acid to the polypeptide chain continues (elongation) until a stop codon is encountered, which signals the end of the translation process i.e. termination. This causes the polypeptide (protein) to be released from the E-site.
The synthesized protein undergoes packaging and modification in the Golgi apparatus.
Keeping in mind that a crayfish is saltier than the fresh water it occupies, and remembering the idea of osmosis, note that the antennal gland deals directly with the consequences of this issue. What do you suppose the function of the antennal gland is
When the body cells are hypotonic to the blood plasma, water will move from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Why are G proteins known as guanine nucleotide-binding protein?
Answer:
G proteins, also known as guanine nucleotide-binding proteins, are a family of proteins that act as molecular switches inside cells, and are involved in transmitting signals from a variety of stimuli outside a cell to its interior. ... G proteins belong to the larger group of enzymes called GTPases.
What are the biological methods of controlling mosquito population?
Explanation:
Biological control or "biocontrol" is the use of natural enemies to manage mosquito populations. ... Effective biocontrol agents include predatory fish that feed on mosquito larvae
All the living organisms in an area and the non-living components of the environment with which they interact is termed a(n):
Answer:
Ecosystem
Explanation:
An ecosystem can be described simply as the collection of all living and non-living components in a particular area. The living components of the environment are known as biotic factors. Biotic factors include plants, animals, and micro-organisms.
Circle
1
2
Circle the most reactive metal in each set.
1) Magnesium / Potassium
2) Aluminum / Gold
3) Cobalt / Cesium / Calcium
4) Iron / Titanium / Potassium
5) Francium / Lithium / Beryllium
لی
Answer:
Explanation:
1) potassium
2)Aluminium
3) Cesium
4) potassium
5) Beryllium
A purebred tall pea plant is cross-pollinated with a tall, heterozygous pea plant. Use a Punnett square to determine the probability the offspring inherita
recessive short allele. (I point)
75%
25%
0%
50%
Answer:
The correct answer is - 25%.
Explanation:
A cross pollination between purebred tall pea plant and a heterozygous pea plant occurred as per the given condition. TT is the allele representation of the purebred plant and heterozygous plant is represented by Tt, so the gametes will be formed would be - T & T and T & t allele.
The Punnett square of this cross is attached with the answer,
So the probability of short allele would be:
= (2/8) *100 , (where 2 is the number of short allele in offspring where 8 is total number of alleles)
= (1/4) *100
= 25%
What does ingestion and degradation of extracellular antigens and their subsequent presentation by MHC class II molecules lead to
Answer:
"Activation of CD4+ helper T cells" is the correct choice.
Explanation:
The major complicated of histocompatibility II seems to be the chemical compound for something like the T cells that presets antibodies. Antigens collected from those in the pathogens become transformed as well as inserted into a large histocompatibility system that's also distributed on either the cellular cell surface membrane representing antigen as well as the trigger is perceived by complicated systems of T cells as well as MHC II but rather contained throughout CD4 + support T cells.For the cells of the body to function properly, blood pH must be maintained between 7.35 and 7.45, a very narrow range. Buffer systems, the respiratory system, and the kidneys work together to help maintain acid-base balance.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddd
Explanation:
The ____ ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the ______ bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Answer:
The purine ring is built onto ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP for its de-novo nucleotide biosynthesis, while the ring structure of the pyrimidine bases are synthesized separately and then coupled to ribose-5-phosphate via the C-N glycosidic bond.
Explanation:
In the de novo synthesis of nucleotides, their metabolic precursors such as aminoacids, ribose-5-phosphate, CO₂ and NH₃ are used as starting materials.
In purine nucleotide synthesis, the ring structure is built up on ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP by addition of one or a few atoms one at a time starting with the amino group donated by glutamine until the first intermediate inosinate is synthesized.
In pyrimidine ring synthesis, orotate is first synthesized from carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate, and then is attached to ribose-5-phosphate of PRPP, before it is then converted to the common pyrimidine nucleotides starting from uridylate.
Some people use the terms "cell cycle" and "mitosis" as if they were the same thing. Which of these best describes why they are not the same?
a. the cell cycle is just a stage of mitosis
b. mitosis and the cell cycle are different types of cell division that occur in different of cells in a multicellular organism
c. mitosis is a sequence of events within the cell cycle that separates the genetic material
d. mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in eukaryots and the cell cycle takes place in prokaryots
Answer: C. Cells in meiosis have unique genetic information
Explanation: Meiosis is the cell division that forms four daughter cells from one parent cell. It includes two successive divisions called as meiosis I and meiosis II. Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis I imparts new gene combinations to the daughter cells of meiosis. Hence, daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis have some new gene combinations, that is, unique genetic information.
basic question for fun . HOW TO FIGHT WITH TYPES OF VIRUS IN THE WORLD AND HOW GET RID FROM IT EXAMPLES: CORONA VIRUS, INFLUENZA, TYPHOID, HEPHATITISAND CHLOREA?
Answer:
Boost immunity power( follow these):
1. Have enougn sleep.
2. Be happy...overcome stress.
3.Do exercises frequently.
4. Have regular check ups ;these may help to diagnosis on early stage.
5. Consume the foods which boosts immunity.
6. Be mentally strong.
Explanation:
There isn't proved ideas ...however, we can fight by making our immune system strong...
HIT LIKE
Are bacteria eukaryotes
Answer:
yes they very much are!!!!!!!!!
Knowledge of the driver mutations underlying cancer has led to targeted therapeutics, such as the protein kinase inhibitor imatinib (trade name Gleevec) in cases of chronic myeloid leukemia. Cancer cells often become resistant to a given drug, so researchers continue searching for new drugs that target proteins that contribute to the cancerous phenotype. One recent promising approach uses drugs that lead to ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of the target protein. Which of the following mutated proteins are good candidates for this approach?
A) oncogenes
B) proteins with loss-of-function mutations
C) proteins with gain-of-function mutations
D) tumor suppressor genes
Answer:
C) proteins with gain-of-function mutations
Explanation:
Gain-of-function mutations: In biology, the term "gain-of-function mutation" is described as one of the different types of mutation in which the altered or changed "gene product" consists of an entirely new pattern or molecular function associated with gene expression. However, the "gene-of-function mutations" are being always considered as "Semidominant or Dominant".
In the question above, the correct answer is option C.
