Moorcroft’s assistant controller suggested that Moorcroft hire a part time collector to encourage customers to pay more promptly and to reduce the amount of uncollectible accounts. Sales are still 40% cash and 60% credit but the assistant controller predicted that this would cause credit sales to be collected 30% in the month of the sale, 50% in the month following sale, and 18% in the second month following sale; 2% are uncollectible.Prepare a schedule of expected collections from customers for June. How did these changes impact cash collections?

Answer: c) Both economies grew at the same rate

Explanation:

The faster growing economy would be the one that saw a greater increase in Real GDP than the other.

Real GDP growth = Nominal GDP growth - Inflation growth.

Hyperpolis Real GDP growth = 15% - 12%

Hyperpolis Real GDP growth = 3%

Superpolis Real GDP growth = 6% - 3%

Superpolis Real GDP growth = 3%

Both countries grew at the same rate of 3%.

Answer:

$3,596,800

Explanation:

The computation of net proceeds to the company is shown below:-

Net proceeds = Number of shares of stock × Offer price × (1 - Underwriter spread percent) - Administrative cost

= 110,000 × $39 × (1- 0.08) - $350,000

= 110,000 × $39 × 0.92 - $350,000

= $3,946,800 - $350,000

= $3,596,800

So, for determining the net proceeds we simply applied the above formula.

Answer:

i, ii

Explanation:

a Tax is a compulsory sum levied by the government on income, goods or services. A tax cut would increase the supply of labour. As a result, the supply of labour would increase. As a result of the increase in labour, there would be an increase in potential GDP

Answer:

The Present Value of the bond at the market rate = $90,438.36  

Explanation:

The value of the bond is the present value(PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV).  

Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV  

The value of bond can be worked out as follows:  

Step 1  

PV of interest payments  

Semi annul interest payment  

= 10% × 81000 × 1/2 = 4050

Semi-annual yield = 8%/2= 4 % per six months  

Total period to maturity (in months)  

= (2 × 8) = 16 periods (Note the bond term is 8 yeras)  

PV of interest = 4050 × (1-1.04^(-16))/0.04 = 47,191.79

Step 2  

PV of Redemption Value  

Assuming a redemption value equals to the nominal value =

PV of RV = 81,000 × 1.04^-16 =  43,246.56  

Step 3 :Total Present Value

Total prent value =  43,246.56  + 47,191.79721  =  90,438.36

The Present Value of the bond at the market rate = $90,438.36  

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of each point is shown below:-

But before that we need to do the following calculations

First Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $45,000,000

Market Value = 95% × $45,000,000

= $42,750,000

Annual Coupon Rate = 6%

Semiannual Coupon Rate = 3%

= 3% × $45,000,000

= $1,350,000

Time to Maturity = 26 years

Semiannual Period to Maturity = 52

Let semiannual YTM be i%

$42,750,000 = $1,350,000 × PVIFA(i%, 52) + $45,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 52)

N = 52

PV = -42750000

PMT = 1350000

FV = 45000000

I = 3.20%

Semiannual YTM = 3.20%

Annual YTM = 2 × 3.20%

Annual YTM = 6.40%

Before-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40%

After-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40% × (1 - 0.40)

= 3.84%

Second Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $50,000,000

Market Value = 54% × $50,000,000

= $27,000,000

Time to Maturity = 15 years

Semiannual Period to Maturity = 30

Let semiannual YTM be i%

$27,000,000 = $50,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 30)

Using a financial calculator:

N = 30

PV = -27000000

PMT = 0

FV = 50000000

I = 2.075%

Semiannual YTM = 2.075%

Annual YTM = 2 × 2.075%

= 4.15%

Before-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15%

After-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15% × (1 - 0.40)

= 2.49%

a. The total book value of debt is

Total Book Value of Debt = $45,000,000 + $50,000,000

= $95,000,000

b. The total market value of debt is

Total Market Value of Debt = $42,750,000 + $27,000,000

= $69,750,000

c. The estimate of the aftertax cost of debt is

Weight of first Issue of Debt is

= $42,750,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.6129

Weight of second issue of Debt

= $27,000,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.3871

So,  

Estimated After-tax Cost of Debt is

= 0.6129 × 3.84% + 0.3871 × 2.49%

= 3.32%

Answer: Please find answers below

Explanation:

The Order of liquidity shows how assets of a company are presented in a balance sheet in an order that shows the faster the  time taken for an asset to be converted to Cash.  

The order in which Current accounts are represented as as follows

--- Cash (including currency, checking accounts, and petty cash),

----Short-term investments ,

----Accounts receivable,

---- Inventory,

-----Supplies,

----- Pre-paid expenses.

Current Assets of Splish Brothers Inc. in order of liquidity

Current Assets                           Amount

Cash                                             $22,360

Debt investments(short term)     $17,630

Accounts receivables                      $30,100

Supplies                                              $8,170

Prepaid Insurance                              $5,590

Total Current Accounts                   $83,850

Answer:

Average rate of return= 10.17 %

Geometric return = 9.23%

Explanation:

Geometric average return

This is compounded annual rate of return which is used to measure the performance of an asset over a certain number of years. It helps to measure the return generated by an investment taking into account the volatility .

Unlike the arithmetic average the geometric average gives an idea of the real rate taking into account of volatility

The formula below

Geometric Return =(1+r1) (1+r2) ...... (1+rn)^1/n

Geometric Average return =  

(1.12× 1.19× 1.21× 0.88× 1.26× 0.95)^(1/6) - 1 =0.09233168

Geometric return =0.0923 × 100= 9.23%

Geometric return = 9.23%

Average rate of return

The average return is the sum of the returns over the years dividend by the Numbers of returns

Average return = sum of return / No of returns

(12% + 19% + 21% + (12%) + 26% + (5%))/6 =10.17 %

Average rate of return= 10.17 %

Geometric return = 9.23%

Answer:

$1.57/BP

Explanation:

Calculation for the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract.

Using this formula

Futures price =Spot exchange rate×(1+Risk-free rates in United States/1+Risk-free rates in United Kingdom

Let plug in the formula

Futures price=$1.60×(1.04/1.06)

Futures price= $1.60×(0.9811)

Futures price=$1.57/BP

Therefore the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract to prevent arbitrage opportunities will be $1.57/BP.

Is gradually declining.

Answer:

Correct Answer:

c) Cutting prices is no gaurantee of success. Indeed if the firm does capture more market share and customers, then their costs will go up and it will be harder for them because they will have lower profit margins - if they can earn any profit at all.

Explanation:

An oligopoly market is a market form wherein a market or industry is dominated by a small group of large sellers. A pure monopoly maximizes profits by producing that quantity where marginal revenue = marginal cost. however, it is much more difficult for an oligopoly to determine at what output it can maximize its profit.

Answer:

Correct Answer:

B. Mortgage Bonds

Explanation:

Since residential and commercial real estate market is expected to be strong for a number of years, the best investment would be a mortage bond.

A mortgage bond is a bond in which holders have a claim on the real estate assets put up as its collateral. The lender might sell a collection of mortgage bonds to an investor, who then collects the interest payments on each mortgage until it's paid off. If the mortgage owner defaults, the bondholder gets her house.

Answer:

Bank Certificate of Deposit (CD)

Explanation:

For the 65-year old widow in this scenario, the best recommendation would be a Bank Certificate of Deposit (CD). A traditional Bank CD is a time-bound deposit, in which you enter into an agreement to let the bank use your money for a fixed period of time, and in return, the bank pays you a higher interest rate than it would for a traditional savings account. Thus providing a good income with very low risk.

Answer:

The question is incomplete, below is a possible match of the complete question:

a company purchased property for a building site. the costs associated with the property were:

purchase price $175,00

real estate commisions $15,000

legal fees 800

expenses of clearing the land 2,000

expenses to remove old building 1,000

what portion of these costs should be allocated to the cost of the land and what portion should be allocated to the cost of the new building?

Answer:

cost allocated to land = $193,800

cost allocated to new building = $0

Explanation:

The expenses associated with the ost of land purchase are all the necessary expenses made in the purchase of the land and in getting the land ready for use. These include legal fees, cost of clearing the land, cost of removing old structures etc. Therefore cost allocated to land is calculated as follows:

cost of land = purchase price + real estate commissions + legal fees + expenses of clearing the land + expenses to remove old building.

cost of land = 175,000 + 15,000 + 800 + 2,000 + 1,000 = $193,800

∴ cost of land = $193,800

cost of new building = $0

There is no transaction associated directly with setting up the new building, all the costs were associated with the acquisition of the land, hence the cost os the new building is $0

Answer:

Cash payback method

Explanation:

Cash payback technique is a method used by financial experts to analyse capital projects to see which ones they can invest in and which one to avoid.

This method is used to estimate the time it will take for a project to recoup the original cost of investment. It estimated when a business will payoff initial cost and start giving the investor profit.

Cash payback is easy to calculate

Cash payback = (Initial investment) ÷ (Estimated cash inflows each year)

Shorter cash payback is favourable as the investor gets back initial cost in a shorter period.

Answer:

The infant industry argument says that Question 7 options:

tariffs should be imposed to allow a new industry in a country to get established.

Explanation:

The argument for the infant industry protectionism suggests that the imposition of tariffs on imports gives a new industry in the country the required breathing space it requires to develop, grow, and be established before it can face competitive forces from outside, which imports imply.  Since newly formed industries often do not command the economies of scale and learning experience that their competitors from other countries may have, therefore, they need to be singularly shaded from external competition until they have achieved similar economies of scale and learning curve.  But, can they attain any competitive edge without learning from competitors?

Answer:

decreased

Explanation:

if firms have decreased then it would be likely to follow other firms to increase popularity

Oligopoly firms will seldom change prices but if one firm increases its price, others may follow if costs have Decreased.

A market structure known as an oligopoly has a limited number of enterprises, none of which can prevent the others from having a large impact. The market share of the major companies is calculated using the concentration ratio.

A market with a monopoly has only one producer, a duopoly has two businesses, and an oligopoly has three or more businesses. The maximum number of firms in an oligopoly is unknown, but it must be low enough so that each firm's actions have a significant impact on the others.

In the past, oligopolies have existed in the steel industry, the oil industry, the railroad industry, the tire industry, grocery store chains, and the wireless industry. An oligopoly can prevent new competitors from entering the market, stifle innovation, and raise prices, all of which are detrimental to consumers.

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Answer:

$-2,801.13

Explanation:

Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.  

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator  

Cash flow in year 0 = $-210,000

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 2 = 0

Cash flow each year from year 3 to 12 = $46,000.

I = 12%

NPV = $-2,801.13

To find the NPV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a. NAV of the fund is

= (Portfolio amount - liabilities) ÷ (outstanding shares)

= ($200 - $3) ÷ ($5)

= $39.40

b. The premium or discount as a percent of NAV is

= (Price - net asset value) ÷ (net asset value)

= ($36 - $39.40) ÷ ($39.40)

= -0.086

This represents the discount of 8.6%

We applied the above formulas

Answer: fall; rise

Explanation:

The real interest rate is the rate of interest that is received by an investor, lender or after inflation has been taken into consideration.

The real interest rate is when the inflation rate is deducted from the nominal interest rate. A reduction in the domestic real interest rate would cause a fall in net exports and a rise in the exchange rate.

Answer:

The "TAO" approach to digital marketing stands for the way through which digital marketers can make themselves heard in the digital world in the midst of all the digital noise. He believed that, apprenticeships is the best way.

This offers the person a great way to gain both knowledge and experience while getting paid at the same time. For example,there are more and more apprenticeship bodies someone can engage with like The Juice Academy and Arch Apprentices.

Explanation:

Answer: A. Preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities.

Explanation:

Outsourcing is the practice whereby organizations hire an outside party to help do certain functions wguvg could have been done by the workers in the organization but outsourced in order to focus on other production areas.

Out of the options given in the question, the one which is not a benefits of outsourcing, whether domestically or internationally, value chain activities presently performed in-house is that "preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities".

Preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities is not benefits of outsourcing, hence option A is correct.

Outsourcing is the process of hiring an outside party to assist with some duties that might have been performed by employees within the firm but were outsourced in order to focus on other areas of production.

"Preventing a company from hollowing out its technical know-how, competencies, or capabilities" is not a benefit of outsourcing, whether domestically or internationally, value chain tasks now conducted in-house.

Thus, the option A is correct.

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Answer:

Option d. Fixed period

Explanation:

time is very essential. Anytime the policy owner specifies payment to be guaranteed for a specific period regardless of who is the beneficiary, policy owner or who receive the payment,is the fixed period settlement option.

Anything that occur  to annuity after the owner's death is dependent on the type of annuity and its payout plan.

A fixed-period,  is that which is for a certain period of time. the annuity guarantees payments to the annuitant for a set length of time. example is about  10, 15, or 20 years and case payments will continue to be paid to the beneficiary until the time given or  period is due or when  account’s balance reaches zero.

Answer:

The most important technique for project evaluation is the net present value (NPV) which compares the present value of discounted cash flows against the  initial costs associated with the project. The other two most important techniques used are the payback period (either regular or discounted) and the internal rate of return (IRR).

Depending on the company's needs, sometimes one technique might be used instead of others. E.g. technological firms generally use the payback period because most of their projects have a very short life, 1 or 2 years. Other times, you might have to compare different projects and even if they are not mutually exclusive, no company can dispose of money freely. It only invests in certain projects that have a minimum required rate of return.

But the basic technique, the NPV, is the most relevant in a sense that no project with a negative NPV should be accepted.

Answer: d. inflationary; decrease government purchases or increase taxes

Explanation:

Suppose Real GDP is $700 billion and Natural Real GDP is $620 billion. To eliminate this inflationary gap, Keynesian theory indicates that government should decrease government purchases or increase taxes.

The Real GDP is greater than the Natural real GDP which is the potential GDP. When that happens the Economy is said to be overheated and producing above its limits as Aggregate Demand is above Aggregate Supply.

To combat this the Government according to Keynes should embark on policy that will reduce economic activity. The Government can use Contractionary Fiscal Policy that will see it reduce its spending and/or increase taxes. Both of these will have the effect of reducing the amount of money in the economy left for both investment and consumption and cause a fall in the Aggregate Demand.

Answer:

a. $1,525 million

b. 1.50 times

c. 29 %

Explanation:

Working capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

                          = $4,575 million - $3,050 million

                          = $1,525 million

Current Ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities

                       = $4,575 million ÷ $3,050 million

                       = 1.50 times

Debt to Asset ratio = Interest bearing  Debt / Total Assets × 100

                               = ($ 5,670 - $3,050) / $9,000 × 100

                               = 29 %

Answer:

                            HANNON COMPANY

                           Assembly Department

           Manufacturing Overhead Cost Responsibility Report

                     For the Month Ended April 30,2017

Controllable Cost     Budget$   Actual$   Difference$   Remark  

Indirect materials       14,200       13,700         500         Favourable

Indirect Labor             19,100        19,900       -800         Unfavourable

Utilities                        11,400        12,100        -700         Unfavourable

Supervision                 4,600        4,600           0                 None

Total                            49,300       50,300    -1,000       Unfavourable

Answer and Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

Bad debts expense Dr, $2,000

          To Accounts receivable-Hopkins $2,000

(Being write off is recorded)

Here we debited the bad debt expenses as it increased the expenses and we credited the accounts receivable as it reduced the assets so that the proper posting could be done  

Answer:

a. Current Ratio for the current year = 1.18

b. Current Ratio for the preceding year = 0.97

c. Quick Ratio for the current year = 0.98

d. Quick Ratio for the preceding year = 0.76

e. Working Capital for the current year = $3,231

f. Working Capital for the preceding year = –$513

Explanation:

Based on the information provided in the question, we first state the following formula to be used before answering the question:

Current asset = Cash and cash equivalents + Short-term investments, at cost + Accounts and notes receivable, net + Inventories + Prepaid expenses and other current assets ................... (1)

Current liabilities = Short-term obligations + Accounts payable ................. (2)

Current ratio = Current assets / Current liabilities ............................ (3)

Quick Ratio = (Current assets - Inventory) / Current liabilities ............... (4)

Working capital = Current assets - Current Liabilities ........................... (5)

We now calculate the answers as follows:

a. What is the Current Ratio for the current year?

Using equation (1), we have:

Current asset for the current year (in millions) = $8,297 + $422 + $7,041 + $3,581 + $1,479 = $20,820

Using equation (2), we have:

Current liabilities for the current year (in millions) = $4,815 + $12,774 = $17,589

Using equation (3), we have:

Current ratio for the current year = $20,820 / $17,589 = 1.18

b. What is the Current Ratio for the preceding year?

Using equation (1), we have:

Current asset for the preceding year (in millions) = $4,067 + $458 + $6,912 + $3,827 + $2,377 = $17,641

Using equation (2), we have:

Current liabilities for the preceding year (in millions) = $6,205 + $11,949 = $18,154

Using equation (3), we have:

Current ratio for the preceding year = $17,641 / 18,154 = 0.97

c. What is the Quick Ratio for the current year?

Using equation (4) and calculations from part a, we have:

Quick Ratio for the current year = ($20,820 -  3,581) / $17,589 = 0.98

d. What is the Quick Ratio for the preceding year?

Using equation (4) and calculations from part b, we have:

Quick Ratio for the preceding year = ($17,641 - 3,827) / $18,154 = 0.76

e. What is the Working Capital for the current year?

Using equation (5) and calculations from part a, we have:

Working Capital for the current year = $20,820 -  $17,589 =$3,231

f. What is the Working Capital for the preceding year?

Using equation (5) and calculations from part b, we have:

Working Capital for the preceding year = $17,641 - $18,154 = –$513

Answer: allows a firm to reap the competitive advantage benefits of skills transfer, lower costs (due to economies of scope), cross-business use of a powerful brand name, and/or cross-business collaboration in creating stronger competitive capabilities.

Explanation:

Related diversification is when an organization expands its business by producing products which are similar to what it currently produces. In related diversification, there's identical product lines. An example is a computer manufacturer producing calculators.

Organizations that go into related diversification enjoys lower costs and competitive advantage over their counterparts.

Answer:

Denver Company

Income Tax Expense for the second quarter:

Pre-tax quarter income = $140,000

Estimated tax rate = 24%

Tax Expense = $140,000 x 24%

= $33,600

Explanation:

a) Data:

Quarter    income before tax        estimated tax rate

first                 $100k                          30%

second           $140k                          24%

b) Denver's quarter second income tax expense is the product of the pretax income for the second quarter and the estimated income tax rate for the quarter.  The resulting calculation shows the estimated income tax expense that has to be settled by Denver.  If it is not settled in the quarter second period, it has to be carried forward to the next quarter as a liability under the heading, Income Tax Payable.