Mr. Lloyd wants to buy a new television, but he does not have enough money in his bank account to pay for one. Which of these is NOT an option for Mr. Lloyd? OPTIONS:
F
He can use his credit card to buy the television now.
G
He can save money and pay cash for the television at a later date.
H
He can use his debit card to buy the television now.
J
He can save money and use his debit card to buy the television at a later date.

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

Becuase his backyard is 15 square yards.

Answer:

3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

5/8 - 1/4

L.C.M =8

5-2=3

=3/8

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

H = V/lw

H = 984/20.5*6

H = 984/128

H = 8

ANSWER:

H = 8

Answer: 22.9

Step-by-step explanation: Perimeter of a triangle is the sum of all side lengths, in this case, 4, 5, and 13.9, and the sum is 22.9. Hope this helps, and have a great day!

Answer:

22.9 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Domain of given function is set of real numbers

Answer:

I believe the answer would be 1575 cubic inches. Sorry if i'm wrong!

Answer:

The answer is 7 square in

Step-by-step explanation:

Do this formula

V=Bh

105=15h

h=7 square in

Answer:

400:1

Step-by-step explanation:

800:2

800/2:2/2

400:1

Answer:

x=158

Step-by-step explanation:

109=-x+267

-267     -267

-158=-x

x=158

(also i noticed part of your question says x=(?)*5 and 31.6*5 is 158 so that would be 31.6)

Answer:

-3x^2+17x-1

Step-by-step explanation:

a) 640.32 cm^3

b) 98.4 cm^3

(3.14) × 2^2 × 12 = 150.72 cm^3

We need to find the height of the base so we use the Pythagorean theorem.

5^2 + x^2 = 14.1^2

25 + x^2 = 198.81

x^2 = 173.81

x = 13.184

After finding height, we can use the equation for a normal triangular prism:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × Base × Height × Length

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 13.184 × 10 × 12= 791.04cm^3

Total Volume: 791.04 - 150.72 = 640.32 cm^3

[tex]\frac{4}3[/tex] × 3.14 × 1^3 = [tex]\frac{314}{75}[/tex]cm^3

0.5([tex]\frac{4}3[/tex]× 3.14 × 3^3) = 56.52cm^3

5^2 = 3^2 + h^2

25 = 9 + h^2

16 = h^2

h = 4

(3.14) × 3^2 × [tex]\frac{4}{3}[/tex] = 37.68 cm^3

Total Volume = 98.4 after rounding

Answer:

No, there is not sufficient evidence to support the claim that the bags are underfilled

Step-by-step explanation:

A manufacturer of potato chips would like to know whether its bag filling machine works correctly at the 434 gram setting.

This means that the null hypothesis is:

[tex]H_{0}: \mu = 434[/tex]

It is believed that the machine is underfilling the bags.

This means that the alternate hypothesis is:

[tex]H_{a}: \mu < 434[/tex]

The test statistic is:

[tex]z = \frac{X - \mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}[/tex]

In which X is the sample mean, [tex]\mu[/tex] is the value tested at the null hypothesis, [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the standard deviation and n is the size of the sample.

434 is tested at the null hypothesis:

This means that [tex]\mu = 434[/tex]

A 9 bag sample had a mean of 431 grams with a variance of 144.

This means that [tex]X = 431, n = 9, \sigma = \sqrt{144} = 12[/tex]

Value of the test-statistic:

[tex]z = \frac{X - \mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}[/tex]

[tex]z = \frac{431 - 434}{\frac{12}{\sqrt{9}}}[/tex]

[tex]z = -0.75[/tex]

P-value of the test:

The pvalue of the test is the pvalue of z = -0.75, which is 0.2266

0.2266 > 0.01, which means that there is not sufficient evidence to support the claim that the bags are underfilled.

Answer:

y-intercept (0,-5) and AOS x = -4

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the y-int make x = 0 so f(0) = -5

The axis of symmetry (AOS) can be found by the equation x = -b/2a

So AOS = -8a / 2a, so AOS = -4 since b=8a and a = a

Answer:

i got 20 weeks. i divided 180 by 9 and i got 20. i'm not sure if it's what you're looking for, but i hope it helps.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9 & 27

Step-by-step explanation:

since all prime numbers above 5 end in 1,3,7 and 9then to find a prime number between say 70 and 80 the only possibilities are 71,73,77,79

Answer:

9 & 27

Step-by-step explanation:

Plz mark as Brainliest...

Step-by-step explanation:

Let a be the price of 1 adult ticket.

Let c be the price of 1 child ticket.

given,

[tex]6a + 2c = 124[/tex]

as equation 1,

and

[tex]3a + 5c = 100[/tex]

as equation 2.

Now we will solve for a and c using elimination method of simultaneous equations.

Now we multiply equation 2 by 2 to eliminate a and solve for c.

[tex]3a \times 2 + 5c \times 2 = 100 \times 2 \\ 6a + 10c = 200[/tex]

This new equation will be equation 3.

Now we will use equation 1 - equation 3 to eliminate a and solve for c.

[tex](6a - 6a) + (2c - 10c) = 124 - 200 \\ 0 + ( - 8c) = - 76 \\ - 8c = - 76 \\ c = - 76 \div - 8 \\ = 9.5[/tex]

Now substitute c into equation 2.

[tex]3a + 5(9.5) = 100 \\ 3a + 47.5 = 100 \\ 3a = 100 - 47.5 \\ 3a = 52.5 \\ a = 52.5 \div 3 \\ = 17.5[/tex]

Therefore one adult ticket will cost $17.50 and one child ticket will cost $9.50.

Answer:

B. 300

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's take the entire number as 'x'

according to the question,

x * 64% = 193

x * 64/100 = 193

x * 64 = 193 * 100

x = 19300/ 64

x = 301.5

round down to 300

Answer:

$1120 and $280.

Step-by-step explanation:

$1400 = 125%

100% = $1120

The cost of the price was $1120.

$1400 - $1120 = $280.

The profit was $280.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

53

Step-by-step explanation:

Because

Answer:

i love fishing!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The probability of a property being sold is independent of any other property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

12 properties

This means that [tex]n = 12[/tex]

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that [tex]p = 0.5[/tex]

Compute the probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

This is:

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0002[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0029[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0161[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{12,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{9} = 0.0537[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{8} = 0.1208[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = C_{12,5}.(0.5)^{5}.(0.5)^{7} = 0.1934[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = C_{12,6}.(0.5)^{6}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.2256[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.0002 + 0.0029 + 0.0161 + 0.0537 + 0.1208 + 0.1934 + 0.2256 = 0.6127[/tex]

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Answer:

C. 75 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

75

Step-by-step explanation:

guys i guessed

Answer:25 if your looking for the number of ways to order 5 objects

Step-by-step explanation:

If your looking for the probability of 1 number the ways for it to be arranged l believe It is 5x5 hope this helps

Answer:

I can't see clearly

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]6^{2}+8^{2}=x^{2} \\36+64=x^{2} \\100=x^{2} \\x=10[/tex]

13.76

Divide 27.52 by 2 to get 13.76