Institutional review boards determine whether research studies involving human subjects will achieve what?

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Answer 1

Institutional review boards (IRBs) determine whether research studies involving human subjects will achieve ethical standards and protect the rights and well-being of the participants. The primary goal of IRBs is to ensure that the benefits of the research outweigh any potential risks or harm to the participants.

To achieve this, IRBs assess various aspects of the research study, including its design, methods, and procedures. They review the informed consent process to ensure that participants are adequately informed about the purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits of the study.

IRBs also examine the qualifications and expertise of the researchers involved and ensure that they have obtained the necessary approvals and permissions.

Additionally, IRBs evaluate the privacy and confidentiality measures in place to protect the participants' personal information. They assess whether appropriate safeguards are in place to minimize any potential harm or discomfort to the participants during the study.

The specific goals of IRBs can vary depending on the jurisdiction and the specific research context. However, their main objective is to safeguard the welfare and rights of human subjects involved in research studies.

By ensuring that research studies meet ethical standards, IRBs help to uphold the integrity of scientific research and protect the well-being of individuals participating in research.

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Related Questions

a cross is performed between red-winged and white-winged ladybugs and the offspring all have pink wings. what type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate?

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The inheritance pattern demonstrated in the cross between red-winged and white-winged ladybugs, resulting in offspring with pink wings, is called incomplete dominance.

In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant or recessive, and the heterozygous offspring exhibit a phenotype that is intermediate between the two homozygous parents. In this case, the red-winged ladybug has the allele for red wings (RR), and the white-winged ladybug has the allele for white wings (WW).

When these two individuals mate, their offspring inherit one allele from each parent, resulting in the genotype RW. The phenotype of the offspring is pink wings, which is a blend of the red and white wing colors. Therefore, the inheritance pattern observed in this cross is incomplete dominance.

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an organism that can synthesize all of its organic components from co2 using energy from the sun is a

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An organism that can synthesize all of its organic components from CO2 using energy from the sun is called an autotroph or a producer.

Autotrophs are able to convert inorganic substances, such as carbon dioxide, into organic molecules through a process called photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, autotrophs capture sunlight through specialized pigments, such as chlorophyll, and use the energy from the sun to convert CO2 into glucose or other organic compounds. This process also releases oxygen as a byproduct. Autotrophs play a vital role in the food chain, as they are the primary source of energy for all other organisms. Examples of autotrophs include plants, algae, and some bacteria. By being able to produce their own organic components, autotrophs are not dependent on other organisms for their energy needs, allowing them to survive in environments with limited resources.

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two immune cell subsets are implicated by these data as important regulators of hiv replication and the rate of disease progression?

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The two immune cell subsets implicated as important regulators of HIV replication and disease progression are CD4+ T cells and CD8+ T cells.

CD4+ T cells are the primary targets of HIV and their depletion leads to immune dysfunction. CD8+ T cells, also known as cytotoxic T cells, play a crucial role in controlling viral replication by recognizing and killing infected cells. Their antiviral activity can slow down the progression of HIV infection. Both subsets are vital for maintaining an effective immune response against HIV. Understanding their dynamics and function is crucial for developing strategies to enhance immune control and limit disease progression in individuals with HIV.

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fgf-2 increases osteogenic and chondrogenic differentiation potentials of human mesenchymal stem cells by inactivation of tgf-???? signaling

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FGF-2 enhances osteogenic and chondrogenic differentiation of human mesenchymal stem cells by suppressing TGF-β signaling.

This leads to increased potential for the cells to differentiate into bone and cartilage tissues. FGF-2 acts by inhibiting the activation of TGF-β signaling pathways, which are known to inhibit osteogenesis and chondrogenesis. By blocking TGF-β signaling, FGF-2 promotes the expression of key transcription factors and extracellular matrix proteins that drive the differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts and chondrocytes. This mechanism allows FGF-2 to enhance the regenerative potential of mesenchymal stem cells and holds promise for tissue engineering and regenerative medicine applications.

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Select the features that are associated with a meandering stream.

a. eker

b. moraine

c. oxbow

d. lake

e. levee

f. tarn

g. floodplain

h. cutoff back

i. swamp

j. cirque

k. drumlin

Answers

Oxbow: An oxbow is a U-shaped curved body of water that forms when a meandering stream erodes and cuts off a meander loop, leaving a crescent-shaped lake or wetland.

e. Levee: A levee is a natural or man-made embankment that runs parallel to the stream channel. It is formed by the deposition of sediment during flood events, helping to confine the flow of water within the channel. g. Floodplain: A floodplain is a flat area adjacent to a stream channel that experiences periodic flooding. Meandering streams often have broad floodplains due to the lateral migration of the channel over time. h. Cutoff bank: A cutoff bank refers to the eroded outer bank of a meander bend. Over time, the erosion process can cause the bend.

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A certain species of sea otters lives off the coast of Alaska. Some have the ability to tolerate the colder waters farther north while others stay in the central coastal area. As a result of a large oil spill along the northern coast, most of the otters living in those colder waters die. Afterwards, the population of otters, in general, is now less tolerant of cold water. What is this an example of

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This is an example of natural selection shaping the sea otter population in response to an environmental change caused by an oil spill.

Natural selection is a fundamental concept in evolutionary biology. It refers to the process by which certain traits become more or less common in a population over time, based on their impact on survival and reproduction. In this case, the oil spill along the northern coast of Alaska had a significant impact on the sea otter population.

Initially, the sea otter population consisted of individuals with varying levels of cold water tolerance. Some otters were able to thrive in the colder waters farther north, while others preferred the central coastal area. However, the oil spill caused a large number of otters living in the colder waters to die. This event created a strong selective pressure on the population.

As a result, the surviving otters were primarily those with a higher tolerance for the central coastal area, where the water is relatively warmer. The otters with a lower tolerance for cold water were less likely to survive and pass on their genes to the next generation. Over time, this led to a shift in the overall population's tolerance for cold water, with a higher proportion of otters adapted to the warmer central coastal area.

This example demonstrates how environmental changes can influence the distribution of traits within a population through natural selection. It highlights the role of selective pressures in shaping the characteristics of a species over generations.

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draw a possible curve for the population several generations later if the population has stabilizing selection.

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A possible curve for the population several generations later under stabilizing selection is a bell-shaped curve with a narrower range and a peak at the mean trait value.

This indicates that the selection pressure favors individuals with intermediate trait values, while extreme values are selected against. As a result, the population becomes more homogeneous in terms of the selected trait.

In stabilizing selection, individuals with trait values close to the mean have higher fitness and reproductive success. Over generations, this leads to a reduction in the frequency of individuals with extreme trait values. As a result, the population curve becomes narrower and shifts towards the mean trait value.

The curve represents the distribution of trait values within the population, with the x-axis representing the range of trait values and the y-axis representing the frequency or abundance of individuals. The peak of the curve indicates the most common trait value in the population.

This type of selection maintains the stability of a particular trait in the population, preventing significant changes or shifts towards extreme values. It is often observed in populations where an intermediate trait value provides the highest fitness or adaptive advantage in a stable environment.

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During expiration, air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is _____ atmospheric pressure.

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During expiration, air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is greater than atmospheric pressure.

The small intestine is built so that nutrients can be taken in. Villi line the small intestine and help us take in nutrients from the chyme, a liquid mixture made in the stomach from the food we eat.

A large number of minuscule finger-like designs called villi project inwards from the coating of the small digestive tract. The huge surface region they present takes into consideration quick retention of processing items.

Gases leave the lungs during exhalation. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during inspiration, allowing air to enter the lungs. During termination, the motivation muscles unwind compelling gases to stream out of the lungs.

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simple periodic complex periodic continuous aperiodic or transient aperiodic a combination of any of these (if so which ones?)

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The signals are classified as follows:

1-Simple periodic, 2-Complex periodic, 3-Continuous aperiodic, 4-Simple periodic, 5-Transient aperiodic

. Simple periodic signal: A signal that repeats itself identically over regular intervals of time, exhibiting a single frequency and amplitude.

2. Complex periodic signal: A signal that is composed of multiple sine waves, known as harmonics, which are integer multiples of a fundamental frequency. These signals have varying frequencies and amplitudes, creating a more complex waveform.

3. Continuous aperiodic signal: A signal that does not exhibit any regular pattern or repetition. It lacks a specific frequency or periodicity, often appearing as random noise.

4. Square wave: A type of simple periodic signal characterized by a constant amplitude and alternating between two discrete voltage levels. It has a duty cycle, representing the ratio of the signal's ON duration to its total period.

5. Transient aperiodic signal: A signal that occurs for a finite duration with a distinct beginning and end. It lacks any regular pattern or repetition and is typically associated with non-repetitive events or signals that have unique characteristics.

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the complete question is:

Classify the following signals as simple periodic, complex periodic, continuous aperiodic, transient aperiodic, or a combination of any of these (if so, specify which ones):

1. A sine wave with a constant frequency and amplitude.

2. A signal composed of multiple harmonically related sine waves with varying frequencies and amplitudes.

3. Random noise with no identifiable pattern or repetition.

4. A square wave that repeats at regular intervals.

5. An audio recording of a spoken sentence.

Please classify each signal accordingly.

Substances as large as or larger than _____________ are normally not allowed to pass through the filtration membrane.

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Substances as large as or larger than proteins are normally not allowed to pass through the filtration membrane.

The filtration membrane, found in various biological systems such as the glomerular filtration barrier in the kidneys, acts as a selective barrier that allows the passage of smaller molecules and ions while restricting the passage of larger molecules like proteins. This filtration process helps regulate the composition of fluids and prevent the loss of essential molecules from the body.

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These macaques (Macaca fuscata) are partially immersed in a hot spring in a snowy region of Japan. What are some ways that form, function, and behavior contribute to homeostasis for these animals?

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The macaques (Macaca fuscata), also known as snow monkeys, living in a snowy region of Japan exhibit various adaptations in form, function, and behavior that contribute to their homeostasis in such an environment.

Homeostasis refers to the ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in external conditions.Macaques have a dense coat of fur that helps them insulate their bodies and retain heat in cold environments. The fur acts as an insulating layer, preventing heat loss and maintaining body temperature. Macaques possess a layer of subcutaneous fat, which serves as an additional insulation against the cold. The fat layer helps to retain body heat and provides energy reserves.

Macaques have the ability to regulate their body temperature.

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maximum tolerable dose and low-dose metronomic chemotherapy have opposite effects on the mobilization and viability of circulating endothelial

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The maximum tolerable dose (MTD) and low-dose metronomic chemotherapy have opposite effects on the mobilization and viability of circulating endothelial cells.

1. Maximum tolerable dose (MTD): This refers to the highest dose of a drug or treatment that can be given to a patient without causing unacceptable side effects or toxicity. MTD is typically determined through clinical trials and is important to ensure patient safety.
2. Low-dose metronomic chemotherapy: This is a treatment approach where chemotherapy drugs are administered at low doses, frequently and continuously over a period of time. Unlike traditional high-dose chemotherapy, which aims to kill cancer cells directly, low-dose metronomic chemotherapy primarily targets the blood vessels that supply tumors, inhibiting their growth and spread.
3. Opposite effects: MTD and low-dose metronomic chemotherapy have contrasting impacts on the mobilization and viability of circulating endothelial cells. MTD may lead to increased mobilization of these cells, meaning they are released into the bloodstream. On the other hand, low-dose metronomic chemotherapy may inhibit the mobilization of endothelial cells, reducing their presence in the bloodstream.
4. Viability of circulating endothelial cells: Endothelial cells line the inner surface of blood vessels and play a crucial role in angiogenesis (formation of new blood vessels). Circulating endothelial cells are those that are present in the bloodstream. The viability of these cells refers to their ability to remain alive and function properly.
In summary, while MTD may increase the mobilization of circulating endothelial cells, low-dose metronomic chemotherapy aims to inhibit their mobilization. Additionally, MTD and low-dose metronomic chemotherapy can have different effects on the viability of these cells. It's important to note that the specific effects can vary depending on the type of chemotherapy, cancer type, and individual patient factors.

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the sporophyte of the mosses and liverworts is never an independent plant. how can this be explained if the alternation of generations is the sexual life cycle of all plants?

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The sporophyte of the mosses and liverworts is never an independent plant, which can be explained by the fact that these organisms exhibit a unique form of alternation of generations, known as the gametophyte-dominant life cycle.

In this life cycle, the gametophyte generation is the dominant and persistent phase, while the sporophyte generation is relatively short-lived and dependent on the gametophyte for nutrition and support.

During the alternation of generations, the gametophyte produces gametes (sex cells) through mitosis, and these gametes fuse during fertilization to form a zygote. The zygote then develops into the sporophyte, which remains attached to and dependent on the gametophyte for nutrients. The sporophyte produces spores through meiosis, which are dispersed to new environments where they can germinate and develop into new gametophytes.

In the case of mosses and liverworts, the sporophyte generation lacks the specialized structures and adaptations necessary for independent growth and survival. Instead, it relies on the gametophyte's ability to photosynthesize and provide nutrients. This arrangement ensures the continued development and dispersal of the species while maintaining the dominance of the gametophyte generation.

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Syphilis is caused by _____. a. Treponema pallidum b. Neisseria gonorrhea c. immunodeficiencies d. Haemophilus ducreyi

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Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, a spiral-shaped bacterium. It is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect various organs and tissues if left untreated.

Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, a spiral-shaped bacterium. It is a sexually transmitted infection that can also be transmitted from an infected mother to her unborn child during pregnancy or childbirth. Treponema pallidum is highly motile and can penetrate the skin or mucous membranes through microscopic abrasions during sexual contact.

Treponema pallidum enters the body and spreads through the bloodstream, leading to systemic infection. It can affect various organs and tissues, including the skin, mucous membranes, bones, joints, and internal organs. If left untreated, syphilis can progress through different stages and cause severe complications, including damage to the cardiovascular system, nervous system, and other vital organs.

The correct answer is option a. Treponema pallidum. It is important to diagnose and treat syphilis promptly to prevent the progression of the infection and potential long-term complications. Testing for syphilis typically involves blood tests or examination of fluid from syphilis sores. Treatment usually involves antibiotics, such as penicillin, which effectively eliminate the bacteria and resolve the infection.

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Diazepam is used to treat anxiety disorders, alcohol withdrawal symptoms, or muscle spasms. the number of sp2 carbons in diazepam is?

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Diazepam, commonly known by its brand name Valium, is a benzodiazepine medication primarily used for treating anxiety disorders, alcohol withdrawal symptoms, and muscle spasms.

It works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA in the brain, which helps reduce anxiety and promote relaxation.

In terms of the number of sp2 carbons in diazepam, the molecule contains three aromatic rings. Each aromatic ring consists of six carbon atoms, all of which are sp2 hybridized. Therefore, the total number of sp2 carbons in diazepam is 18.

Diazepam's chemical structure consists of a diazepine ring fused with two benzene rings, resulting in a complex structure with multiple sp2 hybridized carbons. Understanding the molecular structure of medications helps researchers and pharmacologists study their properties and interactions within the body, aiding in the development and optimization of therapeutic treatments.

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Lineage-specific and single-cell chromatin accessibility charts human hematopoiesis and leukemia evolution. Nat Genet 2016 Oct;48(10):1193-203

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The study published in Nature Genetics in 2016 titled "Lineage-specific and single-cell chromatin accessibility charts human hematopoiesis and leukemia evolution" investigates chromatin accessibility in hematopoiesis and leukemia.

The study published in Nature Genetics in 2016 focused on understanding chromatin accessibility patterns in human hematopoiesis (the process of blood cell formation) and leukemia evolution. Chromatin accessibility refers to the degree of accessibility of DNA regions to regulatory elements and transcription factors. The researchers aimed to create comprehensive lineage-specific and single-cell chromatin accessibility maps to gain insights into the gene regulatory networks underlying hematopoietic development and leukemogenesis. They employed cutting-edge technologies such as single-cell ATAC-seq (Assay for Transposase-Accessible Chromatin using sequencing) to examine chromatin accessibility patterns at the single-cell level. By analyzing these chromatin accessibility profiles, the study provided valuable information about the regulatory landscape of different hematopoietic lineages and identified key transcription factors and regulatory elements involved in hematopoiesis and leukemia. This research enhanced our understanding of the molecular mechanisms underlying blood cell development and provided insights into how aberrant chromatin accessibility contributes to leukemia progression and evolution.

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what steps are always part of both the process of technological design and the process of scientific investigation? check all that apply. A police car is traveling east at 40.0 m/s along a straight road, overtaking a car ahead of it moving east at 30.0 m/s . The police car has a malfunctioning siren that is stuck at 1000 Hz. (b) What is the wavelength in front of the police car? an organism that can synthesize all of its organic components from co2 using energy from the sun is a Solve the system using equal values method. 5x-23=2 1/2-3 1/2x i think y=5x-23 y=2 1/2-3 1/2x The ___ the forces, the ___ the expected competitive intensity, which in turn limits the industrys profit potential. 13. a client has been diagnosed with major depressive episode. after treatment with fluoxetine (prozac), the client exhibits pressured speech and flight of ideas. based on this symptom change, which physician action would the nurse anticipate? 1. increase the dosage of fluoxetine. The dimensions of a regulation tennis court are 27 feet by 78 feet. The dimensions of a table tennis table are 152.5 centimeters by 274 centimeters. Is a table tennis table a dilation of a tennis court? If so, what is the scale factor? Explain. if your network administrator suggests taking two network connections and having a server connect the two networks and make a larger network as a result, what is the appropriate term that describes this draw a possible curve for the population several generations later if the population has stabilizing selection. Repeat the two constructions for the type of triangle.Acute you have been receiving a lot of phishing emails sent from the domain kenyan.msn.pl. links within these emails open new browser windows at youneedit.com.pl. two immune cell subsets are implicated by these data as important regulators of hiv replication and the rate of disease progression? __________ correlation between two variables means that as scores on one variable increase, then scores on another variable also increase. parents who choose cochlear implant surgery for their children are more often than not left vulnerable to rely on the professionals involved in the implantation process. How much work must be done by a system heated with 50 J if the goal was to reduce its internal energy by 15 J 3. about 5% of the population has arachnophobia 1, which is fear of spiders. consider a random sample of 28 people and let x be the number of people in the sample who are afraid of spiders. a) carefully explain why x is a binomial random variable. b) find the probability that exactly 5 people have arachnophobia. (show calculations for b - c!) c) find the probability that at most one person has arachnophobia. d) find the probability that at least two people have arachnophobia. a company factored $47,000 of its accounts receivable and was charged a 1% factoring fee. the journal entry to record this transaction would include a: most pregnancies are full term, but some are preterm (less than 37 weeks). of those that are preterm, they are classified as early (less than 34 weeks) and late (34 to 36 weeks). a report examined those outcomes for one year, broken down by age of the mother. is there evidence that the outcomes are not independent of age group? 31 year old g3p0 woman at 27 weeks gestation is managed expectantly for preeclampsia with severe features after a high school athlete who loves baseball receives a multimillion dollar contract to play in the major leagues he loses his enthusiasm for the game and finds he no longer enjoys it. this is an example of: