Order the following steps in water purification, from the collection of water to the production of clean drinking water, to test your understanding of water purification in applied microbiology.

Answers

Answer 1

1 - Water in reservoir for storage and sedimentation

2 - Water in holding tanks for settling and aeration

3 - Filtration through coal and sand beds

4 - Chemical disinfection with chlorine

The process of removing unwanted chemicals, biological contaminants, suspended solids, and gases from water is known as water purification. The goal is to create water that is suitable for specific uses. The majority of water is purified and disinfected for human consumption (drinking water), but water purification can also be used for medical, pharmacological, chemical, and industrial purposes.

Water purification methods have varied throughout history. Physical processes such as filtration, sedimentation, and distillation are used; biological processes such as slow sand filters or biologically active carbon are used; chemical processes such as flocculation and chlorination are used; and electromagnetic radiation such as ultraviolet light is used.

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Related Questions

Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?
A. They have eukaryotic cells.
B. They are multicellular animals.
C. Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
D. All are parasites.
E. They are heterotrophic.

Answers

Answer: D. All are parasites.

Explanation:

He only talk about parasitic worms not all are parasites!

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the arch of the aorta?
a. It begins and ends at the same transverse level.
b. It passes over the root of the left lung.
c. The ligamentum arteriosum connects to the superior aspect of the arch at its most superior point.
d. It gives rise to the left common carotid artery posterior to the manubrium.
e. It may give rise to an artery that directly supplies the thyroid gland.

Answers

At the arch's highest point, the ligamentum arteriosum attaches to the superior side of the arch. From the left pulmonary artery's root to the aorta's inferior arch surface, the ligamentum arteriosum travels.

Option C is accurate.

The aortic arch has which of the following branches?

The brachiocephalic artery, rather than being a direct branch of the aorta, gives rise to the right subclavian artery (which branches from the arch of the aorta).

What exactly is the aorta's arched portion?

By way of the brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid, and left subclavian artery, the aortic arch, a portion of the aorta, aids in supplying blood to the head and upper extremities.

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miriadel has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. which of these is a key characteristic of their eating disorder?

Answers

As miriadel has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa that is a key characteristic of their eating disorder is that you either eat a lot or not.

Repeated episodes of ingesting abnormally massive quantities of meals in a single sitting. Feeling a lack of manipulate in the course of bingeing — such as you can not forestall ingesting or can not manipulate what you eat. Forcing your self to vomit or workout an excessive amount of to hold from gaining weight after bingeing.

The man or woman frequently engages in both self-precipitated vomiting, use of laxatives or diuretics, strict weight-reduction plan or fasting, or lively workout to save you weight gain. 4. A minimal common of binge-ingesting episodes every week for at the least three months.

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transduction refers to conversion of

Answers

Answer:

one form of energy into another

Explanation:

A horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics.

She knows that the trait of red flowers is governed by the allele R (RR and Rr) and the trait

of white flowers is governed by the alleler (rr).

The horticulturalist crosses two geraniums from the F1 generation.

Look at the Punnett square to see this cross.

R

Rr

RR Rr

Rr

rr

Which ratio of red-to-white flowering plants would she expect to see in the phenotypes of the F2

generation?

Answers

A horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics. The horticulturalist crosses two geraniums from the F1 generation is RR and Rr = Red flower

White flower, rr

When a gene wants to produce geraniums it must has a homozygous state, both alleles are either dominant or recessive. One allele is recessive while the other allele is dominant in a heterozygous situation. Allele: An organism's version of a gene for a particular trait. Predict all conceivable genotypes. Example of a Punnett square where R is used to represent the alleles. The Punnett square would be as follows if a homozygous red flower geranium (RR) and homozygous white flower geranium (RR) were crossed:

R R

r Rr Rr

r Rr Rr

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what is the morphology of your bacteria labster

Answers

The morphology of the bacteria labster is referred to as a gram-negative bacillus and is denoted as option A.

What is Bacillus?

This is used to describe an entire class of bacteria and it is characterized by the rod-shape which can be seen when they are observed under a microscope in the laboratory. They are involved in various purposes ranging from industrial uses to being causes of different types of diseases.

The bacteria which is referred to as labster is unicellular and microscopic in nature and it is also an example of a gram negative bacteria which is therefore the reason why option A was chosen as the correct choice.

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The options are:

a) Gram-negative bacillus.

b) Gram-positive bacillus.

c) Gram-positive coccus.

d) Gram-negative coccus.

what is the complete hemoglobin molecule composed of

Answers

The complete hemoglobin molecule is composed of the following below:

Polypeptide chains (globins)Heme groupsIron ions.

What is Hemoglobin?

This is referred to as a type of protein which is present in the red blood cells of almost all organisms and it comprises of heme groups and iron ions which ensures that it functions adequately in the body system.

It has a very high affinity for oxygen and is responsible for binding and transporting it to different parts of the body such as the brain, legs etc so as to prevent cell death which makes it a very important compound in the circulatory system.

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redraw this tree, rotating the branches around branch points 2 and 4. does your new version tell a different stroy about the evolutionary relationships between the taxa

Answers

A phylogenetic tree is a graph that depicts the evolutionary relationships between species. Phylogenetic trees are speculations, not absolute truths.

A phylogenetic tree's branching pattern indicates how species or other groupings emerged from a common ancestor.

A phylogenetic tree is a visual representation of the evolutionary connections between various creatures. Phylogenetic trees are theories rather than proven truths.A phylogenetic tree's branching structure illustrates how many species or other groupings developed from a number of common predecessors.In trees, two species are more closely related if they have a recent common ancestor and less closely related if they do not.Different comparable styles can be used to depict phylogenetic trees. The information that a tree contains is unaffected by rotating it around its branch points.

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DNA sequence analysis shows that whales _____ A. have almost identical genomes. B. have less sequence homology between them than horses and cows. C. have a mutation in their limb genes that prevents them from producing limbs at all. D. have more sequence homology with each other than they do with other mammals.

Answers

DNA sequence analysis shows that whales have almost identical genomes A.

What is DNA sequence analysis ?

DNA sequence analysis can be defined as the  process of subjecting a DNA, RNA  sequence to any of a wide range of analytical methods to understand its features or evolution.  Sequences analysis from different organisms can be compared for evolutionary analysis between species, DNA sequencing can reveal changes in a gene that may cause a disease. One of the common type of DNA profiling today for criminal cases and other types of forensic uses is called "STR" (short tandem repeat) analysis.

Therefore DNA sequence analysis can be used to reveal changes in a gene that may cause a disease.

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Anaerobic conditions will most likely be generated in a natural water system with?.

Answers

Anaerobic situations will maximum possibly be generated in a herbal water gadget with low degrees of dissolved oxygen (DO) this is infected through pollution with excessive biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) values.

The required details for Anaerobic conditions in given paragraph

Anaerobic situations arise while the uptake or disappearance of oxygen is extra than its manufacturing through photosynthesis or diffusion through bodily shipping from the encompassing surroundings. Oxygen is typically fed on through microbial respiratory on account of the provision of natural material.  Two examples of obligate anaerobes are Clostridium botulinum and the bacteria which stay close to hydrothermal vents at the deep-sea ocean floor. Aerotolerant organisms, which can't use oxygen for growth, however tolerate its presence. Facultative anaerobes, which could develop with out oxygen however use oxygen if it's miles present.  

Most anaerobes require an surroundings with a low oxidation-discount potential (Eh gradient), which may be finished in affiliation with low pH, tissue destruction, byproducts from cardio bacterial metabolism, or low oxygen content.

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classify the effector muscle involved in the response to the stretch reflex being tested by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

Answers

Patellar reflex: Quadriceps femoris, Calcaneal reflex: Gastrocnemius and Soleus, Biceps reflex: Biceps brachii, Triceps reflex: Triceps brachii, Plantar reflex: Gastrocnemius, Soleus and Flexor digitorum longus.

A reflex is an uncontrollable movement that happens very instantly in reaction to stimuli. The reflex, which happens through a reflex arc, is an involuntary reaction to a stimulus that doesn't require or receive conscious cognition. Before an impulse reaches the brain, reflex arcs respond to it. examines descending motor pathways, motor nerves, synaptic connections in the spinal cord, and afferent nerves. Reflexes are suppressed by lower motor neuron lesions (such as those that damage the anterior horn cell, spinal root, or peripheral nerve) and are increased by upper motor neuron lesions. The amount of CNS damage may be determined by stimulating the abdominal reflex, which is done by massaging the belly.

The complete question is:

Classify the effector muscle involved in the response to the stretch reflex being tested by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

(A). Patellar reflex:

(B). Calcaneal reflex:

(C). Biceps reflex:

(D). Triceps reflex:

(E). Plantar reflex:

The options are Quadriceps femoris, Soleus, Biceps brachii, Triceps brachii, Gastrocnemius, Soleus, and Flexor digitorum longus.

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catabolic pathways _____.

Answers

include converting complicated molecules into smaller ones through a process known as degradation.

What is the catabolic route used for?

Nutrient molecules are broken down into useable forms by catabolic pathways (Food: A, B, C) (building blocks).In the this process, energy would either be released as heat or is stored into usable energy for later use.

What sort of catabolic route is that?

The breakdown of food by several enzymes so it can be taken by small bowel is an illustration of a catabolic response.

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In the Calvin cycle, ____ and ___ bring chemical energy from the light-dependent reactions. Here, the enzyme ____ catalyzes carbon fixation as a molecule of ____ from the _____ is attached yo a 5-carbon sugar called ____.

Answers

In the Calvin cycle, ATP and NADPH bring chemical energy from the light-dependent reactions for enzyme RUBISCO catalyzes carbon fixation as a molecule of carbondioxide from the atmosphere is attached to a 5-carbon sugar called RUBP.

What is Calvin cycle?

Calvin cycle is a series of biochemical reactions that take place in the stroma of chloroplasts in photosynthetic organisms.

Calvin cycle is also called light-independent reactions or dark reactions because it does not require light to occur. The light dependent reaction produces ATP and NADPH that serves as energy carrier and electron carrier respectively.

The Calvin cycle occurs in three stages as follows:

In fixation, which is the first stage of the Calvin cycle, CO2 is fixed from an inorganic to an organic molecule.

In the second stage called reduction, ATP and NADPH are used to reduce 3-PGA into G3P; then ATP and NADPH are converted to ADP and NADP+, respectively.

In the last stage of the Calvin Cycle, RuBP is regenerated, which enables the system to prepare for more CO2 to be fixed.

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The K-selection reproductive strategy maximizes the survival of offspring by producing
a. few offspring with high levels of parental care
b. few offspring with low levels of parental care
c. many offspring with high levels of parental care
d. many offspring with low levels of parental care

Answers

The survival of offspring by producing few offspring with low levels of parental care.

Is it paternal or parental?

Family law is complex, and it's important to understand the distinction between parental rights and paternal rights. Simply put, paternity is the determination of a child's father, while parental rights are given to the legal parents of the child.

Why is parental important in human?

The importance of parenting arises from its role as a buffer against adversity (such as poverty or delinquent influences) or mediator of damage (as in child abuse). Parenting usually involves biological parents but is not confined to them. Carers, teachers, nurses, and others fulfil parenting tasks with children.

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where would you find iron regulatory protein (irps)? group of answer choices cytosol nucleus mitochondria golgi apparatus

Answers

Similar to how iron is imported and transported within cells, mitochondrial iron import and transport are tightly controlled, careful processes intended to prevent undesired.

Which of these are hollow rods that help the cell form and are supported?

The third main component of the cytoskeleton, microtubules, are hard, hollow rods with a diameter of around 25 nm. Microtubules are dynamic, constantly assembling and disassembling within the cell, much like actin filaments.

What form does the packaging and modification of proteins take?

Figure 1: Proteins are modified and organized for transport within the cell by the Golgi apparatus. In cells, the Golgi apparatus and ER are frequently found together.

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which symbol depicts an oxidizing reagent?

Answers

A circle with flames on top of it. (Hazard Sign)

An oxidizing agent is usually denoted by the letters "ox" or "oxide". In chemical equations, this symbol is often used to denote substances or conditions that act as oxidizing agents and accept electrons from other species during redox reactions.

A chemical that aids in oxidation by taking electrons from another species is known as an oxidizing reagent (or oxidizing agent). The term "oxidation" describes a process when a substance loses electrons, increases its oxidation state, or experiences a chemical change where electrons are transferred to a different species. Typically, oxidizing agents are chemicals that are reduced during the process. They have a tendency to take up electrons, whatever causes them to take up electrons and become oxidized.

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Place the following organs in the appropriate body cavity.

Answers

The abdominal depression, which is girdled by the caricatures and pelvis and houses the feathers, ureters, stomach, bowel, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas, and the pelvic depression, which is girdled by the pelvis and houses the bladder, anus, and reproductive system, can be separated from the abdominopelvic depression.

What about the body cavity?The internal organs, or viscera, are set up in the depressions or gaps of the body.The frontal and rearward depressions are the names of the two primary depressions.The diaphragm, a pate- shaped respiratory muscle, divides the frontal depression, which is the largest depression, into the thoracic and abdominopelvic depressions.The frontal depression and rearward depression are the two biggest fleshly depressions in humans.The anterior( or front) of the box is where the frontal depression is located.The thoracic depression and the abdominopelvic depression are divisions of it.The head and the reverse of the box are located in the rearward depression, which is located in the posterior( or back) of the body.A fleshly depression is an area of the body that's filled with fluid and serves to house and guard internal organs.Membranes and other structures divide the colorful fleshly depressions in humans.The frontal depression and the rearward depression are the two biggest fleshly depressions in humans.Lower fleshly depressions are resolved between these two body depressions.The topmost concave area in the body is the abdominal depression.Its lower limit is the upper airplane of the pelvic depression, and its upper hedge is the diaphragm, a distance of muscle and connective towel that divides it from the casket depression.

The given question in the portal is incomplete. The complete question is given below.

Place the following organs in the appropriate body cavity.

A. Thoracic

B. Abdominopelvic

C. Spinal

D. Cranial

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how are art and conservation science connected in this sculpture?

Answers

Answer: the artist was repurposing materials to create a variety of different masterpieces

Temperature regulation
Match the descriptions of temperature regulation with the correct term.
A. Depend on external heat sources to warm their bodies. ectotherms
B. Depend on own metabolically generated heat to warm their bodies. endotherms
C. Maintain body temperature within a narrow range. homeotherms
D. Body temperature varies with the environment. heterotherms

Answers

Mammals regulate their body temperature carefully and independently of their environment through a process called thermoregulation.

Does the body temperature of ectotherms fluctuate?

Animals that often have a body temperature similar to their immediate environment are referred to as "ectotherms." They are unable to control their body temperature internally.

What four bodily functions regulate body temperature?

Similar to how the respiratory, muscular, integumentary (skin and related components), and circulatory systems collaborate to support the body in maintaining a constant internal temperature.The skin's blood vessels expand in response to a rise in body temperature, allowing more blood to flow near the skin's surface.

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early hominin species, such as ardipithecus ramidus and australopithecus afarensis, evolved during the late epoch.

Answers

The earliest hominin species (such as Australopithecus) evolved during the late Pliocene epoch.

The geologic period known as the Pliocene spans from 5.333 million to 2.58 million years ago. In the Cenozoic Era, it is the second and most recent epoch of the Neogene Period.

The Miocene Epoch is followed by the Pliocene, which is then followed by the Pleistocene.

Despite being a brief epoch, the Pliocene saw enormous occurrences including the formation of ice caps, the drying of the Mediterranean, and the union of the Americas.

From a biogeographic perspective, this period is distinguished by the dramatically modernisation of animals.

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TRUE/FALSE. when testing waterways for contamination with fecal matter which pathogen is often used as an indicator species

Answers

When testing waterways for contamination with fecal matter E.coli is often used as an indicator species.

Define pathogen.

Virulence, the degree to which the disease symptoms are severe, is used to describe a pathogen, which is an organism that causes disease in its host. Viruses, bacteria, unicellular and multicellular eukaryotes, as well as other taxonomically varied organisms, make up the diverse group of organisms known as pathogens.

Bacteria known as Escherichia coli, or simply E. coli, are present in the environment, food, and intestines of both humans and animals. There are many different types of E. coli bacterium. While the majority of E. coli strains are not harmful, there are those that can. Some strains of E. coli can cause diarrhea, while others can cause pneumonia, respiratory disorders like flu, and urinary tract infections, among other illnesses.

Stool from people and animals can contaminate groundwater and surface water, including streams, rivers, lakes, and water used for crop irrigation. Even though municipal water supplies use ozone, UV light, or chlorine to kill E. coli, certain E. coli outbreaks have been connected to tainted water supplies.

Private water wells are more of a worry because many of them lack a means of water sanitization. The likelihood of polluted water is highest in rural areas. Some people have contracted E. coli after swimming in lakes or pools that were tainted with feces.

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Fault trees are an approach to hazard analysis that, for each identified hazard, break down that hazard to find how that hazard can occur.The hazard is placed at the root of the tree and the causes of the hazard are identified; Each of these causes is then further broken down and analysed until the fundamental software or hardware behavior that leads to these causes is identified.

Answers

Hazards are placed at the root of the tree and determining the cause of the hazard is the correct option for the following hazard analysis questions.

Fault Tree Analysis (FTA) explores how selected “top” faults (abnormal conditions) or fault events such as accidental/unwanted releases of hazardous materials can be resolved to their causes. Hazard analysis is defined as the process of gathering and interpreting information about the hazards and conditions leading to their existence in order to determine what is food safety related and must be addressed in the HACCP plan. Hazard analysis is used as the first step in the risk assessment process. The result of hazard analysis is the identification of different types of hazards. A hazard is a potential condition that may or may not exist.

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social monogamy is characteristic of: group of answer choices baboons chimpanzees orangutans gibbons

Answers

Social monogamy is characteristic of gibbons. Monogamy refers to a social group that includes adult men, adult women, and their offspring.

Is monogamy in mammals natural and why are gibbons called monogamous??Of course, monogamy exists in nature, as do women seeking multiple partners. But nature seems to be pushing things towards polygamy in our evolutionary branch. Only 9% of mammalian species are monogamous. Only 29% in primates. Male and female gibbons are considered monogamous. They mate for life, forming families that stay together until the offspring grow up and leave the home. A couple's bond is strengthened by the time they spend grooming each other.Is monogamy a very common social strategy for primates?

Monogamous Family Groups: This group pattern is most common in humans, but rare in nonhuman primates. It occurs among small Asian apes and some New World monkeys and monkeys.

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The 150-million-year-old Archaeopteryx has many characteristics associated with birds, such as feathered wings. It also has characteristics associated with living reptiles. Which of the following characteristics is present in both Archaeopteryx and most living reptiles?wings supported by elongated fourth digitsclaws on the ends of each digit and a long bony tailthe presence of a beak with no teethlarge size and the ability to fly

Answers

The characteristics common to living reptiles and Archaeopteryx are: Long, bony tail and claws on the ends of each digit.

Archaeopteryx is the extinct species that belonged to the genus of bird-like dinosaurs. It is also known by the name Urvogel. Some of its characteristics are: a set of teeth, long bony tail, flat sternum, three claws on the wings, etc.

Claws are the arched narrow structures that emerge out from the digit of birds and reptiles. Claws are useful in the catching, holding and eating of food. They can also be used as protection from the enemies. Birds also used them for walking, perching, and swimming.

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plant material (leaves, stems, trunks) in oxygen-poor swamps are buried for a geologically long time. the result is

Answers

Plant material (leaves, stems, trunks) in oxygen-poor swamps are buried for a geologically long time. the result is Coal.

Coal is a combustible black or brownish-black sedimentary rock that forms in the form of rock strata known as coal seams. Coal is primarily composed of carbon, with trace amounts of other elements such as hydrogen, sulfur, oxygen, and nitrogen.

Coal is mostly made up of carbon and hydrocarbons, both of which contain energy that can be released during combustion (burning). Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel in the United States and the world's largest source of energy for generating electricity. The remains of ancient organisms are used to create fossil fuels.

Coal-fired power plants provide affordable, dependable, and consistent power on demand to meet energy consumption needs. Because much of the world lacks access to modern, clean energy, coal remains critical to alleviating global energy poverty.

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TRUE/FALSE. he walls of lymphatic capillaries are composed of endothelium. lymphatic capillaries are highly permeable. fluid flows in one direction in lymphatic capillaries. lymphatic capillaries are dead-end tubes.

Answers

The walls of lymphatic capillaries are composed of endothelium. lymphatic capillaries are highly permeable. fluid flows in one direction in lymphatic capillaries. lymphatic capillaries are dead-end tubes.

TRUE

What is lymphatic capillaries?

Lymphatic capillaries (CAP-uh-lair-eez), also called lymphatic capillaries, are small blood vessels found throughout the body. A capillary is a small tube with an inner diameter as thin as a hair.

Lymphatic capillaries are similar to capillaries, but larger in diameter and closed at both ends. Unlike capillaries, fluid in lymphatic capillaries can flow, but cannot drain through the cell wall. It can only move forward.

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Which of the following is FALSE about trabecular bone? Select one: a. comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton b. porous and spongy in composition c. very sensitive to changes in hormones and nutritional deficiencies d. very rapid turnover

Answers

comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton

Option A is correct answer.

What is trabecular bone?

In order to offer an indirect assessment of trabecular microarchitecture on lumbar spine DXA images, the trabecular bone score (TBS) is a novel gray-level textural analysis. In ex vivo studies, it has been demonstrated to be strongly correlated with CT measurements of connection density, trabecular number, and trabecular separation. 45–47 A dense trabecular network resulting from a high TBS value is linked to improved bone strength, whereas a low TBS value is linked to worse bone structure. TBS has the benefit of being performable in previously obtained DXA images from GE Lunar and Hologic  Discovery, Delphi, and Horizon) instruments. 46,48 TBS has the advantage of being accessible from DXA images with the application of appropriate software.

The spinal column and the ends of the long bones contain trabecular bone, which has a sophisticated three-dimensional architecture and covers the entire interior vertebral space. Age-related alterations in the trabecular structure, cause osteoporosis. More dangerously, it will cause femoral head osteonecrosis. The disease ONFH is widespread in both children and adults. An artificial joint's useful life cannot exceed the patient's lifetime.

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Which of the following is special feature of the NMDA glutamate receptor? A The NMDA receptor is clogged with Mg ion that can only be dislodged by strong postsynaptic dcpolarization: B. NMDA receptor allows Ca2+ to enter the cell C. Bound glutamate does nothing if the postsynaptic membrane is nOt depolarized cnough D. AlI choices are correct

Answers

AlI choices are correct, which is a unique property of the NMDA glutamate receptor.

Explain about the NMDA?

According to this traditional theory, NMDARs are ideal coincidence detectors in Hebbian learning because glutamate and depolarization are needed to release NMDARs from their magnesium block and allow them to flux calcium, which causes long-term potentiation (LTP) of synaptic connections.

Mechanistically, antagonist-mediated blocking of the NMDA receptor (hypo functioning) results in excessive excitatory neurotransmitter release (glutamate and acetylcholine) in various brain regions, which in turn causes hyperstimulation of postsynaptic neurons and the subsequent induction of psychotic conditions.

Other glutamate receptors are distinguished from NMDA receptors by a number of distinctive characteristics, such as voltage-dependent inhibition by external Mg2+, high Ca2+ permeability, and the requirement for binding of two coagonists, glutamate and glycine, for channel activation.

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in a genetics experiment, a fruit fly heterozygous for long wings and a gray body is crossed with a vestigial winged, black bodied fruit fly

Answers

Long wings (L) are dominant, vestigial wings (L) are recessive, gray bodies (G) are dominant, and ebony bodies (G) are recessive in fruit flies. Two long-winged, gray-bodied fruit flies were mating. These two parental flies have the genotype LlGg LlGg.

This suggests that the parent fly with the grey, short wings is heterozygous for body color and the parent fly with the black, large wings is heterozygous for wing length. As a result, the long-winged fly with black genotype is ggLl whereas the genotype of the grey, short-wing parent is Ggll.

Because these genes are connected, the offspring of two heterozygous gray-bodied, normal-winged flies should be 50% gray-bodied/normal wings (BbRr) and 50% black-bodied/vestigal wings (bbrr).

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which of the following is not a step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells? view available hint(s)for part e which of the following is not a step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells? secretion of perforin secretion of granzyme activation of b cells recognition of infected host cell using its tcr

Answers

Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein is not the step used by cytotoxic t cells to kill infected host cells.

What are cytotoxic T cells?

One of the primary categories of immune cells made in your thymus are cytotoxic T-cells. Your helper T-cells trigger the cytotoxic T-cells when you are infected. CTLs work to combat the virus. A crucial component of your adaptive immunity are these T-cells.

Immune cells include cytotoxic T-cells. They eliminate virus-infected cells. Killer T-cells is another term for cytotoxic T-cells.

Cytotoxic One of the three primary cell types produced in your thymus are T-cells. In the front of your chest, there lies a little gland called the thymus. The other T-cell varieties consist of:

Helper T-cells, which stimulate the production of additional immune cells to combat infections.Regulatory T cells that, when necessary, inhibit other immune cells.

Function of cytotoxic T cells:

A structure termed a CD8 receptor can be found on the surface of cytotoxic T cells. To determine when healthy cells are infected, the CD8 receptor interacts with molecules on cells known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class I molecules.The cytotoxic T-cells are activated when the CD8 receptor detects an infected cell. Cytotoxic T-cells produce chemicals that are intended to eradicate the infection.

Hence, Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein  is the correct answer.

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What is the only way thatany two humans couldhave identical DNA?A. if they are relatedB. if they are twins thisC. if they have the same genetic diseaseD. if they came from the same mother Researchers grew seedlings of corn, Zea mays, in loose and compact sand. The researchers measured the amount of time required for the cells in the growing root tips of the seedlings to double in number. The mean cell doubling times for the two groups of seedlings are shown in Figure 1.Figure 1. Mean cell doubling times for the growing root tips of Zea mays seedlings planted in loose or compact sandBased on the sample means, which of the following conclusions about the cells in the growing root tips of Zea mays seedlings is best supported by the results of the experiment?answer choicesThe cells of the root tips grow to larger sizes when the seedlings are planted in compact sand than when the seedlings are planted in loose sand.The average rate of mitotic cell division is greater for the root tips growing in loose sand than for the root tips growing in compact sand.The average cell cycle time is greater for the root tips growing in compact sand than for the root tips growing in loose sand.More cells are produced per unit of time in the root tips growing in compact sand than in the root tips growing in loose sand. tryptophan hydrolysis results in Read through the following excerpt from "The Human Side of Animals" by Royal Dixon."No animal is better protected by nature from its enemies than the pichiciago, whose scientific name is chlamyphorus truncatus. This strange little mantle-bearer wears a coat of mail which is as flexible as the human-made coats of armour of olden times, and he is as safe under its cover, which allows him perfect freedom, as if he were under the ground. He is about the size of the ordinary mole, and his general habits are not unlike those of the mole. He is an underground-dweller, with enormous fore-paws, palm-shaped, upon which are five powerful claws. These he uses to great advantage in digging in the earth for insects and for building his home. He has a small snout, reminding one of that of a pig; while his piercing little eyes are deeply hidden in his fur. He is a native of Chile, and because of his shy nature and subterranean habits is rarely seen.The most interesting feature about this little creature is the cuirass which so perfectly protects his body. Its formation and arrangement is quite unusual; it appears like a number of squared plates of horn, tightly united to short strips of tape, which are sewed together. The cuirass is not connected with the entire body of the animal, but only on the top of the head and along the spine. It covers the entire back, and when it reaches the tail, turns downward, forming a perfect flap, which protects the hindquarters."Identify the text structure in this passage.A Cause and effectB ChronologicalC DescriptionD Sequence bernard bunter is seen today for an acute myocardial infarction. bernard had to have a coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed, which was done without difficulty. two days later, bernard developed post-op anemia. bernard also has hypertension and congestive heart failure. which of the conditions is a co-morbidity: A 8 kg body moves towards the west with a momentum of 30 kg m s. A 20 N force to the east acts on the body for a period of 15 s. Determine the magnitude of i) the impulse of the force. ii) the change in the momentum of a body. iii) the final momentum of the body. iv) the final velocity of the body, [5 marks] Which statement accurately describes evolution?A. Evolution cannot occur without genetic drift.B. Evolution cannot occur without natural selection.C. Evolution is the change in the genetic makeup of a population over time.D. Evolution occurs when favorable adaptations are passed on to future generations. Skeletal muscle tissue is found near the bones of the skeleton. These muscles are controlled by the nervous system and allow movement to occur. Smooth muscle tissue is predominantly found in the inner lining of many organs, such as the stomach and intestinal tract. Smooth muscle tissue allows organs to contract on their own. Cardiac muscle tissue is found in the heart. Cardiac muscle also contracts on its own, and it helps the heart beat properly. This information shows that. Two lasers are shining on a double slit, with slit separation d. Laser 1 has a wavelength of d/20, whereas laser 2 has a wavelength of d/15. The lasers produce separate interference patterns on a screen a distance 5.10 m away from the slits.Which laser has its first maximum closer to the central maximum?Ans: laser 1What is the distance Image for Two lasers are shining on a double slit, with slit separation d. Laser 1 has a wavelength of d/20, whereas las between the first maxima (on the same side of the central maximum) of the two patterns? Your study used negative reinforcement to determine whether people can learn to reduce anxiety in your study, what was the response that you sought to strengthen and was the stimulus you attempted to reduce or remove. What was the purpose of Frederick Douglass 4th of July speech? TRUE/FALSE. one disadvantage of alternative dispute resolution is the amount of time it takes to reach an agreement. Why is Hamlet a tragic hero essay? pls sum one help me write thisit has to be written like a postcard what did theodore rossevelt mean to compare his policy to a hand of cards Which of the following statements are reasons why a monopolistic competitor is likely to engage in advertising?I. To create a greater perception of product differentiation in the minds of potential consumersII. To shift the demand curve for its product rightward.III. To convey information about the product it is offering for sale.A. I onlyB. II onlyC. III onlyD. I,II, and III Does an isosceles triangle have 3 acute angles? A college student has budgeted $25 a month for phone services. If the telephonecompany charges $17 a month for basic service and $0.05 a minute for each longdistance call, how many minutes can be spent on long distance calls each month?(Define a variable, create an equation, solve using algebra, and answer in a sentence.) In the context of data management, _____ refers to all the occurrences sharing the same types of data.a.encapsulationb.metadatac.schemad.entity Which of the following accurately describes ^18 O / ^16 O ratios of the oceans? Because ^18O evaporates more readily than ^16O. the oceans have a higher relative abundance of ^16O during the summer. The ^18O/^16O ratio in the ocean is low during the winter because temperatures are too low for ^16O to evaporate During the winter. ^16O is high in the ocean; during warmer periods the isotope ratio is lower The ratio of oceanic ^18O/^16O in the late summer is high, because the most of the ^16O has evaporated by then.