In the following experiments, identify the independent and dependent variable.

Answer:

  f = 276.6 Hz

Explanation:

This musical instrument can be approximated to a tube system where each tube has one end open and the other closed.

In the closed part there is a node and in the open part a belly or antinode. Therefore the wavelength is

          L = λ/ 4

speed is related to wavelength and frequency

          v = λ f

          λ = v / f

we substitute

          L = v / 4f

          f = v / 4L

the speed of sound at 20ºC is

          v = 343 m / s

let's calculate

          f = [tex]\frac{343 }{4 \ 0.31}[/tex]

          f = 276.6 Hz

Answer:

[tex]T=8.1N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Mass m=0.40

Radius r=1.8m

Angle Beneath the Horizontal \theta =40 \textdegree

Speed v=5.0m/s

The Tension Angle

 [tex]\alpha=90-\theta\\\\\alpha=90-40[/tex]

 [tex]\alpha=50 \textdegree[/tex]

Generally the equation for Tension is is mathematically given by

 [tex]T=\frac{mv^2}{r}+mgcos \alpha[/tex]

 [tex]T=\frac{0.40*5^2}{1.8}+0.40*5cos50[/tex]

 [tex]T=8.1N[/tex]

Answer:

The velocity becomes [tex]v\sqrt 2[/tex].

Explanation:

The force acting on the bobber is centripetal  force.

The centripetal force is given by

[tex]F =\frac{mv^2}{r}[/tex]

when mass remains same, radius is doubled and the force is same, so the velocity is v'.

[tex]F =\frac{mv^2}{r}=\frac{mv'^2}{2r}\\\\v'=v\sqrt 2[/tex]

Answer:

the instantaneous velocity is 51 m/s

Explanation:

Given;

acceleration, a = 2 + 5t²

Acceleration is the change in velocity with time.

[tex]a = \frac{dv}{dt} \\\\a = 2 + 5t^2\\\\The \ acceleration \ (a) \ is \ given \ so \ we \ have \ to \ find \ the \ velocity \ (v)\\\\To \ find \ the \ velocity, \ integrate\ both \ sides \ of \ the \ equation\\\\2 + 5t^2 = \frac{dv}{dt} \\\\\int\limits^3_0 {(2 + 5t^2)} \, dt = dv\\\\v = [2t + \frac{5t^3}{3} ]^3_0\\\\v = 2(3) + \frac{5(3)^3}{3} \\\\v = 6 + 5(3)^2\\\\v = 6 + 45\\\\v = 51 \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the instantaneous velocity is 51 m/s

Answer:

0.83 J of work

Explanation:

2 J of work is required to stretch a spring from 34cm to 46cm

So that is 12cm stretched with 2 J of work

We can make that 6cm for 1 J of work

So, we need the find the work for stretching 36cm to 41cm

Which is 5cm

So, What is the work required to stretch 5cm?

1 J of work for 6cm

x work for 5cm

So, by proportion method

1 : 6 :: x : 5

6 * x = 1 * 5

6x = 5

x = 5/6

= 0.83

So to stretch 36cm to 41cm we need 0.83 J of work

Answer:

the magnetic field must double

Explanation:

For this exercise we use Ampere's law

         ∫ B . ds = μ₀ I

Where the bold indicate vectors

With this expression we can see that if we double the current, keeping the same trajectory, the magnetic field must double

Answer:

i can help you i know this answer

Answer: the side two are 50 then the other two are 140  i thank

Explanation:

Answer:

Sorry I dont know this answer sorry

Answer:

1. True

2. True

3. False

4. True

5. True

Answer:

the correct answer is a

Explanation:

The torque is

        τ = F x r

where the bold letters indicate vectors, in this case the vector of the center of mass is perpendicular to the weight of the body

          τ = mg r

in body weight it is applied at the point of the center of mass, therefore as the distance of the force from the axis of rotation (center of amas) is zero, the die is zero

the correct answer is a

Answer:

enchantment table language

Explanation:

Answer:

Reliability can be estimated by comparing different versions of the same measurement. Validity is harder to assess, but it can be estimated by comparing the results to other relevant data or theory.

Answer:

Yeah, it can be diffracted. Though it depends on a diffracting medium.

It must have some magnetic fields .

Forexample; X-ray diffraction where electrons are diffracted to the target filament.

Answer:

The change in the internal energy of the first system is 300 J

The second system will do zero work in order to have the same internal energy.

Explanation:

Given;

heat added to the first system, Q₁ = 500 J

heat added to the second system, Q₂ = 300 J

work done by the first system, W₁ = 200 J

The change in the internal energy of the system is given by the first law of thermodynamics;

ΔU = Q - W

where;

ΔU is the change in internal energy of the system

The change in the internal energy of the first system is calculated as;

ΔU₁ = Q₁ - W₁

ΔU₁ = 500 J - 200 J

ΔU₁ = = 300 J

The work done by the second system to have the same internal energy with the first.

ΔU₁ = Q₂ - W₂

W₂ = Q₂ - ΔU₁

W₂ = 300 J - 300 J

W₂ = 0

The second system will do zero work in order to have the same internal energy.

Sound is a type of energy made by vibrations. These vibrations create sound waves which move through mediums such as air, water and wood. When an object vibrates, it causes movement in the particles of the medium. This movement is called sound waves, and it keeps going until the particles run out of energy.

Sound is a type of energy made by vibrations. These vibrations create sound waves which move through mediums such as air, water and wood. When an object vibrates, it causes movement in the particles of the medium. This movement is called sound waves, and it keeps going until the particles run out of energy.

Answer:

[tex]M=7.05*10^{-4}[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Coil one turns N_1=1550 Turns/m

Radius [tex]r=0.0240m[/tex]

Turns 2 [tex]N_2=200N[/tex]

Generally the equation for area is mathematically given by

[tex]A=\pi*r^2[/tex]

[tex]A=\pi*0.024^2[/tex]

[tex]A=\1.81*10^{-3} m^2[/tex]

Therefore

The mutual inductance of this system is

[tex]M=\mu*N_1*N_2*A[/tex]

[tex]M=(4 \pi*10^{-7})*1550*200*1.81*10^{-3}[/tex]

[tex]M=7.05*10^{-4}[/tex]

Answer:

Time to move out of the way = 1.74 s

Explanation:

Time to move out of the way is one fourth of period = 6.95/4 = 1.74 seconds.

Time to move out of the way = 1.74 s

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the mass of objects be m₁ and m₂ .

Total kinetic energy = 1/2 m₁ v² + 1/2 m₂ v²= 1/2 ( m₁ + m₂ ) v²

Total kinetic energy after collision= 1/2 ( m₁ + m₂ ) v² / 4  =  1/2 ( m₁ + m₂ ) v² x .25

final KE / initial KE = 1/2 ( m₁ + m₂ ) v² x .25 / 1/2 ( m₁ + m₂ ) v²

= 0.25

b )

Applying law of conservation of momentum to the system . Let m₁ > m₂

m₁ v -  m₂ v = ( m₁ + m₂ ) v / 2

m₁ v -  m₂ v = ( m₁ + m₂ ) v / 2

m₁  -  m₂  = ( m₁ + m₂ )  / 2

2m₁ - 2 m₂ = m₁ + m₂

m₁ = 3m₂

m₁ / m₂ = 3 / 1

Answer:

(a) The ratio is 1 : 4.

(b) The ratio is 1 : 3.

Explanation:

Let the mass of each object is m and m'.

They initially move with velocity v opposite to each other.

Use conservation of momentum

m v - m' v = (m + m') v/2

2 (m - m')  = (m + m')

2 m - 2 m' = m + m'

m = 3 m' .... (1)

(a) Let the initial kinetic energy is K and the final kinetic energy is K'.

[tex]K = 0.5 mv^2 + 0.5 m' v^2 \\\\K = 0.5 (m + m') v^2..... (1)[/tex]

[tex]K' = 0.5 (m + m') \frac{v^2}{4}.... (2)[/tex]

The ratio is

K' : K = 1 : 4

(b) m = 3 m'

So, m : m' = 3 : 1

Answer:

In order to lift off the ground, the air in the balloon must be heated to 710.26 K

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

P = 1.01 × 10⁵ Pa

V = 480 m³

ρ = 1.29 kg/m³

M = 381 kg

we know that; R = 8.31 J/mol.K and the molecular mass of air μ = 29 × 10⁻³ kg/mol

let F represent the force acting upward.

Now in a condition where the hot air balloon is just about to take off;

F - Mg - m[tex]_g[/tex]g = 0

where M is the mass of the balloon and its occupants, m[tex]_g[/tex] is the mass of the hot gas inside the balloon.

the force acting upward F = Vρg

so

Vρg - Mg - m[tex]_g[/tex]g = 0

solve for m[tex]_g[/tex]

m[tex]_g[/tex] = ( Vρg - Mg ) / g

m[tex]_g[/tex] =  Vρg/g - Mg/g

m[tex]_g[/tex] =  ρV - M ------- let this be equation 1

Now, from the ideal gas law, PV = nRT

we know that number of moles n = m[tex]_g[/tex] / μ

where μ is the molecular mass of air

so

PV = (m[tex]_g[/tex]/μ)RT

solve for T

μPV = m[tex]_g[/tex]RT

T = μPV / m[tex]_g[/tex]R -------- let this be equation 2

from equation 1 and 2

T = μPV / (ρV - M)R

so we substitute in our values;

P = 1.01 × 10⁵ Pa

V = 480 m³

ρ = 1.29 kg/m³

M = 381 kg

we know that; R = 8.31 J/mol.K and the molecular mass of air μ = 29 × 10⁻³ kg/mol

T = [ (29 × 10⁻³) × (1.01 × 10⁵) × 480 ] / [ (( 1.29 × 480 ) - 381)8.31 ]

T =  1405920 / 1979.442

T =  710.26 K

Therefore, In order to lift off the ground, the air in the balloon must be heated to 710.26 K

The temperature required for the air to be heated is 710.26 K.

Given data:

The mass of a hot air-balloon is, m = 381 kg.

The pressure of air outside the balloon is, [tex]P = 1.01 \times 10^{5} \;\rm Pa[/tex].

The density of air is, [tex]\rho = 1.29 \;\rm kg/m^{3}[/tex].

The volume of heated balloon is, [tex]V = 480 \;\rm m^{3}[/tex].

The condition where the hot air balloon is just about to take off is as follows:

[tex]F-mg - m'g =0[/tex]

Here,

m' is the mass of hot gas inside the balloon and g is the gravitational acceleration and F is the force acting on the balloon in upward direction. And its value is,

[tex]F = V \times \rho \times g[/tex]

Solving as,

[tex](V \times \rho \times g)-mg - m'g =0\\\\ m'=(V \rho )-m[/tex]

Now, apply the ideal gas law as,

PV = nRT

here, R is the universal gas constant and n is the number of moles and its value is,

[tex]n=\dfrac{m'}{M}[/tex]

M is the molecular mass of gas. Solving as,

[tex]PV = \dfrac{m'}{M} \times R \times T\\\\\\T=\dfrac{P \times V\times M}{m'R}\\\\\\T=\dfrac{P \times V\times M}{(V \rho - m)R}[/tex]

Since, the standard value for the molecular mass of air is, [tex]M = 29 \times 10^{-3} \;\rm kg/mol[/tex]. Then solve for the temperature as,

[tex]T=\dfrac{(1.01 \times 10^{5}) \times 480\times 381}{(480 \times (1.29) - 381)8.31}\\\\\\T = 710.26 \;\rm K[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the temperature required for the air to be heated is 710.26 K.

Learn more about the ideal gas equation here:

https://brainly.com/question/18518493

Answer:

C is the right answer

Explanation:

fitness logs is a great way to track your progress. You can easily look back and see how you have progressed over time. In addition, it can help you plan and prepare for future workouts, as well as identify patterns of what seems to work well for you and when you have the most success

hope it was useful for you

Answer:

b. 0.20 m/s.

Explanation:

Given;

initial mass, m = 0.2 kg

maximum speed,  v = 0.3 m/s

The total energy of the spring at the given maximum speed is calculated as;

K.E = ¹/₂mv²

K.E = 0.5 x 0.2 x 0.3²

K.E = 0.009 J

If the mass is changed to 0.4 kg

¹/₂mv² = K.E

mv² = 2K.E

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m} } \\\\v = \sqrt{\frac{2\times 0.009}{0.4} } \\\\v = 0.21 \ m/s\\\\v \approx 0.20 \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the maximum speed is 0.20 m/s

Answer:

Len's law

Explanation:

We can explain this exercise using Len's law

when the magnetic flux decreases, a matic flux appears that opposes the decrease, thus maintaining the value of the initial luxury.

Answer:

In heterogeneous mixture do the physically distinct component parts each have distinct properties.

Answer:

Move towards the wall.

Explanation:

When the balloon is kept near to the wall not touching the wall, there is a force of electrostatic attraction so that the balloon moves towards the wall and stick to it.

As there is some charge on the balloon and the wall is uncharged so the force is there due to which the balloon moves towards the wall.

Answer:

[tex]l=12916.5m[/tex]

Explanation:

Distance [tex]d=3600km[/tex]

Since

Density of steel [tex]\rho=7900kg/m^3[/tex]

Stress of steel [tex]\mu= 1*10^9[/tex]

Generally the equation for Stress on Cable is mathematically given by

[tex]S=\frac{F}{A}[/tex]

[tex]S=\frac{\rho Alg}{A}[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]l=\frac{s}{\rhog}[/tex]

[tex]l=\frac{ 1*10^9}{7900kg/m^3*9.8}[/tex]

[tex]l=12916.5m[/tex]

Answer:

So the correct answer is letter e)

Explanation:

The electric field of an infinite yz-plane with a uniform surface charge density  (σ) is given by:

[tex]E=\frac{\sigma }{2\epsilon_{0}}[/tex]

Where ε₀ is the electric permitivity.

As we see, this electric field does not depend on distance, so the correct answer is letter e)

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

[tex]t=0.50cm[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Wavelength [tex]\lamda=3c[/tex]m

Refraction Index [tex]n=1.50[/tex]

Generally the equation for Destructive interference for Normal incidence is mathematically given by

[tex]2nt=m(\frac{1}{2})\lambda[/tex]

Since  Minimum Thickness occurs at

At [tex]m=0[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]t=\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]

[tex]t=\frac{3}{4(1.50)}[/tex]

[tex]t=0.50cm[/tex]

Answer:

false?

Explanation:

The higher the modulus, the more stress is needed to create the same amount of strain; an idealized rigid body would have an infinite Young's modulus.

Answer:

I think the answer is False.