Answer: Dorsal.
Explanation:
The neural plate is a region of the dorsal ectoderm that develops into the neural ectoderm. It is a flat structure, with columnar appearing cells, and the formation of the neural ectoderm is the first step in the neurulation process. This region is generated from the thickened mid-dorsal surface opposite the primitive line of the ectoderm. From this epithelial zone the various types of neuronal and glia cells belonging to the nervous system are derived. For the neural plate to be built, it is necessary that the epiblast cells converge towards the midline of the embryonic disc forming a groove of the primitive line, delimiting a longitudinal axis of bilateral symmetry around which the embryonic structures and their organs will be aligned. From this moment on, the embryo will have a rostral (cephalic) and caudal (tail) region as well as a left and right side and a dorsal (back) and ventral (front) surface. From the folding of the neural plate or neurulation, the neural tube and the development of the entire nervous system will be formed.
The neural tube is tubular structure that undergoes modifications and will give rise to a central nervous system structure (encephalon and spinal cord). The neurulation process begins by means of signals sent by the dorsal mesoderm and pharyngeal endoderm to the ectodermal cells located above these germ layers. These signals cause this area of the ectoderm to elongate into a columnar plate of cells. The elongation allows the differentiation of the cells of the future neural plate, with respect to the pre-epidermal cells surrounding the area.
So, the neural tube is formed by invagination from the dorsal region of the ectoderm (neural plate) induced by the notochord while it is forming. This occurs at the beginning of the third week of conception by a process called neurulation.
The catabolic pathways that degrade fatty acids do not generate ATP directly, but produce NADH and acetyl-CoA.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
b.False
Explanation:
A stem cell is
A. A specialized cell that can divide limitlessly but cant differentiate
B. A specialized cell that can divide limitlessly.
C. An unspecialized cell that cant divide limitlessly nor differentiate into specialized cell.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
They divide to form more cells called daughter cells under proper conditions
hi can u Help me in my hw, Define the following terms:1)Epicenter 2)Seismograph(don't answer if u don't know the answer plz)
Answer:
Epicenter is the point on Earth's surface directly above the focal point of the earth quake.
Actually it's above the hypocenter.
Seismograph: Is an instrument that records the seismic waves caused by action of earth quake effect.
In butterflies, having red antennas (denoted by “R”) is dominant to having white antennas (denoted by “r”). If both parents are heterozygous for red antennas, what are the predicted Phenotypic outcomes of their offspring? (hint: a punnett square will help you determine this).
In butterflies, having red antennas (denoted by “R”) is dominant to having white antennas (denoted by “r”). If both parents are heterozygous for red antennas, what are the predicted Genotypic outcomes of their offspring? (hint: a punnett square will help you determine this).
All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and an orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes. What is the expected F2 phenotypic ratio of a cross between two F1 black-eyed mendeliens?
A) 1 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed
B) 3 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed
C) 1 black-eyed:3 orange-eyed
D) 1 black-eyed:0 orange-eyed
The phenotypic ratio of the cross is as follows: 3 red antennas: 1 white antenna
For question 2, the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation is: 3 black-eyed: 1 orange-eyed
QUESTION 1
According to the first question, a gene coding for antenna color in butterflies is involved. Red antennas (“R”) is dominant to white antennas (“r”). Hence, a butterfly with genotype "Rr" will be phenotypically red.
According to this question, If both parents are heterozygous for red antennas i.e. Rr (red antenna) × Rr (red antenna), the following gametes will be produced: R and r. Using these gametes in a punnet square (see attached image), the following phenotypic ratio of offspring is produced:
3 RED ANTENNAS (RR, Rr, Rr) : 1 WHITE ANTENNA (rr)
2. In the second question, all the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien (BB) and an orange-eyed mendelien (bb) have black eyes (Bb). In a cross between two F1 black-eyed mendeliens i.e. Bb × Bb, the following proportion of offspring is produced:
BB, Bb, Bb, bb
Hence, a phenotypic ratio of 3 black-eyed: 1 orange-eyed
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Sequence three probable steps of fossil fish formation?
Answer:
鱼类和鱼形动物的区别主要在于口与鳃结构的基本不同
Explanation:
The second generation of purebred cross of -hom-ozygo us recessive organism, with a —hom-ozygous dominant organism, contain a ratio of approximately _______ expressed dominant traits to recessive traits.
A. 2:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:3
D. 3:1
Answer:
D. 3:1
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel, in one of his numerous studies, performed a cross between purebred dominant (TT) pea plants and purebred recessive (tt) pea plants. All the offsprings of this cross appeared heterozygous tall (Tt) in the F1 generation.
However, when he self-crossed the F1 generation i.e. Tt × Tt, Mendel obtained a phenotypic ratio of 3 tall plants (dominant traits) : 1 short plant (recessive). This showed that the masked gene (recessive) was still present.
Which graph represents selection that may lead to reduced variation in a population?
A graph has trait value on the horizontal axis and population of individuals on the vertical axis. The original population and population after selection have similar curves, but the original population peaks before the population after selection.
A graph has trait value on the horizontal axis and population of individuals on the vertical axis. The population after selection increases, decreases, increases, and then decreases again. The original population increases at the point that the original population drops.
A graph has trait value on the horizontal axis and population of individuals on the vertical axis. The original population peaks at the same time as the population after selection but the population after selection peaks higher and at a more rapid speed.
A graph has trait value on the horizontal axis and proportion of individuals on the vertical axis. The original population and population after selection have similar curves but the original population is slightly higher at all points.
Answer:
A graph has trait value on the horizontal axis and population of ... selection have similar curves, but the original population peaks
Answer: graph B
Explanation: :)
As you read in this chapter, fungi have long formed symbiotic associations with plants and with algae. How may these two types of associations lead to emergent properties in biological communities
Answer:
Fungi show symbiotic association with algae and plants. With plants, they thrive as endophytes in a form of the symbiotic association. This symbiotic association results in the emergence of novel characteristics in the world of biology.
The lichens function as a tool in finding the quality of air, as they grow in the environment containing good air quality. The tolerance towards heat is another characteristic. Some of the endophytes are witnessed in the plants, which grow in very hot conditions.
At such conditions, no fungi or plant can thrive, however, in the symbiotic association, they possess the tendency to thrive. If one tries to separate them, it results in the death of both.
Explanation:
Which statement is not true about the field of science?
it is based on observations and explanations of the natural world.
You are right with your answer please
Actual Question:
Which statement about the purpose of the field of science is false? (1 point)
Science is used to investigate the natural world.
Events of the natural world can be explained by science.
Science works to establish a collection of unchanging truths.
Useful predictions come from derived explanations of science.
Answer:
Science works to establish a collection of unchanging truths.
Explanation:
I took the test
PLS HELP ASAP
ILL GIVE BRAINLY
Contrast the usefulness of absolute and relative dating techniques.
Answer:
In relative dating, fossils are dated according to the depth at which they were buried While in the absolute dating, isotopes of carbon are used for dating fossils. The absolute dating is more precise than relative dating because it tells the exact age of the fossils.
Mr. L was walking through the woods wearing shorts and sandals. He noticed a small tick on his ankle the same evening, and several weeks later he developed flu-like symptoms. A sample of his blood revealed the presence of long, wavelike cells that were twisting and waving. Based on the microscopic findings, which type of microorganism is responsible for Mr. L's symptoms
Answer:
Protozoa
Explanation:
The long, wavelike cells seen under the microscope would most likely be protozoa and the microorganism responsible for Mr. L's symptoms.
Tick as a vector is capable of causing diseases such as lyme disease, anaplasmosis, babesiosis, Powassan virus disease, tularemia, and a host of other diseases. Among all the diseases, babesiosis is particularly caused by a protozoan known as Babesia microti and it elicits malaria-like symptoms in individuals. Most of the other diseases are caused by bacteria pathogens while a few are caused by virus.
Apart from the above, the morphological characterization of the microorganism responsible for Mr. L's disease is typical for protozoans. Many of them are long and flagellated with a wave-like motion as a movement.
Hence, the case of Mr. L would be that of protozoa.
The haptoid condition for a human ?
A/
-Both 46 chromosomes & 2n are correct.
-2n
B/
-Neither 46 chromosomes 2..nor 2n are correct.
C/
-46 chromosomes
haploid means there is 23 pair of chromosome but have n ploidy
What does the QRS complex represents as??
Answer:give me brainliest
Explanation:
A combination of the Q wave, R wave and S wave, the “QRS complex” represents ventricular depolarization. Ventricular depolarization occurs in part via an accessory pathway (AP) directly connecting the atrium and ventricle and thus capable of conducting electrical impulses into the ventricle bypassing the AV-His Purkinje conduction system.This term can be confusing, as not all ECG leads contain all three of these waves; yet a “QRS complex” is said to be present regardless.
Explanation:
QRS complex represents as ventricular depolarisation
1. Sensation is to as perception is to a. vision, olfaction b. conscious, unconscious c. awareness, interpretation d. taste, vision.
Answer:
opt (c)
Explanation:
Lymph ______ are found throughout the body and are a signal of a disease, infection, or problem if they become and remain swollen for long periods of time.
______ are pathogens that cannot be killed with antibiotics because they are non-living. They take over cellular organelles to replicate and spread.
Because they are also eukaryotes with their own cell membranes and membrane-bound organelles, ______ are often difficult to combat with medicines.
A cell signal called ______ is produced by mast cells. These molecules cause more fluid to spread to an infected area.
_______ are the types of cells that produce antibodies.
All pathogens have unique identifying molecules on their surfaces called ______. Antibodies bind to these, and targeting the pathogen to be destroyed by the immune system.
______ is a non-specific response to disease, in which the body temperature rises
Answer:
nodes
Viruses
fungi
histamine
B-cells
antigens
Fever
When a paper cut breaks the skin, it introduces outside microorganisms into the cut. The body recognizes the break in the skin. Mast cells produce histamines, which cause more blood and lymph fluid to flow to the wound. This increased flow brings phagocytic white blood cells to the area, which destroy invading organisms until the blood can clot and the skin can heal over the cut, preventing more organisms from entering the body. If a cut is too deep or too wide, special care such as stitches and antibiotics could be needed to prevent infection.
Explanation:
PENNFOSTER !
For each of the following structures, first indicate its function in the fetus; then, note its fate (what happens to it or what it is converted to after birth).
a. Umbilical artery
b. Umbilical vein
c. Ductus venosus
d. Ductus arterious
e. Foramen ovale
Answer:
1. Functions:
a. Umbilical artery >> carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
b. Umbilical vein >> transports oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus
c. Ductus venosus >> allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver
d. Ductus arterious >> allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus's non-functioning lungs
e. Foramen ovale >> oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to bypass the pulmonary circulation
2. After the bird:
1. Umbilical artery >> medial umbilical ligament
2. Umbilical vein >> round ligament of the liver
3. Ductus venosus >> ligamentum venosum
4. Ductus arteriosus >> ligamentum arteriosum
5. Foramen ovale >> fossa ovalis
Explanation:
The umbilical artery is a paired artery localized in the abdominal and pelvic regions, which carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical cord. The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated part of the umbilical artery that arises from the internal iliac arteries. In utero, the umbilical arteries carry waste products back to the placenta, whereas the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. The round ligament of the liver (also known as ligamentum teres hepatis) is a remnant of the umbilical vein that exists in the embryonic stage, it connects the left lobe of the liver to the umbilicus. The ductus venosus is a slender shunt that allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver, it connects the intra-hepatic portion of the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The ligamentum venosum is an extrahepatic, slender, and fibrous remnant of the fetal ductus venosus that travels between the left portal vein and the inferior vena cava. The ductus arteriosus is a fetal artery that connects the aorta to the pulmonary artery. The ligamentum arteriosum is a nonfunctional vestige of the ductus arteriosus, it is attached to the superior surface of the pulmonary trunk. The foramen ovale is an oval-shaped, small, opening in the wall (septum) between the two upper chambers of the heart. The fossa ovalis is a vestige stricture of the foramen ovale of the embryonic heart, which forms a depression in the right atrium of the heart.
what gender of offspring are most often affected by sextinked inheritance?-What gender-are-usmally-carriers-of the trait?
-males, males
-males, females
-females, females
-females, males O O
Answer:
female, female
Explanation:
this is because sex-linked characters are normally borne in the X-chromosome
what is uropoiesis?
Answer:
The production and excrection of urine
Answer:
The production and excretion or urine.
What type of factors would have the
greatest influence on a densely
populated area?
A. drought
B. density-dependent factors
C. density-independent factors
When an outbreak of foot and mouth disease is discovered among livestock in a country, what is MOST likely the chosen way to control it?
Answer:
You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth. To lessen your chance of getting sick, don't touch your eyes, nose, and mouth with unwashed hands.
You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth. To lessen your chance of getting sick, don't touch your eyes, nose, and mouth with unwashed hands.
What are the mechanism that use to resist the antimicrobial agents?There has been several mechanisms, like resistance to antimicrobial agents, encapsulation or secretation of proteins that affects and might destroy the phagocyte along with some leukocytes in our body perform phagocytosis as a defense mechanism against the pathogenic bacterium.
These phagocytes contain lysosomes, intracellular granules that possess bactericidal substances. When the phagocyte ingests the pathogen, a phagosome is formed, which merges with the lysosome, forming the phagolysosome, which is where toxic substances and enzymes kill the ingested microorganism.
There are several mechanisms by which a microorganism can survive this process as resistance to antimicrobial agents. Some bacteria use phenolic glycolipids from their cell wall, to eliminate toxic oxygen compounds.
Therefore, You can get infected with hand, foot, and mouth disease if you have the virus on your hands and then touch your eyes, nose, or mouth.
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According to Sandel, when companies companies attempt to incentivize employees to quit smoking:__________
a) It never works.
b) There are no data on this incentive scheme.
c) It tends to work.
d) Employees tend to return to smoking when the incentive ends.
Answer:
employees tend to return to smoking when the incentive ends
Explanation:
because employees love to smoke on breaks and they are addicted to smoking.
6. Compare the different measurements of the thermometer which are used.
Why can viruses not fit in any domain? How are they different from all other forms of Life? What would need to occur for viruses to be classified as "alive"?
Answer:
virus are obligate parasites. Viruses do not, however, carry out metabolic processes. Most notably, viruses differ from living organisms in that they cannot generate ATP.
Which is a compound that allows plants to get nitrogen from the nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Plants can use ammonia as a nitrogen source. After ammonium fixation, the ammonia and ammonium that is formed will be transferred further, during the nitrification process. Aerobic bacteria use oxygen to convert these compounds.
A ______, such as a bean, has two seed leaves.
Answer:
A dicotyledonous plant
hope this helps you
Which is our body part help us to maintain balance.
Answer:
cerebellum
Explanation:
The cerebellum is a small part of the brain positioned at the back of the head, where it meets the spine, which acts as the body's movement and balance control centre.
please mark me as brainliest
Tai không chỉ có vai trò để lắng nghe mà còn hỗ trợ trong việc giữ cân bằng
PLEASE HELP ME!!!! I am stuck.
The frequency of tasters and nontasters of PTC varies among populations. (Answer ALL questions)
- In population A, 94 percent of people are tasters (an autosomal dominant trait)
and 6 percent are nontasters.
- In population B, tasters are 75 percent and nontasters 25 percent.
- In population C, tasters are 91 percent and nontasters are 9 percent.
1. Calculate the frequency of the dominant (T) allele for PTC tasting in population A.
2. Calculate the frequency of the recessive (t) allele for nontasting in population A.
3. Calculate the frequency of the dominant (T) allele for PTC tasting in population B.
4. Calculate the frequency of the recessive (t) allele for nontasting in population B.
5. Calculate the frequency of the dominant (T) allele for PTC tasting in population C.
6. Calculate the frequency of the recessive (t) allele for nontasting in population C.
7. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the TT frequency in population A.
8. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the Tt frequency in population A.
9. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the tt frequency in population A.
10. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the TT frequency in population B.
11. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the Tt frequency in population B.
12. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the tt frequency in population B.
13. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the TT frequency in population C.
14. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the Tt frequency in population C.
15. Assuming that Hardy-Weinberg conditions apply, determine the tt frequency in population C.
Answer:
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fk.ydj.td.jtd.sjtd
ktdfylluflyfulgñugñugñugñuguñgpi
Explanation:
hhm y chupapico
Scenario 1:
Genetic engineering can be used to create more productive strains of farm animals used for milk and meat production. By adding genes to an animal’s DNA, the animal can be made to be more resistant to common infections. This can reduce the need to administer large doses of antibiotics to the animals.
Do you think that this type of genetic engineering should be pursued? Explain your answer. (5 points)
What are some possible impacts (positive and negative) of this type of genetic engineering on individuals, society, and the environment? (5 points)
Scenario 2:
Mike was adopted, and his biological family history is unknown. Although he is healthy, he would like some understanding of his genetic makeup, including potential health risks and genes that he could pass on to his children. Mike has heard about commercial laboratories that can compare segments of your DNA to those of people with common hereditary diseases in order to give you some idea of how susceptible you are to the diseases. The results of these types of tests are highly inconclusive. If Mike’s DNA showed that he shares similarities in a segment of DNA with people who have a given disease, his chances of developing that disease or passing it on to his children may be slightly elevated, but they are not 100 percent. These tests can cost more than $2,500 and are not covered by many insurance companies.
Do you think that Mike should undergo the genetic tests? Explain your answer. (2 points)
What are potential pros and cons of having such tests done? (5 points)
Describe how the availability of these genetic tests might affect the frequency of genetic diseases in individuals and populations. (3 points)
Due to brainly not accepting my essay, I have instead included a image of it. :D
The large number of alveoli in lungs improve gas exchange by ________. increasing the surface area for diffusion decreasing the distance for diffusion changing the diffusion constant increasing the concentration difference
Answer:
Explanation:
The large number of alveoli in lungs improve gas exchange by . increasing the surface area for diffusion
15. Assuming the fluorescence threshold is set to be 1. Which gene has the highest gene expression rate? What is the Ct value? Gene with highest expression = ______________ Ct value = _______________
Answer:
The correct answer is - Gene 1 and 14.5 (or 14).
Explanation:
The cycle threshold is denoted as Ct value. It is the cross point at the threshold line meets with fluorescence signal reaction curve. In the given RTpcr experiment, the threshold line is fluorescence intensity 1 thus, Ct value for each gene will be the point at which each curve meets the fluorescence intensity line at 1. Ct value of is inversely proportional to amount of nucleic acid in the given sample.
Here, the Ct for gene 1 is the lowest, so the amount of DNA would be highest.
Gene with highest expression= Gene 1
Ct value= 14.5
