PLEASE HELP I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Please find attached photograph for your answer.

Hope it helps.

Do comment if you have any query.

Answer:

The value of A is 2

Step-by-step explanation:

F = 2 , B = 3 , K = 10

K = F( A + B )

10 = 2(A + 3)

10 = 2A + 6

Now, Subtract 6 from each side we get,

10 - 6 = 2A + 6 - 6

4 = 2A

2A = 4

Now, divide both side by 2 we get,

2A/2 = 4/2

A = 2

Thus, The value of A is 2

K = F( A + B )

10 = 2(2 + 3)

10 = 2(5)

10 = 10

L.H.S = R.H.S

Hence Proved!

-TheUnknownScientist 72

Answer: y = -5/2 -17

Step-by-step explanation: First put the equation in point slope form

Y-y1 = m(x-x1)

y + 2 = -5/2(x+6) then simplify to slope int. form

Y= mx + b

Y = -5/2x-17

Answer:

y = (-5/2)x - 17

Step-by-step explanation:

y = mx + b

m = slope

b = y-intercept

y = mx + b

Slope = -5/2

y = (-5/2)x + b        [tex]\longmapsto\\[/tex]         Input x and y values from given point

-2 = (-5/2)-6 + b

-2 = (-5 * -6)/(2) + b

-2 = 30/2 + b

-2 = 15 + b

b = -2 - 15

b = -17

y = mx + b

m = -5/2

b = -17

y = (-5/2)x - 17

-Chetan K

-Chetan K

Answer:

P=5x3+17  P=32

Step-by-step explanation:

hmmmmhmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm

    This is because of the law of indices which says:

[tex]\sqrt[x]{n}[/tex]= [tex]x^{\frac{1}{m} }[/tex]

    So, if we have:

[tex]\sqrt{n}[/tex]

    Then the following will be true because of this math law:

[tex]n^{\frac{1}{2} }[/tex]

Side note: The m value can be greater than n and or less than n, but if it is equal the m and n values cancel out.

Have a nice day!

    I hope this is what you are looking for, but if not - comment! I will edit and update my answer accordingly. (ノ^∇^)

- Heather

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  a) a=1, b=4, c=-5

  b) opens up; a > 0

  c) minimum = -9, the y-value of the vertex

  d) x = -5, 1

  e) y = -5, the value of c

  f) (-2, -9)

Step-by-step explanation:

A graph drawn by a graphing calculator can answer all of these questions quickly and easily.

__

a) The values of 'a', 'b', and 'c' are the values of the coefficients of the terms in the function definition. They refer to the coefficients in the standard form:

  f(x) = ax^2 +bx +c

  f(x) = x^2 +4x -5 . . . . . . . your equation with a=1, b=4, c=-5

__

b) The parabola opens up. This is because the value of 'a' is greater than zero.

__

c) The minimum is the y-value of the vertex. When the function is written in vertex form it is ...

  f(x) = (x -h)^2 +k . . . . . . . . . . . vertex (h, k)

Your function can be put into this form:

  f(x) = x^2 + 4x +4 -5 -4 . . . . . . add and subtract 4 to complete the square

  f(x) = (x +2)^2 -9 . . . . . . . . vertex form. The vertex is (-2, -9).

The y-value of the vertex is -9, the minimum value of the function.

__

d) Solving f(x) = 0, you get ...

  (x +2)^2 -9 = 0

  (x +2)^2 = 9 . . . . . . . . add 9

  x +2 = ±√9 = ±3 . . . . . take the square root; next, subtract 2

  x = -2 ±3 = {-5, 1} . . . . . the x-intercepts

__

e) The y-intercept is f(0) = c = -5.

__

f) The vertex was found in part (c) to be (-2, -9).

Answer:

460 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

The y- intercept is the point on the y- axis where the line crosses it

Here the line crosses the y- axis at b = 4

Answer:

The trigonometric ratio that I would use to find the distance from the base of the tower to the keys is the tangent; tan (86°) = height / distance.

Step-by-step explanation:

You can draw a right triangle with angle 86°, opposite leg equal to the height (50 meter) and adjacent leg equal to the distance from the base of the tower to the keys: tan (86°) = 50 m / x

=> x = 50 m / tan(86°)

x = 50 m / 14.30 = 0.98 m

Answer:

1

a+1

es posible q hayan doble respuesta

Step-by-step explanation:

Pasos  

a+b/b

Divide b entre b para obtener 1.

da

d

​

(a+1)

La derivada de un polinomio es la suma de las derivadas de sus términos. La derivada de cualquier término constante es 0. La derivada de ax  

n

 es nax  

n−1

.

a  

1−1

Resta 1 de 1.

a  

0

Para cualquier término t excepto 0, t  

0

=1.

1

a+b/b

Divide b entre b para obtener 1.

a+1

Answer:

salamat po sa

points.

pa

Step-by-step explanation:

branlest

answer

po

Answer:

.05x+50=55

100 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

simplify

.05x=5 (subtract 50 on both sides)

5/.05=x

100=x

she can call for 100 minutes

Answer:

40%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

well its -2*-3-3 so

-2*-3 is 6-3 is 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The velocity of the particle at the first instance it is at the origin (approximately t ≈ 2.944) is approximately 16.885 units per time unit.

To find the velocity of the particle at the first instance it is at the origin, we need to find the value of t when x(t) = 0.

Since the particle is at the origin when x(t) = 0, we have:

[tex]0.5t^4 - 1.5t^3 - 2t^2 + 6t - 1 = 0[/tex]

Using numerical methods or graphing the equation, we find that the roots are approximately t ≈ -0.618, t ≈ 1.532, t ≈ 3.143, and t ≈ 2.944.

Since t > 0, the first instance the particle is at the origin corresponds to t ≈ 2.944 (the smallest positive real root).

Now, to find the velocity of the particle at this instance, we need to find the derivative of the position function x(t) with respect to time t, which gives us the velocity function v(t):

v(t) = dx/dt

[tex]v(t) = d/dt (0.5t^4 - 1.5t^3 - 2t^2 + 6t - 1)\\v(t) = 2t^3 - 4.5t^2 - 4t + 6[/tex]

Now, we can find the velocity at t ≈ 2.944:

[tex]v(t = 2.944) = 2(2.944)^3 - 4.5(2.944)^2 - 4(2.944) + 6[/tex]

v(t ≈ 2.944) ≈ 16.885

So, the velocity of the particle at the first instance it is at the origin (approximately t ≈ 2.944) is approximately 16.885 units per time unit.

learn more on velocity :

https://brainly.com/question/29290259

#SPJ4

Answer:..

Step-by-step explanation:..

Answer: 350000

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this helps :) (if wrong please make sure next time add answer that can be picked from it better or if theres no answers maybe give some more detail?)

Answer:

You'd get 25.3333 or you could also express 76/3 as a mixed fraction: 25 1/3.

                         ↑  

                  the arrow pointing shows what the remainder means

remainder is the one which is down

Answer:

your answer is 4+3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6/16

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 6 chances for it to be a double success out of a total 16 tries

Answer:

17+5i

Step-by-step explanation:

add the like terms

double negative equals positive

;)

Answer:

17+i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1500

Step-by-step explanation:

1000×6÷4

250×6

1500

Answer:

answer is 4/5

Answer:

is no solution an answer choice cause thats what i got

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{16}{72}[/tex] ( divide numerator/ denominator by 8, the LCM of 16 and 72 )

= [tex]\frac{2}{9}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{18}{81}[/tex] (divide numerator/ denominator by 9 the LCM of 18 and 81 )

= [tex]\frac{2}{9}[/tex]

Both rational numbers simplify to [tex]\frac{2}{9}[/tex] and are equivalent

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

So if you multiply both the numerator and denominator by the same number, you get the initial number. Your goal here is to get the same denominator so that you can solve the problem easily! hope it helped!