It is the responsibility of both the seller's agent and the customer's agent to conduct a fairly ready and diligent visible inspection of the property supplied for sale. this responsibility applies to all belongings sorts besides. FIRPTA Exemptions.
A real property dealer works to negotiate and arrange real property transactions. This certified person has day-by-day duties that consist of writing contracts and overseeing transactions for income and buying sports on homes, land, and business properties.
The characteristics of an international sale of products contract consist of the obligation of the vendor delivering the goods and switching the property in the products to the purchaser, which for its composition is of the same opinion to pay the rate for the goods and take delivery of them.
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marisa is the office manager in a small company. her employees find that they can often come late to work and leave early, and marisa will cover their work for them. marisa is likely to score: _______
a. low on emotional stability.
b. high on agreeableness. c. low on extroversion. d. high on conscientiousness.
Marisa manages the office for a small business. Her staff members discover that they can frequently arrive late for work and depart early since Maria will finish their assignments. Marisa is probably going to rate highly in this category.
How do you define office manager?person whose responsibility it is to manage an office's work organization: Office activities must be planned, coordinated, and supported administratively by the office manager.
What alternative name for office manager is there?An office manager, usually referred to as an admin assistant or just an administrator, serves as the organization's point of contact for management and staff. Office managers are in charge of a number of duties, such as keeping an eye on deliveries, setting up workplaces, and helping executives when needed.
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suppose the government in this economy decides to decrease government purchases by $250 billion. the decrease in government spending will lead to a decrease in income, creating an initial change in consumption equal to . this decreases income yet again, leading to a second change in consumption equal to . the total change in demand resulting from the initial change in government spending is-$1 trillion .
Suppose the government in this economy decides to increase government purchases by $250 billion. The increase in government purchases will lead to an increase in income, generating an initial change in consumption equal to $187.5 billion. This increases income yet again, causing a second change in consumption equal to $140.6 billion. The total change in demand resulting from the initial change in government spending is $1 trillion.
What are Government purchases?All government payments, investments, and transfer payments are included in government expenditures.
The initial shift in consumption was calculated by multiplying 250 billion by the marginal propensity to consume, and this was replicated for the second one by multiplying 187.5 billion by the MPC again.
The $1 trillion figure was calculated by multiplying $250 billion by the expenditure multiplier.
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Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Accounts payable? Click the answer you think is right. O Accounts payable are assets which are increased on the left side of the T-account O Accounts payable refer to promises to pay later, which may arise from the purchase of supplies or services. O Accounts payable refer to deposits made by the business into their checking account O Accounts payable refer to amounts owed to the business by customers who purchased products on credit. Do you know the answer?
The statement that is accurate regarding Accounts payable is Accounts payable refer to oral or implied promises to pay later, which may arise from the purchase of supplies or services. Option B.
What is meant by the Accounts payable?Accounts Payable is the term used to describe when a business acquires products on credit that must be repaid within a short period of time. It is categorized under the category of "current liabilities" and is handled as a liability. A short-term debt payment called accounts payable must be made in order to stay in good standing.
Accounts payable (AP) refers to the short-term debt and liability on a balance sheet that a company owes to its suppliers and vendors who have given the company credit for goods or services.
On a company's balance sheet, accounts payable are listed. Given that it is money owing to creditors and appears on the balance sheet under current liabilities, accounts payable is a liability.
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seaside issues a bond with a coupon (stated) interest rate of 10%, face value of $500,000, and due in 5 years. interest payments are made semi-annually. the market rate for this type of bond is 8%.
Issue price of the bond is $540587.84.
It is given that:
Face value: $50,000
Interest rate: 10%
No. of years: 5 years, semi-annual
market rate: 12%
Coupon payments = Face value × Rate of interest
= 500,000 * 10% = 50,000 annually
But it is given that interest payments are made semi-annually. Thus, coupon payments =
50,000 / 2 = 25000 semi-annually
Issue price of the bond= (Present value of coupon payment) + (Present value of face value)
It is given that coupon payment is 25000 and face value is 500000.
Market rate is 8% but it is semi-annually thus, market rate is 4%.
also time period is given as 5 years but payments are made semi-annually; thus, no of terms will be 10.
Thus, Issue price of the bond =
(25000/0.04) [ 1- (1.04)⁻¹⁰) ] + (500000 / 1.04¹⁰ )
= 202750 + 337837.84
=$540587.84
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When the government deliberately alters the level of spending and/or taxes in order to achieve specific national economic goals, it is exercising:
a. discretionary fiscal policy
b. a laissez-faire policy
c. a Ricardian policy
d. monetary policy
Discretionary fiscal policy.
When a government spends more than it collects in taxes, what kind of policy is that?An expansionary fiscal plan is often characterized by spending deficits. A deficit exists when expenditure outpaces revenue from taxes and other sources. In reality, spending increases and tax cuts frequently lead to deficits.
What is the phrase used when the government generates more revenue than it uses?A surplus occurs when the government collects more money than it spends. Treasury securities (bonds, notes, and bills) are sold to cover the deficit and are repaid with interest by the government.
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Discretionary fiscal policy is when the government consciously changes the level of expenditure and/or taxation to accomplish particular national economic goals.
When a government spends more than it collects in taxes, what kind of policy is that?An expansionary fiscal plan is often characterized by spending deficits. A deficit exists when expenditure outpaces revenue from taxes and other sources. In reality, spending increases and tax cuts frequently lead to deficits.
What is the phrase used when the government generates more revenue than it uses?A surplus occurs when the government collects more money than it spends. Treasury securities (bonds, notes, and bills) are sold to cover the deficit and are repaid with interest by the government.
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Consider a good produced in a competitive market, but it has external benefits. The market price will result in too ______________ of the good for economic efficiency. The market price will be ______________ than the price that would convince producers to produce the efficient amount.
little; lower
The market cost will bring about an excessive tad of the great for monetary productivity. The market cost will be lower than the value that would persuade makers to create the proficient sum.
What is monetary productivity?
The meaning of monetary productivity is the dissemination or designation of all merchandise and figures of creating an economy to their most esteemed utilizes while limiting or killing waste. Financial proficiency alludes to the utilization and portion of each restricted asset in an economy among makers and shoppers in a manner that expands monetary creation and advantages for purchasers.
Powerful conveyance of shopper and maker wares among various purchasers and organizations, as well as viable creation choices made inside firms and businesses, can all add to financial effectiveness.
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in 2010, jerry sold blackacre to tiffany. tiffany did not record but immediately assumed possession of blackacre, where she continues to live. in 2015, jerry sold blackacre, the same parcel, to chris by statutory special warranty deed. chris recorded the deed but never assumed possession. thereafter, jerry fled the jurisdiction. blackacre is in a state whose recording statute provides: a conveyance of an interest in land is not valid against any subsequent purchaser for value without notice thereof, unless the conveyance is recorded. this jurisdiction has a 10-year statute of limitations for claims of breach of warranty in a deed. identify this recording statute.
Based on the information provided, the recording statute is notice statute.
Recording statute, also called a recording act, is a state law which regulates the recording of deeds and other interests in real estate property and is utilized to establish priority between parties claiming an interest in the same property. There are three major types of recording statue: Race statute, Notice statute, and Race-notice statute. Notice statute refers to a recording act that extends priority of title of the property to the party with the most recently obtained claim, but only if the party also lacked notice of an earlier claim. Under a notice statute, a later purchaser of an interest has the priority interest if the later purchaser is a bona fide purchaser. A bona fide purchaser for value cannot have actual, constructive, or inquiry notice of any other claim against the property.
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When agent Hal shows a home he should never:
Ask questions of the prospects' children.
Start in the room with the best features.
Allow indoor pets to leave their designated area.
Leave everything as it was when he entered.
When agent Hal shows a home he should never Allow indoor pets to leave their designated area. Option (c) is correct.
What do you mean by Prospects?Prospectus is the likelihood or potentiality that something will occur.
A real estate agent who holds a license facilitates transactions between buyers and sellers and represents them in court. Agents typically receive payment in the form of commission, which is a percentage of the sale price of the home. Depending on their state and brokerage, agents receive a different percentage.
As a result, Option (c) is correct. When agent Hal shows a home he should never Allow indoor pets to leave their designated area.
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terry was ill for three months and missed work during this period. during the illness, terry received $4,500 in sick pay from a disability insurance policy. what amounts are included in terry's gross income under the following independent circumstances? note: leave no answer blank. enter zero if applicable. required: terry has disability insurance provided by his employer as a nontaxable fringe benefit. terry's employer paid $2,800 in disability premiums for terry this year. terry paid $2,800 in premiums for his disability insurance this year. terry's employer paid the $2,800 in premiums for terry, but terry elected to have his employer include the $2,800 as compensation on terry's w-2. terry and his employer share the cost of the disability insurance. terry's employer paid $1,800 in disability premiums for terry this year as a nontaxable fringe benefit, and terry paid the remaining $1,000 of premiums from his after-tax
The amount included in terry's gross income under the following independent circumstances is 4500.
2. Terry paid the remaining $1,000 of premiums from his after-tax is $2893.
Solution:
[($1,000/$2,800) × $4,500] = 1607
4500 - 1607 = $2893
Gross income includes wages dividends capital gains business income pension payments and other income. Income adjustments include faculty and staff expenses student loan interest child support payments and contributions to retirement accounts.
Gross Wage is what an employee earns before taxes benefits and other payroll deductions are deducted from their salary. The amount remaining after deducting all withholding is net wages or net wages. An individual's gross income is the amount of money earned before any deductions or taxes are deducted. For full-time employees, gross income is annual salary or annual salary before tax.
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firms based online have often pursued a strategy of increasing profits not by raising price but by increasing their of sales.
Online businesses have frequently pursued a strategy of growing profits by increasing sales volume rather than raising prices.
What is the significance of growing profitability?Profit generation allows organizations to continue to grow and compete in their industries, therefore increasing profitability is critical for many. Profitability growth can also assist businesses in obtaining capital from financial institutions, investors, and shareholders. If a firm does not now generate profit, improving profitability may enable for the eventual generating of profit, allowing the business to continue to function. Meeting with members of your team to set similar goals connected to growing profits is one of the first ways to help in increasing profitability. Market research may assist you in identifying and comprehending target audiences.
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an assigned risk pool includes people who are able to obtain auto insurance due to a great driving record.
An assigned risk pool includes people who are able to obtain auto insurance due to a great driving record is False.
The three types of auto insurance commonly offered are third-party collision damage waiver and comprehensive. Drivers can continue to purchase other types of car insurance, including If something bad happens to you the insurance company will pay you, or someone you choose.
Insurance protects against possible financial losses. You can't predict the future so you never know when something bad will happen to you or your property. Insurance can prepare for the worst. Provides protection against many risks. B. Unexpected property damage illness or injury.
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identify the statements that correctly describe the tariff of 1816 and its context
a. The law protected American-made goods by taxing similar goods from abroad.
b. The law admitted imported goods that could not be produced in the United States tax-free
The law admitted imported goods that could not be produced in the United States tax-free is the statements that correctly describe the tariff of 1816 and its context. Hence, option B is correct.
What is the US import law?To enter the country lawfully, imported items must arrive at the port of entry, have the delivery authorized by CBP, and have the estimated duties paid. The importer of record is responsible for planning the inspection and the release of the goods.
The convention aims to simplify temporary admittance procedures and support the expansion of international trade by streamlining and harmonizing procedures through the use of standardized model papers, such as international customs documents with international security.
Thus, option B is correct.
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As a sales-team member, you earn 2% commission on any sales over $2,500. The amount of sales you earn commission on is represented by. The total commission you earn is. What composite function would you use to calculate your commission earned if you sold $6,000 worth of items?.
The commission earned on sale $6,000 worth of items is $70.
How to calculate?For the given problem, we need to find the commission earned on a sale of $6000.
The problem had given that we earn commission after $2500 and we earn 2% of commission.
Given,
E(x) = x - 2500
C(x) = 0.02x
In order to find, what we will actually earn, calculate C(E(x)).
Hence,
C(E(x)) = 0.02(x-2500) = 0.02x - 50
Therefore, now using equation to compute our earned commission,
Let's put $6000 sale.
C(E(6000)) = 0.02(6000) - 50 = 70
Hence, we will earn $70, on a $6000 sale,
What are typical referral commission percentages?The industry average for referral commissions is typically 20% to 30% of gross profit. On the low end, a sales professional can earn his 5% of sales, whereas a pure commission structure allows him 100% commission.
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Proctored assignments are indicated by Multiple Choice O a shield icon & title of "Proctoring Enabled" O a red cube icon O a magnifying glass icon
The proctored assignments are indicated by a shield icon & title of proctoring enabled. The Option A is correct.
What is a proctored assignments?Also known as a proctored examination, refers to the type of assignment that your instructor can create that, at minimum, which requires an authorization for you to start or submit your assignment attempt.
It is important we note that a proctored examination is a type of assignment that promotes assignment integrity by increasing the assignment security and through confirming your identity.
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Estimates of which of the following are needed to prepare pro forma income statements?
Multiple select question.
variable costs
selling price per unit
competitor pricing
historical trends
unit sales
Variable costs, selling price per unit, historical trends, and unit sales are needed to prepare pro forma income statements. The correct options are a, b, d, and e.
The variable costs related to producing and selling each unit of a good or service must be estimated for pro forma income statements. These charges may consist of direct materials, direct labor, and other varying costs.
When estimating the revenue from the sale of goods or services, the selling price per unit must be estimated. Forecasting future revenues, costs, and spending benefits greatly from an understanding of historical trends and financial performance in the past.
For the pro forma income statement to accurately anticipate the total sales revenue, an estimate of expected unit sales must be made.
Therefore, Pricing and market positioning decisions may be influenced by information about competitor pricing. So the correct options are a, b, d, and e.
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Resource leveling or smoothing can have all the following results on a project EXCEPTSingle choice.
a. Lower peak resource demand.
b. Reduced resource need
c. A longer project duration
Resource leveling or smoothing can have all the following results on a project except a longer project duration. So option c is the correct option .
Resource leveling: What does that mean?Resource leveling is a strategy in resource management that can assist teams in anticipating project timeframes and better accommodating resource restrictions. It aids in avoiding bad project management, which frequently results in last-minute delays, exhausted team members, and expense overruns.
What does "resource leveling" and "resource smoothing" mean?Changing a project's start and finish dates to account for scarce resources is a practice known as resource leveling. While resource smoothing involves altering project operations to make sure that work is finished in accordance with current timelines.
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Section 1 Question 1 of 22. A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect taxpayers by: o Providing them with an accurate return, including all tax benefits to which they are entitled. o Guaranteeing their returns will not be questioned by the IRS. o Promising they will be free from IRS penalties. o Protecting the tax preparer, not the taxpayer. Mark for follow up Question 2 of 22. A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect the tax preparer through all of the following EXCEPT: o Providing a quality product that helps them increase client retention o Minimizing the risk of being subject to preparer penalties. o Showing integrity in the return preparation process. o Eliminating the need for preparer due diligence notes Mark for follow up Question 4 of 22. Beatrice is eligible to claim EITC based on Jordyn, her granddaughter and qualifying child. Jordyn's mother, Beth, is also eligible and plans to claim Jordyn as a qualifying child for EITC. Which of the following statements is accurate? o Beth holds a higher right and may claim EITC based on Jordyn because Beth is Jordyn's parent. o As long as Beatrice files before Beth, you may prepare her return claiming EITC based on Jordyn. o Beatrice may claim EITC based on Jordyn if her AGI was higher than Beth's and if she files first o Beatrice and Beth may agree to each claim one-half of the EITC based on Jordyn, their qualifying child. Mark for follow up Question 5 of 22. Virginia comes to your tax office to have her income tax return prepared. She is eligible to claim EITC based on Kellie, her granddaughter and qualifying child. Virginia has $24.000 in wages and owns the home where she, Kellie, and Kellie's father, Herman, live. Herman would also like to claim Kellie as a qualifying child for EITC; however, Herman's only income for the year was $2,500 of unemployment income. He contributed nothing to the household expenses. Which of the following statements is accurate? o Herman holds a higher right and may claim EITC based on Kellie because Herman is Kellie's parent o As long as Virginia files before Herman, you may prepare her return claiming EITC based on Kellie. o Virginia may daim EITC based on Kellie, as her AGI was higher than Herman's and Herman has no earned income and thus does not qualify for the EITC o Herman and Virginia may agree to each claim one-half of the EITC based on Kellie, their qualifying child. Mark for follow up Question 6 of 22 Henry who is not a dependent states he wishes to claim EIC this year for his 35 year old dependent child. Both reside in the US Henry states that the child wes with Henry, is not mamed, is disabled, and has not worked during the year. What does Henry's tax preparer need to do to determine if the child can quality Henry for ETC? o Enter Henry's child on this return and identify him as a disabled qualifying child o Advice the tax payer of the tax definition of disabled and apply sound judgment and common sense to see if the definition is met o Ask for proof of the child's name o Explain to Henry that a 35-year-old child is too old to be a qualiting child for EITC Mark for follow Up
A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect taxpayers by option A: Providing them with an accurate return, including all tax benefits to which they are entitled.
A tax preparer's high ethical standards protect the tax preparer through except option D: Eliminating the need for preparer due diligence notes Mark for follow up
The statement that is accurate is option C: Beatrice may claim EITC based on Jordyn if her AGI was higher than Beth's and if she files first.
What are tax ethics?Tax ethics, is known to be the term for the taxpayer's moral duty to pay taxes, is influenced by their interaction with the government as citizens. Tax evasion and tax ethics are frequently used synonymously.
When filing taxes, a tax preparer should take certain ethical considerations into account:
Inform the appropriate third parties about the suspected fraudulent behavior.Inform the IRS and other tax authorities of the alleged fraudulent activities.Think about ending the engagement.Therefore, one can say that anyone who prepares a tax return may now be held accountable for errors committed in filing a return for someone else due to a change in tax regulations that took effect more than ten years ago. An IRS monetary penalty may be imposed on a tax preparer who made errors on your return.
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the law of supply and demand says that supply and demand do not play a factor when determining the price of a product or service.
False, the interaction of a market's supply and demand factors determines price. The desire of consumers and producers to engage in purchasing and selling is represented by demand and supply.
What is the supply law saying?According to the law of supply, manufacturers will increase their supply to the market if the price is higher. Businesses produce more of a good or service when they anticipate paying a greater price for it because they want to boost their revenue.
What is the law of demand?According to the Law of Demand, there is an indirect correlation between a good or service's price and the amount of that good or service that customers are willing and able to purchase. In other words, consumers are less able and willing to purchase an item as its price rises and vice versa.
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this stage of research allows the creative team to understand what needs to be changed, or redefined, in order to keep pace, or in fact, keep ahead of the marketplace.
Revitalized brand research is the stage of research that allows the creative team to understand what needs to be changed, or redefined, to keep pace, or in fact, keep ahead of the marketplace.
When a brand reaches its mature phase and sales start to fall off, the marketing strategy is used. Market expansions, product changes, and brand repositioning are a few methods of revival.
In a cutthroat industry, brand rejuvenation aids in shattering stereotypes and luring in the intended clientele. Reviving the brand is important to address particular problems that hurt the company's reputation or frighten customers or workers.
While brand revival seeks to develop the customer base of a product that isn't earning enough money, brand reinforcement works to increase the number of consumers of an established and successful brand.
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4.Inaccurate forecasts can result in negative outcomes like:a.Stockouts and poor responsiveness to market dynamicsb.High inventory costs of inventory and increased profitsc.Material shortages and decreased costs of obsolescenced.Low inventory costs of inventory and stockouts
Background image
Answer:a
Explanation:all other has some positive efects as well
Low inventory costs of inventory and stockout are a result of the negative outcomes in the inaccurate forecasts. Thus, the correct option is D.
What are the Inaccurate forecasts?Inaccurate forecasts often come from the misinterpretation of the data or simply from the lack of accurate information altogether. Inaccurate forecasts can be next to impossible to create the accurate forecasts when the teams freely apply their own data interpretation on what is usually expected at each stage of the forecasting process in the different industries.
Low inventory costs of the inventory and stockouts are the negative outcomes of the inaccurate forecasting.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Which statement is NOT true regarding a Straight Life policy?
A. The face value of the policy is paid to the insured at age 100.
B. It usually develops cash value by the end of the third policy year.
C. It has the lowest annual premium of the three types of Whole Life policies.
D. Its premium steadily decreases over time, in response to its growing cash value.
"Its premium steadily decreases over time, in response to its growing cash value." is NOT true regarding a Straight Life policy. Option D
What is the Straight Life policy?Generally, A retirement income product known as a straight life annuity, which is also sometimes referred to as a straight life policy, is one that provides a benefit up until the time of death but does not make any additional beneficiary payments or provide a death benefit.
A guaranteed stream of income is provided by a straight life annuity to the annuity owner until the owner passes away, as is the case with all other types of annuities.
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in a(n) ________blank marketing channel, each member attempts to satisfy its own objectives.
In an independent marketing channel, each member attempts to satisfy its own objectives. Hence, option B is correct.
What is independent marketing channel?
A representative from the manufacturer is an illustration of an independent marketing channel. A manufacturer's salesperson typically promotes comparable goods for several different firms.
Today, websites, email, targeted digital advertising, and events are the most prevalent marketing channel kinds digital or in-person. In the past, people often employed an indirect marketing route or a direct distribution channel such as mailers like television.
Thus, option B is correct.
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The options are missing-
A. administered
B. independent
C. contractual
D. cooperative
E. corperate
let's say we decide to transact with typical bank again, and remember that the required reserve ratio is 0.2. g
The Federal Reserve establishes the Required Reserve Ratio (RR) as a percentage. (b) Banks often desire greater savings when interest rates are higher.
How do you determine the necessary reserve ratio?Simply dividing the amount of money a bank must keep in reserve by the amount of money it has on deposit yields the required reserve ratio. For instance, if a bank had to hold $500,000 in reserves along with its $10 million in deposits, the minimum reserve ratio would be 1/20, or 5%.
How much bank reserves are there?Key Learnings. The percentage of a commercial bank's deposits that it is required to retain in cash as a reserve in the event of a large number of client withdrawals is known as the reserve ratio and is determined by the central bank. The reserve ratio is a crucial monetary policy tool used by the Fed in the United States to enhance or lower the money supply in the economy.
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Which of the following are reasons to configured VLANs on a switch as opposed to using without VLANs? (select two)
___Increase number of collision domain
___Increase number of broadcast domains
___Increase security
___Redundant paths between two hosts
___Allowing broadcast traffic between subnets
VLANs provide a quantity of benefits inclusive of ease of administration, confinement of broadcast domains, reduced network traffic, and enforcement of security policies.
VLANs allow logical grouping of end-stations that are bodily dispersed on a network.
Which of the following are reasons to use VLANs pick two?Increased variety of broadcast domains. Increased security.
A VLAN is recognized on community switches with the aid of a VLAN ID. Each port on a swap can have one or more VLAN IDs assigned to it and will land in a default VLAN if no different one is assigned. Each VLAN offers data-link get admission to to all hosts linked to change ports configured with its VLAN ID.
They enlarge the dimension of collision domains. They permit logical grouping of users by using function. They can decorate network security.
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https://brainly.com/question/25867685#SPJ4Mayra and nancy went to home goods to buy centerpieces for their new event hall. Mayra bought 7 small centerpieces and 12 large centerpieces and paid $275. 50. Nancy paid $347. 25 for 15 large centerpieces and 9 small centerpieces. How much did each small centerpiece and each large centerpiece cost?.
The cost of small centerpieces is $ 11.5 and large centerpieces is $16.25.
Calculation:-
Mayra bought small centerpieces = 7
Large centerpieces = 12
Total amount paid = $275. 50.
Nancy paid = $347. 25
large centerpieces = 15
small centerpieces = 9
let cost of small centerpieces = x
Large Nancy = y
Using simultaneous equation:-
$347. 25 = 9x + 15y × 4
$275. 50 = 7x + 12y × 5
------------------------------
11.5 = x + 0y
Cost of small centerpieces is $ 11.5
Large centerpieces is $347. 25 = 9x + 15y
= $347. 25 = 9(11.5) + 15y
= $347. 25 = 103.5+ 15y
= 243.75 = 15y
= y = 243.75/15
= $16.25
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ski central has the following information for producing 500 skis. the company sold 470 of these skis produced. based on the information below, what is the cost of goods sold amount for this period for ski central? direct materials used: $ 45,000 direct labor: $ 20,000 manufacturing overhead applied: $ 100,000 actual depreciation on factory: $ 9,000 selling expenses: $ 22,500 administrative expenses: $ 16,000
Ski Central is producing 500 skies and sold 470 units. The direct material used is costed $45,000, direct labor costs $20,000, manufacturing overhead costs $100,000, factory depreciation costs $9,000, selling expenses $22,500, and administrative expenses $16,000. The cost of goods sold for Ski Central's products is $370.
Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) is the total cost directly needs to produce one unit of product. COGS includes the direct materials and direct labor costs used directly to the production process of a product. COGS also may incude other fixed costs such as factory depreciation, storage costs, and factory overhead.
Based on the question, we know that:
Direct material costs = $45,000
Direct labor costs = $20,000
Manufacturing overhead costs = $100,000
Actual depreciation on factory = $9,000
Sales expenses = $22,500
Adm. expenses = $16,000
Units produced = 500
Units sold = 470
As we discussed before, we only could include direct material costs, direct labor costs, manufacturing overhead and factory depreciation to calculates the products' COGS. Because both selling or sales expenses and administrative expenses are included as general expenses and indirectly affecting the production process. Hence, the total production cost is:
Total Production costs = $45,000 + $20,000 + $100,000 + $9,000
Total production costs = $174,000
To calculates the products' COGS we only calculates the units product sold as a divider to the total production costs. The COGS for Ski Central's skies are:
COGS = Total production costs : units sold
COGS = $174,000 : 470
COGS = $370
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Which strategy is a beneficial stress management technique for trying to eat wisely?.
Trying to cut off all of your favorite junk food while on a diet a favorable outlook on nutrition, eating, and concentrating on escalating activities is a beneficial stress management technique for trying to eat wisely.
A person's level of stress, especially chronic stress, can be controlled by a variety of strategies and psychotherapies known as stress management. These techniques and therapies are often used to enhance daily functioning. Numerous physical and psychological signs of stress differ depending on the circumstances surrounding each person.
A deterioration in physical health, such as headaches, chest discomfort, exhaustion, and sleep issues, as well as sadness, might be among them. One of the secrets to leading a contented and successful life in contemporary society is the practice of stress management. Stress management offers a range of techniques to control anxiety and preserve general well-being in the face of the multiple demands that life frequently brings.
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Question 6 1 pts Direct selling is the most expensive form of retailing. True False Question 7 1 pts The basic function of promotion is communication. O True False Question 8 1 pts Promotion is communication that is managed. True False Question 9 1 pts Advertising that promotes organizational images or ideas is institutional advertising. True O False Question 10 1 pts Public relations is concerned with a company's public image. True False
Direct selling is the most expensive form of retailing: True.
The basic function of promotion is communication: True.
Promotion is communication that is managed: True.
Advertising that promotes organizational images or ideas is institutional advertising: True.
Public relations is concerned with a company's public image: True.
What is an advertisement?In Business management, an advertisement can be defined as a group of consumer promotions programs which is designed and developed with the sole intention of making the various goods or services that are being offered by a business firm to become known, popular and familiar to all of its customers and potential customers.
This ultimately implies that, consumer promotions programs and all other form of advertisements can help a business organization or entrepreneur in the following positive ways:
To enhance brand loyalty.To generate store traffic.To facilitate and influence the final decision of customers to purchase an item.What is public relations?Public relations can be defined as a form of consumer promotion that is typically focused on the public image of a business organization (company or firm) and it is also based on an unpaid communication.
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In October of 2004, British regulators were forced to suspend the license of a flu vaccine plant in Liverpool operated by the Chiron Corporation due to concerns over bacterial contamination. As a result, the market was less competitive and the remaining suppliers of the flu vaccine experienced an increase in their market power. Suppose the market for one of the remaining firms is represented by the following graph. a. Place point E on the remaining producer's profit maximizing price and output. Price (5 per dose) 99888 RNR2209 0 2 4 Marginal Revenue Demand 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 Quantity (millions of doses) b. Compare the marginal benefit and marginal cost at the firm's profit maximizing level of output. The marginal benefit is O reflected by the demand curve, so the marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost. Society would benefit if more flu vaccines were produced. O reflected by the demand curve, so the marginal cost is greater than the marginal benefit. Society is expending too many resources on flu vaccines. O reflected by the marginal revenue curve, so the marginal benefit is equal to the marginal cost. The socially optimal amount is produced O reflected by the marginal cost curve, so the marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost. Society is expending too many resources on flu vaccines. c. If this were a perfectly competitive market, what would be the equilibrium price? Price: $ 12 d. If this were a perfectly competitive market, what would be the equilibrium output? Equilibrium output: million doses
The most a consumer will spend on one additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit .the difference in cost for producing one extra good or additional unit of a product is known as the marginal cost of production.
Both the marginal benefit and marginal cost are indicators of how a product's price or value shifts. While marginal cost affects the producer, marginal benefit affects the consumer. When producing, setting a price for, and marketing a product, businesses must take into account both ideas. The maximum sum of money a consumer will spend on an additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit. Customers' satisfaction tends to decline as spending increases. The difference in price caused by producing an extra unit of a good or service is known as the marginal cost. profit maximizing level of output.=Total revenue-total cost
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The most a consumer will spend on one additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit .the difference in cost for producing one extra good or additional unit of a product is known as the marginal cost of production.
Both the marginal benefit and marginal cost are indicators of how a product's price or value shifts. While marginal cost affects the producer, marginal benefit affects the consumer. When producing, setting a price for, and marketing a product, businesses must take into account both ideas. The maximum sum of money a consumer will spend on an additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit. Customers' satisfaction tends to decline as spending increases. The difference in price caused by producing an extra unit of a good or service is known as the marginal cost. profit maximizing level of output.=Total revenue-total cost
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your next assignment is to analyze the f-41 broadsword. this strike figher operates as both an atmospheric and exo-atmospheric platform for planetary defense. the united nations space command (unsc) is concerned about the handling qualities of the aircraft. specifically, the damping appears to be too low for the phugoid mode so pilots are reportedly being distracted by the slowly-decaying oscillations.
This strike fighter serves as a platform for both atmospheric and extra-atmospheric defence of the planet. Concerns about the aircraft's handling have been raised by the United Nations Space Command (unsc).
Pilots are reportedly distracted by the oscillations that are slowly degrading because the damping appears to be too low for the phugoid mode. The gases that make up the atmosphere that envelops the Earth. By giving us air to breathe, protecting us from the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation, retaining heat to warm the planet, and minimising extreme temperature variations between day and night, it contributes to the viability of life.
The atmospheres of all the planets in our solar system contain gases, but none of them are distributed in the same proportions or have the same layered structures as Earth's.
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