Radio station WCCO in Minneapolis broadcasts at a frequency of 830 kHz. At a point some distance from the transmitter, the magnetic-field amplitude of the electromagnetic wave from WCCO is 4.82×10-11 T.A) Calculate the wavelength.B) Calculate the wave number.C) Calculate the angular frequency.
D) Calculate the electric-field amplitude.

Answer:

The amplitude [tex]A(5) = 1 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 100 \ N/m[/tex]

      The  damping constant is  [tex]b = 8.0 *10^{-3} \ kg \cdot m/s[/tex]

       The mass is  [tex]m = 0.050 \ kg[/tex]

       The  maximum displacement is [tex]A_o = 1.5 \ m \ at t = 0[/tex]

       The  time  considered is  t =  5.0 s

Generally the displacement(Amplitude) of damped harmonic motion is mathematically represented as

           [tex]A(t) = A_o * e ^{ - \frac{b * t}{2 * m} }[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]A(5) = 1.5 * e ^{ - \frac{ 8.0 *10^{-3} * 5}{2 * 0.050} }[/tex]

         [tex]A(5) = 1 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

221 lines per millimetre

Explanation:

We know that for a diffraction grating, dsinθ =mλ where d = spacing between grating, θ = angle to maximum, m = order of maximum and λ = wavelength of light.

Since the grating is 42.0 cm from the screen and its first order maximum (m = 1) is at 6.09 cm from the center of the pattern,

tanθ = 6.09 cm/42.0 cm = 0.145

From trig ratios, cot²θ + 1 = cosec²θ

cosecθ = √((1/tanθ)² + 1) = √((1/0.145)² + 1) = √48.562 = 6.969

sinθ = 1/cosecθ = 1/6.969 = 0.1435

Also, sinθ = mλ/d at the first-order maximum, m = 1. So

sinθ = (1)λ/d = λ/d

Equating both expressions we have  

0.1435 = λ/d

d = λ/0.1435

Now, λ = 650 nm = 650 × 10⁻⁹ m

d = 650 × 10⁻⁹ m/0.1435

d = 4529.62 × 10⁻⁹ m per line

d = 4.52962 × 10⁻⁶ m per line

d = 0.00452962 × 10⁻³ m per line

d = 0.00452962 mm per line

Since d = width of grating/number of lines of grating

Then number of lines per millimetre = 1/grating spacing

= 1/0.00452962

= 220.77 lines per millimetre

≅ 221 lines per millimetre since we can only have a whole number of lines.

Answer:

A. h = 2.15 m

B. Pb' = 122 KPa

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a)  Let us assume the depth be h

As we know that

[tex]Pb - Pat = d \times g \times h \\\\ ( 119 - 101) \times 10^3 = 856 \times 9.8 \times h[/tex]

After solving this,  

h = 2.15 m

Therefore the depth of the fluid is 2.15 m

b)

Given that  

height of the extra fluid is

[tex]h' = \frac{2.35 \times 10^{-3}}{ area} \\\\ h' = \frac{2.35 \times 10^{-3}} { 66.2 \times 10^{-4}}[/tex]

h' = 0.355 m

Now let us assume the pressure at the bottom is Pb'

so, the equation would be

[tex]Pb' - Pat = d \times g \times (h + h')\\\\Pb' = 856 \times 9.8 \times ( 2.15 + 0.355) + 101000[/tex]

Pb' = 122 KPa

(A)  The depth of the fluid is 2.14 m.

(B)  The new pressure at the bottom of container is 121972 Pa.

Given data:

The cross-sectional area of the container is, [tex]A =66.2 \;\rm cm^{2}=66.2 \times 10^{-4} \;\rm m^{2}[/tex].

The density of fluid is, [tex]\rho = 856 \;\rm kg/m^{3}[/tex].

The container pressure at bottom is, [tex]P=119 \;\rm kPa=119 \times 10^{3} \;\rm Pa[/tex].

The atmospheric pressure is, [tex]P_{at}=101 \;\rm kPa=101 \times 10^{3}\;\rm Pa[/tex].

(A)

The given problem is based on the net pressure on the container, which is equal to the difference between the pressure at the bottom and the atmospheric pressure. Then the expression is,

[tex]P_{net} = P-P_{at}\\\\\rho \times g \times h= P-P_{at}[/tex]

Here, h is the depth of fluid.

Solving as,

[tex]856\times 9.8 \times h= (119-101) \times 10^{3}\\\\h=\dfrac{ (119-101) \times 10^{3}}{856\times 9.8}\\\\h= 2.14 \;\rm m[/tex]

Thus, the depth of the fluid is 2.14 m.

(B)

For an additional volume of [tex]2.35 \times 10^{-3} \;\rm m^{3}[/tex] to the liquid, the new depth is,

[tex]V=A \times h'\\\\h'=\dfrac{2.35 \times 10^{-3}}{66.2 \times 10^{-4}}\\\\h'=0.36 \;\rm m[/tex]

Now, calculate the new pressure at the bottom of the container as,

[tex]P'-P_{at}= \rho \times g \times (h+h')\\\\\P'-(101 \times 10^{3})= 856 \times 9.8 \times (2.14+0.36)\\\\P'=121972 \;\rm Pa[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the new pressure at the bottom of container is 121972 Pa.

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Answer:

The  period is [tex]T = 0.00255 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  frequency is  [tex]f = 392 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally the period is mathematically represented as  

           [tex]T = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

=>       [tex]T = \frac{1}{ 392}[/tex]

=>       [tex]T = 0.00255 \ s[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Current in the same direction

 When current flow through to parallel conductors of a given length, when the current flows in the same direction

1. A force of attraction between the wires occurs and this tends to draw the wires inward

2. A magnetic field in the same direction is produced.

Current in opposite direction

when the current is in opposite direction

1. Force of repulsion between the two wires occurs, draws the wire outward

2. A magnetic field in opposite direction occurs

Answer:

Explanation:

To convert from °C to °F , the formula is

( F-32 ) / 9 = C / 5

F is reading fahrenheit scale and C is in centigrade scale .

F = 205 , C = ?

(205 - 32) / 9 = C / 5

C = 96°C approx .

Let us calculate the heat required .

Total heat required = heat required to heat up the ice at - 20 °C  to 0°C  + heat required to melt the ice + heat required to heat up the water at  0°C to

96°C.

=  5 x 2.04 x (20-0) +  5 x 336 + 5 x ( 96-0 ) x 4.2  kJ .

= 204 + 1680 + 2016

= 3900 kJ .

Answer:

[tex]\huge \boxed{\mathrm{Option \ D}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Two forces are acting on the object.

Subtracting 2 N from both forces.

2 N → Object ← 5 N

- 2 N                 - 2N

0 N → Object ← 3 N

The force 3 N is pushing the object to the left side.

The mass of the object is 10 kg.

Applying formula for acceleration (Newton’s Second Law of Motion).

a = F/m

a = 3/10

a = 0.3

Answer:

200cm

Explanation:

Answer:

100cm

Explanation:

Using

F= ( N/2L)(√T/u)

F1 will now be (0.5*2)( √600/0.015)

=> L( wavelength)= 200/2cm = 100cm

Answer:

The net energy transferred between two objects

Explanation:

The physical property of matter that expresses hot or cold is called temperature. It demonstrates the thermal energy. A thermometer is used to measure temperature. It defines the rate to which the chemical reaction occurs. It tells about the thermal radiation emitted from an object.

The correct option that defines temperature is option C.

Answer:

A measure of the movement of atoms or molecules within an object

Explanation:

Process of elimination

Answer:

The maximum height reached in the second trial is 16times the maximum height reached in the first trial.

Explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

First trial

Initial speed (u) = v

Final speed (v) = 0

Second trial

Initial speed (u) = 4v

Final speed (v) = 0

Next, we shall obtain the expression for the maximum height reached in each case.

This is illustrated below:

First trial:

Initial speed (u) = v

Final speed (v) = 0

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²

Height (h₁) =.?

v² = u² – 2gh₁ (going against gravity)

0 = (v)² – 2 × 9.8 × h₁

0 = v² – 19.6 × h₁

Rearrange

19.6 × h₁ = v²

Divide both side by 19.6

h₁ = v²/19.6

Second trial

Initial speed (u) = 4v

Final speed (v) = 0

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²

Height (h₂) =.?

v² = u² – 2gh₂ (going against gravity)

0 = (4v)² – 2 × 9.8 × h₂

0 = 16v² – 19.6 × h₂

Rearrange

19.6 × h₂ =16v²

Divide both side by 19.6

h₂ = 16v²/19.6

Now, we shall determine the ratio of the maximum height reached in the second trial to that of the first trial.

This is illustrated below:

Second trial:

h₂ = 16v²/19.6

First trial:

h₁ = v²/19.6

Second trial : First trial

h₂ : h₁

h₂ / h₁ = 16v²/19.6 ÷ v²/19.6

h₂ / h₁ = 16v²/19.6 × 19.6/v²

h₂ / h₁ = 16

h₂ = 16 × h₁

From the above illustrations, we can see that the maximum height reached in the second trial is 16times the maximum height reached in the first trial.

Answer:

The average density of the rod is 1.605 kg/m.

Explanation:

The average density of the rod is given by:

[tex] \rho = \frac{m}{l} [/tex]    

To find the average density we need to integrate the linear density from x₁ = 0 to x₂ = 3, as follows:

[tex] \int_{0}^{3} \frac{8}{3(x + 1)}dx [/tex]

[tex] \rho = \frac{8}{3} \int_{0}^{3} \frac{1}{(x + 1)}dx [/tex]   (1)

Using u = x+1  →  du = dx  → u₁= x₁+1 = 0+1 = 1 and u₂ = x₂+1 = 3+1 = 4

By entering the values above into (1), we have:

[tex] \rho = \frac{8}{3} \int_{0}^{3} \frac{1}{u}du [/tex]

[tex]\rho = \frac{8}{3}*log(u)|_{1}^{4} = \frac{8}{3}[log(4) - log(1)] = 1.605 kg/m[/tex]

Therefore, the average density of the rod is 1.605 kg/m.  

I hope it helps you!    

The average density of the rod is  [tex]1.605 \;\rm kg/m^{3}[/tex].

Given data:

The length of rod is, L = 3 m.

The linear density of rod is, [tex]\rho=\dfrac{8}{x+1} \;\rm kg/m[/tex].

To find the average density we need to integrate the linear density from x₁ = 0 to x₂ = 3,  The expression for the average density is given as,

[tex]\rho' = \int\limits^3_0 { \rho} \, dx\\\\\\\rho' = \int\limits^3_0 { \dfrac{m}{L}} \, dx\\\\\\\rho' = \int\limits^3_0 {\dfrac{8}{3(x+1)}} \, dx[/tex]............................................................(1)

Using u = x+1  

du = dx

u₁= x₁+1 = 0+1 = 1

and

u₂ = x₂+1 = 3+1 = 4

By entering the values above into (1), we have:

[tex]\rho' =\dfrac{8}{3} \int\limits^3_0 {\dfrac{1}{u}} \, du\\\\\\\rho' =\dfrac{8}{3} \times [log(u)]^{4}_{1}\\\\\\\rho' =\dfrac{8}{3} \times [log(4)-log(1)]\\\\\\\rho' =1.605 \;\rm kg/m^{3}[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the average density of the rod is  [tex]1.605 \;\rm kg/m^{3}[/tex].

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Answer:

Inertia! I hope this helps!

Answer:

inertia

Explanation

Inertia.

Answer:

No

Explanation:

Moon has no light of its own. It just shines because its surface reflects light from the sun and that's what we see.

:-)

Answer:

The correct option is  D

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  refractive index of oil film is [tex]k = 1.48[/tex]

   The  thickness is [tex]t = 290 \ nm = 290*10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

Generally for constructive interference

      [tex]2t = [m + \frac{1}{2} ]* \frac{\lambda}{k}[/tex]

For reflection of a bright fringe m =  1

 =>   [tex]2 * (290*10^{-9}) = [1 + \frac{1}{2} ]* \frac{\lambda}{1.48}[/tex]

=>     [tex]\lambda = 5.723 *10^{-7} \ m[/tex]

This wavelength fall in the range of a yellow light

Answer:

External force    W₁ = F L

Friction force    W₂ = - fr L

weight component   W₃ = - mg sin θ L

Y Axis   Force      W=0

Explanation:

When the block rises up the plane with constant velocity, it implies that the sum of the forces is zero.

For these exercises it is indicated to create a reference system with the x axis parallel to the plane and the y axis perpendicular

let's write the equations of translational equilibrium in given exercise

X axis

        F - fr -Wₓ = 0

        F = fr + Wₓ

the components of the weight can be found using trigonometry

         Wₓ = W sin θ

         [tex]W_{y}[/tex] = W cos θ

let's look for the work of these three forces

          W = F x cos θ

External force

          W₁ = F L

since the displacement and the force have the same direction

Friction force

          W₂ = - fr L

since the friction force is in the opposite direction to the displacement

For the weight component

          W₃ = - mg sin θ L

because the weight component is contrary to displacement

Y Axis  

          N- Wy = 0

in this case the forces are perpendicular to the displacement, the angle is 90º and the cosine 90 = 0

therefore work is worth zero

Answer:

The time taken is  [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the ball is  [tex]m = 1.25 \ kg[/tex]

    The time taken to make the first complete revolution is  t= 3.60 s

    The displacement of the first complete revolution is  [tex]\theta = 1 rev = 2 \pi \ radian[/tex]

Generally the displacement for one  complete revolution is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\theta = w_i t + \frac{1}{2} * \alpha * t^2[/tex]

Now given that the stone started from rest [tex]w_i = 0 \ rad / s[/tex]

     [tex]2 \pi =0 + 0.5* \alpha *(3.60)^2[/tex]

     [tex]\alpha = 0.9698 \ s[/tex]

Now the displacement for two  complete revolution is

         [tex]\theta_2 = 2 * 2\pi[/tex]

         [tex]\theta_2 = 4\pi[/tex]

Generally the displacement for two complete revolution is mathematically represented as  

     [tex]4 \pi = 0 + 0.5 * 0.9698 * t^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]t^2 = 25.9187[/tex]

=>   [tex]t= 5.1 \ s[/tex]

So

 The  time taken to complete the next oscillation is mathematically evaluated as

     [tex]\Delta t = t_2 - t[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]\Delta t = 5.1 - 3.60[/tex]

     [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

The time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

The given parameters;

The constant angular acceleration of the ball is calculated as follows;

[tex]\theta = \omega t \ + \ \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2\\\\2\pi = 0 \ + \ 0.5(3.6)^2 \alpha\\\\2\pi = 6.48 \alpha \\\\\alpha = \frac{2 \pi }{6.48} \\\\\alpha = 0.97 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

The time to complete the next revolution is calculated as follows;

[tex]4\pi = 0 + \frac{1}{2} (0.97)t^2\\\\8\pi = 0.97t^2\\\\t^2 = \frac{8\pi }{0.97} \\\\t^2 = 25.91\\\\t = \sqrt{ 25.91} \\\\t = 5.1 \ s[/tex]

[tex]\Delta t = 5.1 \ s \ - \ 3.6 \ s \\\\\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Thus, the time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

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Answer:

The image height is 3.0 cm

Explanation:

Given;

object distance, [tex]d_o[/tex] = 15.0 cm

image distance, [tex]d_i[/tex] = 5.0 cm

height of the object, [tex]h_o[/tex] = 9.0 cm

height of the image, [tex]h_i[/tex] = ?

Apply lens equation;

[tex]\frac{h_i}{h_o} = -\frac{d_i}{d_o}\\\\ h_i = h_o(-\frac{d_i}{d_o})\\\\h_i = -9(\frac{5}{15} )\\\\h_i = -3 \ cm[/tex]

Therefore, the image height is 3.0 cm. The negative values for image height indicate that the image is an inverted image.

Answer:

Thomas is correct that the zero displacements

Lilian is right that the distance is greater than zero.

Explanation:

In this problem we have to be clear about the difference between displacement and distance.

The displacement is a vector, that is, it has a modulation and direction, in this case we can draw a vector for the outward trip and another vector for the return trip, both will have the same magnitude, but their directions are opposite, so the resulting vector is zero.

The distance is a scalar and its value coincides with the modulus of the distance vector, in our case the distance is d for the outward journey and d for the return journey, so the total distance is 2d, which is different from zero.

The two students have some reason, but neither complete,

The displacement is zero because it is a vector and

the distance is different from zero (2d) because it is a scalar

Thomas is correct that the zero displacements

Lilian is right that the distance is greater than zero.

Therefore I agree with both, because each one has a 50% of the reason

Answer:

A) 2

Explanation:

Given;

magnetic field of the coil, B = 1.6 T

frequency of the coil, f = 75 Hz

maximum emf developed in the coil, E = 56.9 V

area of the coil, A = 0.15 m x 0.25 m = 0.0375 m²

The maximum emf in the coil is given by;

E = NBAω

Where;

N is the number of turns

ω is the angular velocity = 2πf = 2 x 3.142 x 75 = 471.3 rad/s

N = E / BAω

N = 56.9 / (1.6 x 0.0375 x 471.3)

N = 2 turns

Therefore, the value of N is 2

A) 2

Answer:

a

   [tex]F = 67867.2 \ N[/tex]

b

  [tex]\Delta L = 2.6 \ mm[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The Young modulus is  [tex]Y = 1.50 *10^{10} \ N/m^2[/tex]

      The stress is  [tex]\sigma = 1.50 *10^{8} \ N/m^2[/tex]

      The  diameter is  [tex]d = 2.40 \ cm = 0.024 \ m[/tex]

The radius is mathematically represented as

       [tex]r =\frac{d}{2} = \frac{0.024}{2} = 0.012 \ m[/tex]

The cross-sectional area is  mathematically evaluated as

        [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

         [tex]A = 3.142 * (0.012)^2[/tex]

        [tex]A = 0.000452\ m^2[/tex]

Generally the stress is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\sigma = \frac{F}{A}[/tex]

=>     [tex]F = \sigma * A[/tex]

=>    [tex]F = 1.50 *10^{8} * 0.000452[/tex]

=>    [tex]F = 67867.2 \ N[/tex]

Considering part b

      The length is given as [tex]L = 26.0 \ cm = 0.26 \ m[/tex]

Generally Young modulus is mathematically represented as

           [tex]E = \frac{ \sigma}{ strain }[/tex]

Here strain is mathematically represented as

         [tex]strain = \frac{ \Delta L }{L}[/tex]

So    

       [tex]E = \frac{ \sigma}{\frac{\Delta L }{L} }[/tex]

        [tex]E = \frac{\sigma }{1} * \frac{ L}{\Delta L }[/tex]

=>     [tex]\Delta L = \frac{\sigma * L }{E}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\Delta L = \frac{ 1.50*10^{8} * 0.26 }{ 1.50 *10^{10 }}[/tex]

       [tex]\Delta L = 0.0026[/tex]

Converting to mm

      [tex]\Delta L = 0.0026 *1000[/tex]

      [tex]\Delta L = 2.6 \ mm[/tex]

.Answer;

Using Fmax=qVB

F=(1.6*10^-19 C)(5.860*10^6 m/s)(1.38 T)

ANS=1.29*10^-12 N

2. Using Amax=Fmax/ m

Amax =(1.29*10^-12 N) / (1.67*10^-27 kg)

ANS=1.93*10^15 m/s^2*

3. No, the acceleration wouldn't be the same. Since The magnitude of the electron is equal to that of the proton, but the direction would be in the opposite direction and also Since an electron has a smaller mass than a proton

Answer:

A) it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Explanation:

The hydraulic lever works based on Pascal's law of transmission of pressure through a fluid. In the hydraulic lever, the pressure transmitted is the same.

Pressure transmitted P = F/A

where F is the force applied

and A is the area over which the force is applied.

This pressure can be manipulated on the input end as a small force applied over a small area, and then be transmitted to the output end as a large force over a large area.

F/A = f/a

where the left side of the equation is for the output, and the right side is for the input.

The volume of the displaced fluid will be the same on both ends of the hydraulic lever. Since we know that

volume V = (area A) x (distance d)

this means that the the piston on the input smaller area of the hydraulic lever will travel a greater distance, while the piston on the larger output area of the lever will travel a small distance.

From all these, we can see that the advantage of a hydraulic lever is that it transforms a small force acting over a large distance into a large force acting over a small distance.

Answer:

The induced emf  is  [tex]\epsilon = 0.1041 \ V[/tex]  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  radius of the circular loop is  [tex]r = 9.50 \ cm = 0.095 \ m[/tex]

     The  intensity of the wave is  [tex]I = 0.0215 \ W/m^2[/tex]

      The wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 6.90\ m[/tex]

Generally the intensity is mathematically represented as

         [tex]I = \frac{ c * B^2 }{ 2 * \mu_o }[/tex]

Here  [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the permeability of free space with value  

         [tex]\mu_o = 4 \pi *10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

B is the magnetic field which can be mathematically represented from the equation as

          [tex]B = \sqrt{ \frac{ 2 * \mu_o * I }{ c} }[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]B = \sqrt{ \frac{ 2 * 4\pi *10^{-7} * 0.0215 }{ 3.0*10^{8}} }[/tex]

          [tex]B = 1.342 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

The  area is mathematically represented as

       [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]A = 3.142 * (0.095)^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 0.0284[/tex]

The angular velocity is mathematically represented as

        [tex]w = 2 * \pi * \frac{c}{\lambda }[/tex]

substituting values          

       [tex]w = 2 * 3.142 * \frac{3.0*10^{8}}{ 6.90 }[/tex]  

        [tex]w = 2.732 *10^{8} rad \ s^{-1}[/tex]  

Generally the induced emf is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\epsilon = N * B * A * w * sin (wt )[/tex]

At maximum induced emf  [tex]sin (wt) = 1[/tex]

    So

         [tex]\epsilon = N * B * A * w[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]\epsilon = 1 * 1.342 *10^{-8} * 0.0284 *2.732 *10^{8}[/tex]  

         [tex]\epsilon = 0.1041 \ V[/tex]  

Complete question:

A charge of 15C is moving with velocity of 6.2 x 10³ m/s which makes an angle of 48 degrees with respect to the magnetic field. If the force on the particle is 4838 N, find the magnitude of the magnetic field.

a. 0.06 T

b. 0.08 T

c. 0.07 T

d. 0.05 T

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.07 T.

Explanation:

Given;

magnitude of the charge, q = 15C

velocity of the charge, v = 6.2 x 10³ m/s

angle between the charge and the magnetic field, θ = 48°

the force on the particle, F = 4838 N

The magnitude of the magnetic field can be calculated by applying Lorentz force formula;

F = qvBsinθ

where;

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field

B = F / vqsinθ

B = (4838) / (6.2 x 10³ x 15 x sin48)

B = 0.07 T

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.07 T.

Answer:

The frequency will change by a factor of 0.4

Explanation:

T = 2(pi)*sqrt(L/g)

Since g(moon) = (1/6)g(earth), the period would change by sqrt[1/(1/6)] = sqrt(6) ~ 2.5 times longer on the moon. Since the period & frequency are inverses, the frequency would be 1/2.5 or 0.4 times shorter on the moon.

Answer:

The  speed of the water wave is [tex]v = 88 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The  width of the tube is  [tex]L = 55 \ m[/tex]

     The fundamental  frequency is  [tex]f = 0.80 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally the fundamental frequency is mathematically represented as

      [tex]f = \frac{v}{2 * L }[/tex]

=>    [tex]v = f * 2 * L[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]v = 0.8 * 2 * 55[/tex]

       [tex]v = 88 \ m/s[/tex]

The speed of the water wave will be 88 m/s.

Given information:

When you slosh the water back and forth in a tub at just the right frequency, the water alternately rises and falls at each end, remaining relatively calm at the center.

The frequency of the standing wave is [tex]f=0.8[/tex] Hz.

The width of the tub is [tex]w=55[/tex] m.

Let v be the speed of the standing wave.

The speed of the wave can be calculated as,

[tex]v=2wf\\v=2\times 55\times 0.8\\v=88\rm\; m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the speed of the water wave will be 88 m/s.

For more details, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/1967686

Answer:

a. 2143 turns/m

b. 111.5 m

Explanation:

a. The minimum number of turns per unit length (N/L) can be found using the following equation:

[tex] B = \frac{\mu_{0}NI}{L} [/tex]

[tex] \frac{N}{L} = \frac{B}{\mu_{0}I} = \frac{3.50 \cdot 10^{-2} T}{4\pi \cdot 10^{-7} Tm/A*13.0 A} = 2143 turns/m [/tex]

Hence, the minimum number of turns per unit length is 2143 turns/m.

b. The total length of wire is the following:

[tex] N = 2143 turns/m*L = 2143 turns/m*46.0 \cdot 10^{-2} m = 986 turns [/tex]

Since each turn has length 2πr of wire, the total length is:

[tex] L_{T} = N*2\pi r = 986 turn*2*\pi*1.80 \cdot 10^{-2} m = 111.5 m [/tex]

Therefore, the total length of wire required is 111.5 m.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

Net force = 2.3686 × 10^(20) N

Explanation:

To solve this, we have to find the force of the earth acting on the moon and the force of the sun acting on the moon and find the difference.

Now, from standards;

Mass of earth;M_e = 5.98 × 10^(24) kg

Mass of moon;M_m = 7.36 × 10^(22) kg

Mass of sun;M_s = 1.99 × 10^(30) kg

Distance between the sun and earth;d_se = 1.5 × 10^(11) m

Distance between moon and earth;d_em = 3.84 × 10^(8) m

Distance between sun and moon;d_sm = (1.5 × 10^(11)) - (3.84 × 10^(8)) = 1496.96 × 10^(8) m

Gravitational constant;G = 6.67 × 10^(-11) Nm²/kg²

Now formula for gravitational force between the earth and the moon is;

F_em = (G × M_e × M_m)/(d_em)²

Plugging in relevant values, we have;

F_em = (6.67 × 10^(-11) × 5.98 × 10^(24) × 7.36 × 10^(22))/(3.84 × 10^(8))²

F_em = 1.9909 × 10^(20) N

Similarly, formula for gravitational force between the sun and moon is;

F_sm = (G × M_s × M_m)/(d_sm)²

Plugging in relevant values, we have;

F_se = (6.67 × 10^(-11) × 1.99 × 10^(30) ×

7.36 × 10^(22))/(1496.96 × 10^(8))²

F_se = 4.3595 × 10^(20) N

Thus, net force = F_se - F_em

Net force = (4.3595 × 10^(20) N) - (1.9909 × 10^(20) N) = 2.3686 × 10^(20) N

Complete Question    

The magnetic field of a plane-polarized electromagnetic wave moving in the z-direction is given by

[tex]B=1.2* 10^{-6} sin [2\pi[(\frac{z}{240} ) - ( \frac{t * 10^7}{8} ) ] ][/tex]    in SI units.

Answer:

The  value  is  [tex]f = 1.98918*10^{5}\ Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The magnetic field is    [tex]B=1.2* 10^{-6} sin [2\pi[(\frac{z}{240} ) - ( \frac{t * 10^7}{8} ) ] ][/tex]

 This above  equation can be modeled as

       [tex]B=1.2* 10^{-6} sin [2\pi[(\frac{z}{240} ) - ( \frac{t * 10^7}{8} ) ] ] \equiv A sin ( kz -wt )[/tex]

So  

       [tex]w = \frac{10^7}{8}[/tex]

Generally the frequency is mathematically represented as

       [tex]f = \frac{w}{2 \pi}[/tex]

=>    [tex]f = \frac{ \frac{10^7}{8} }{2 \pi}[/tex]

=>    [tex]f = 1.98918*10^{5}\ Hz[/tex]

Answer:

Visible light intensity at the surface of the bulb (I) = 331 W/m²

Explanation:

Given:

Energy = 75 W

Radius = 6 /2 = 3 cm = 3 × 10⁻² m

Energy goes to visible light = 5% = 0.05

Find:

Visible light intensity at the surface of the bulb (I)

Computation:

Visible light intensity at the surface of the bulb (I) = P / 4A

Visible light intensity at the surface of the bulb (I) = (0.05)(75) / 4π(3 × 10⁻²)²

Visible light intensity at the surface of the bulb (I) = 3.75 / 4π(9 × 10⁻⁴)

Visible light intensity at the surface of the bulb (I) = 331 W/m²