Select the situation for which the torque is the smallest.

a. A 200 kg piece of silver is placed at the end of a 2.5 m tree branch.
b. A 20 kg piece of marble is placed at the end of a 25 m construction crane arm.
c. A 8 kg quartz rock is placed at the end of a 62.5 m thin titanium rod.
d. The torque is the same for two cases.
e. The torque is the same for all cases.

Answer:

strong nuclear is the stronger force; it is related to mass

Explanation:

If we compare the force of gravity to strong nuclear force, we could conclude that strong nuclear is the stronger force; it is related to mass, therefore the correct answer is option C

The nuclear force is the interaction between the subatomic particles that make up a nucleus. There are two types of nuclear forces: the strong nuclear force and the weak nuclear force. Depending on the separation between the proton neutron and proton pairs, these nuclear forces can be both attracting and positive.

Both types of nuclear forces come under the four fundamental forces of nature. There are mainly four fundamental forces of nature electromagnetic force, gravitational force, strong nuclear force, and weak nuclear force.

Thus, Option C is the appropriate response since, when compared to the force of gravity, the strong nuclear force is the greater force because it is tied to mass.

Learn more about nuclear forces here

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Answer:

1) designed to measure the difference in speed of light in different directions , 1887

Explanation:

1) This experiment was designed to measure the difference in speed of light in different directions and therefore find the speed of the ether.

2) was made in 1887

3) At that time it was assumed that it was the medium in which light traveled and it is everywhere

4) the speed of the wave depends on the characteristics of the medium where it travels,

for the one in a string depends on the tension and density

for an electromagnetic wave of the permittivity and permeability of the vacuum

5) In this type of interferometer the beam is divided into two rays

6) In his interrupter, he had to accurately measure the displacement of the fringes in a telescope, for which he had to minimize vibrations, he had problems in the movement of one of the arms, changes in temperature

7) In Michelsom's second experiment, the apparatus could measure 0.01 fringes by increasing the length of the arms by 11 m

8) The new interferometer floated on a bed of mercury

9) Couldn't measure any difference in speed of light in different directions

10) Physics was forced to eliminate the concept of ETHER

11) One of the principles of relativities that the speed of light is constant in all inertial efficiency systems

12) Michelson in 1907

13) It seems that Einstein did not know the results of this experiment

Answer:

the pressure after contraction is 2×10^5 Pa

the speed after contraction is 15m/s

Explanation:

We were given Pressure P to be 3.5 x 10^5 that is Flowing with speed of 5.0 m/s,

For us to calculate pressure we need to calculate the area first as;

Let initial Area = A₁

And Final area A₂

We were told that in a horizontal pipe it contracts to 1/3 its former area. Which means

A₂= A₁/3.................

V₁ is the speed

the pressure and speed of the water after the contraction can be calculated using equation of continuity below

A₂V₂ = A₁V₁

But

If we substitute given value in the expresion we have

V₂ = (3A *5)/A

V₂ = 15m/s

Therefore, the speed after contraction is 15m/s

Now we can calculate the pressure using

Bernoulli's equation

p₁ + ½ρv₁² + ρgh₁ = p₂ + ½ρv₂² + ρgh₂

But we know that the pipe is horizontal, then "h" terms cancel out then

p₁ + ½ρv₁² = p₂ + ½ρv₂²

Making P₂ subject of formula we have

p₂ = 0.5ρ( V ₁² - v₂² ) + P₁

P₂=. 0.5 × 1000 (5² -15² ) + 3*10^5

=2×10^5 Pa

Therefore, the pressure after contraction is 2×10^5 Pa

(a)  the final speed of the water after contraction is 15 m/s.

(b) The final pressure of the water after contraction is 2.5 x 10⁵ Pa.

The given parameters;

Let the initial area of the pipe = A₁

Apply the continuity equation to determine the final speed of the water after contraction as follows;

[tex]A_1 V_1 = A_2 V_2\\\\V_2 = \frac{A_1V_1}{A_2} \\\\V_2 = \frac{A_1 \times 5}{\frac{1}{3} A_1 } \\\\V_2 = 15 \ m/s[/tex]

The final pressure of the water after contraction is determined by applying Bernoulli's equation for horizontal pipe;

[tex]P_1 + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_1^2= P_2 + \frac{1}{2} \rho V_2^2\\\\P_2 = \frac{1}{2} \rho (V_1^2 - V_2^2) + P_1\\\\P_2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 1000(5^2 - 15^2) + 3.5 \times 10^5\\\\P_2 = 2.5 \times 10^5 \ Pa[/tex]

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Answer:

in an accident, when the body collides with the air bags, the collision time of impact between the two bodies will increase due to the presence of air bags in the car. Larger is the impact time smaller is the transformation of energy between the body and air bag. That is why air bags greatly reduce the chance of injury in a car accident.

Answer:

Explanation:

That Universe Consists of Matter

Answer:

a

   [tex]k = 11600000 N/m[/tex]

b

   [tex]\Delta L = 3.2323 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

c

  [tex]F = 3750.28 \ N[/tex]  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The Young modulus is  [tex]E = 1.4 *10^{10} \ N/m^2[/tex]

     The length is  [tex]L = 0.35 \ m[/tex]

      The  area is  [tex]2.9 \ cm^2 = 2.9 *10^{-4} \ m ^2[/tex]

Generally the force acting on the tibia is mathematically represented as

       [tex]F = \frac{E * A * \Delta L }{L}[/tex]    derived from young modulus equation

Now this force can also be mathematically represented as

      [tex]F = k * \Delta L[/tex]    

So

     [tex]k = \frac{E * A }{L}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]k = \frac{1.4 *10^{10} * 2.9 *10^{-4} }{ 0.35}[/tex]

     [tex]k = 11600000 N/m[/tex]

    Since the tibia support half the weight then the force experienced by the tibia is  

        [tex]F_k = \frac{750 }{2} = 375 \ N[/tex]

 From the above equation the extension (compression) is mathematically represented as

          [tex]\Delta L = \frac{ F_k * L }{ A * E }[/tex]        

substituting values

           [tex]\Delta L = \frac{ 375 * 0.35 }{ (2.9 *10^{-4}) * 1.4*10^{10} }[/tex]

           [tex]\Delta L = 3.2323 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

From the above equation the maximum force is  

        [tex]F = \frac{1.4*10^{10} * (2.9*10^{-4}) * 3.233*10^{-5} }{ 0.35}[/tex]  

         [tex]F = 3750.28 \ N[/tex]  

Answer:

In parallel

Explanation:

Ctotal = C1 + C2 + ... + Cn

Answer:

The value of resistance of each resistor, R is 2.25 Ω

Explanation:

Given;

voltage across the three resistor, V = 1.5 V

power dissipated by the resistors, P = 3.00 W

the resistance of each resistor, = R

The effective resistance of the three resistors is given by;

R(effective) = R/3

Apply ohms law to determine the current delivered by the source;

V = IR

I = V/R

I = 3V/R

Also, power is calculated as;

P = IV

P = (3V/R) x V

P = 3V²/R

R = 3V² / P

R = (3 x 1.5²) / 3

R = 2.25 Ω

Therefore, the value of resistance of each resistor, R is 2.25 Ω

Answer:

 t = 8.98 10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

This is an exercise in interference by reflection, let's analyze what happens on each surface of the film.

* When the light ray shifts from a medium with a lower refractive index to a medium with a higher refractive index, the reflected ray has a reflection of 180

* The beam when passing to the middle its wavelength changes

           λ = λ₀ / n

if we take this into account, the constructive interference equation for normal incidence is

            2t = (m + ½) λ₀ / n

let's apply this equation to our case

for λ₀ = 479 nm = 479 10⁻⁹ m

             t = (m + ½) 479 10⁻⁹ / 1.33

             (m + ½) = 1.33 t / 479 10⁻⁹

for λ₀ = 798 nm = 798 10⁻⁹ m

             t = (m' + ½) 798 10⁻⁹ /1.33

            (m' + ½) = 1.33 t / 798 10⁻⁹

as they tell us that no other constructive interference occurs between the two wavelengths, the order of interference must be consecutive, let's write the two equat⁻ions

               (m + ½) = 1.33 t / 479 10⁻⁹

             ((m-1) + ½) = 1.33 t / 798 10⁻⁹

             (m + ½) = 1.33 t / 798 10⁻⁹ +1

resolve

             1.33 t / 479 10⁻⁹ = 1.33 t / 798 10⁻⁹ +1

             1.33 t / 479 10⁻⁹ = (1.33t + 798 10⁻⁹) / 798 10⁻⁹

             1.33t = (1 .33t + 798 10⁻⁹) 479/798

             1.33t = (1 .33t + 798 10⁻⁹) 0.6

             1.33 t = 0.7983 t + 477.6 10⁻⁹

             t (1.33 - 0.7983) = 477.6 10⁻⁹

             t = 477.6 10⁻⁹ /0.5315

             t = 8.98 10⁻⁷ m

Answer:

9.88 milivolt

Explanation:

Given: diameter d = 5.2 cm

magnetic field B_1 = 1.35 T, final magnetic field B_2 =0 T

t = 0.29 sec.

we know emf =  - dΦ/dt

and flux Φ = BA

A= area

therefore emf ε = -A(B_2-B_1)/Δt

[tex]=-\pi(d/2)^2\frac{B_2-B_1}{\Delta t} \\=-\pi(0.052/2)^2\frac{0-1.35}{0.29} \\=98.8\times10^4\\=9.88 mV[/tex]

Answer:

The planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

Explanation:

We can determine the ratio of the period's planet with the radius of the circular orbit in the star's equatorial plane:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} [/tex]     (1)

Where:

r: is the radius of the circular orbit of the planet and the star

T: is the period

G: is the gravitational constant

M: is the mass of the planet

From equation (1) we have:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} = k*r^{3/2} [/tex]   (2)          

Where k is a constant

From equation (2) we have that of the two planets, the planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Explanation:

First of all, we analyze the system of blocks before starting to move.

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=P_{A}sin(\theta)+P_{B}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{fB}=0[/tex]  

[tex]\Sum F_{x}=11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16N_{A}-0.23N_{B}=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16P_{A}cos(\theta)-0.23P_{B}cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]16sin(\theta)-2.91cos(\theta)=0[/tex]  

[tex]tan(\theta)=0.18[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=arctan(0.18)[/tex]  

[tex]\theta=10.20^{\circ}[/tex]  

Hence, the incline angle θ for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.20°.

Now, if we do a free body diagram of block A we have that after the block moves, the spring force must be taken into account.  

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{spring}=0[/tex]

Where:

[tex]F_{spring} = k\Delta l=2.1\Delta l[/tex]

[tex]P_{A}sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-2.1\Delta l=0[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=\frac{11sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)}{2.1}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta l=0.10 ft[/tex]    

Therefore, the required stretch or compression in the connecting spring is 0.10 ft.

I hope it helps you!

(a) The inclined angle for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.3⁰.

(b) The compression of the spring is 0.22 ft.

The given parameters;

The normal force on block A and B:

[tex]F_n_A = m_Agcos \ \theta\\\\F_n_B = m_Bgcos \ \theta[/tex]

The frictional force on block A and B:

[tex]F_f_A = \mu_s_AF_n_A \\\\F_f_B = \mu_s_BF_n_A[/tex]

The net force on the blocks when they starts sliding;

[tex](m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta) - (F_f_A + F_f_B) = 0\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = F_f_A + F_f_B\\\\m_Ag sin \theta+ m_Bgsin\theta = \mu_Am_Agcos\theta \ + \ \mu_Bm_Bgcos\theta\\\\gsin\theta(m_A + m_B) = gcos\theta (\mu_Am_A + \mu_Bm_B)\\\\\frac{sin\theta}{cos \theta} = \frac{\mu_Am_A\ + \ \mu_Bm_B}{m_A\ + \ m_B} \\\\tan\theta = \frac{(0.16\times 11) \ + \ (0.23 \times 5)}{11 + 5} \\\\tan\theta = 0.1819\\\\\theta = tan^{-1}(0.1819)\\\\\theta = 10.3 \ ^0[/tex]

The change in the energy of the blocks is the work done in compressing the spring;

[tex]\Delta E = W\\\\F_A (sin \theta )d- \mu F_n d= \frac{1}{2} kd^2\\\\F_A sin\theta \ - \ \mu F_A cos\theta = \frac{1}{2} kd\\\\d = \frac{2F_A(sin\theta - \mu cos \theta) }{k} \\\\d = \frac{2\times 11(sin \ 10.3\ - \ 0.16\times cos \ 10.3) }{2.1} \\\\d = 0.22 \ ft[/tex]

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Answer:

Check your router connections then restart your router.

Explanation:

Answer:

Check your router connections then restart your router.

Explanation:

Most internet access comes from routers so the problem is most likely the router.

Answer:

The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.

Explanation:

When a container is rigid, the process is supposed to be isochoric, that is, at constant volume. Then, the equation of state for ideal gases can be simplified into the following expression:

[tex]\frac{P_{1}}{T_{1}} = \frac{P_{2}}{T_{2}}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]P_{1}[/tex], [tex]P_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final pressures, measured in pascals.

[tex]T_{1}[/tex], [tex]T_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final temperatures, measured in Kelvins.

In addtion, the specific heat at constant volume for monoatomic ideal gases, measured in joules per mole-Kelvin is given by:

[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot R_{u}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]R_{u}[/tex] - Ideal gas constant, measured by pascal-cubic meters per mole-Kelvin.

If [tex]R_{u} = 8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{3}}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], then:

[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot \left(8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{2}}{mol\cdot K} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex]

And change in heat energy ([tex]Q[/tex]), measured by joules, by:

[tex]Q = n\cdot \bar c_{v}\cdot (T_{2}-T_{1})[/tex]

Where:

[tex]n[/tex] - Molar quantity, measured in moles.

The final temperature of the monoatomic ideal gas is now cleared:

[tex]T_{2} = T_{1} + \frac{Q}{n\cdot \bar c_{v}}[/tex]

Given that [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]Q = 6000\,J[/tex], [tex]n = 4\,mol[/tex] and [tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], the final temperature is:

[tex]T_{2} = 300\,K + \frac{6000\,J}{(4\,mol)\cdot \left(12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex]

The final pressure of the system is calculated by the following relationship:

[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\right) \cdot P_{1}[/tex]

If [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex] and [tex]P_{1} = 6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex], the final pressure is:

[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{420.279\,K}{300\,K} \right)\cdot (6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa)[/tex]

[tex]P_{2} = 8.406\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex]

The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.

Answer:

The working principle of a water pump mainly depends upon the positive displacement principle as well as kinetic energy to push the water.

Explanation:

it mainly depends upon the positive displacement principle and also kinetic energy to push water. hope this hepls!

Answer:

Will be equal to alpha x r; less than UsN

Answer:

d)    α = 1693.5 rad / s² , a = 392.7 m / s² ,   a_total = α √(R² +1) ,

e)   tan θ = a / α

Explanation:

This is an exercise in linear and angular kinematics.

We initialize reduction of all the magnitudes to the SI system

   w₀ = 3000 rev / min (2π rad / 1rev) (1min / 60s) = 314.16 rad / s

   w = 6000 rev / mi = 628.32 rad / s

   θ = 12 rev = 12 rev (2π rad / 1 rev) = 75.398 rad

d) ask for centripetal, tangential and total acceleration.

Let's start by looking for centripetal acceleration, let's use the formula

          w² = w₀² + 2 α θ

          α = (w²- w₀²) / 2θ

we calculate

           α = (628.32²2 - 314.16²) / 2 75.398

           α = 1693.5 rad / s²

the quantity is linear and angular are related

the linear or tangential acceleration is

            a =    α  R

where R is the radius of the drum

            a = 1693.5 R

Unfortunately you do not give the radius of the drum for a complete calculation, but suppose it is a washing machine drum R = 20 cm = 0.20 m

           a = 1693.5 0.20

           a = 392.7 m / s²

the total acceleration is

           a_total = √(a² + α²)

           a_total = √ (α² R² + α²)

           a_total = α √(R² +1)

e) The centripetal acceleration is directed towards the center of the movement is radial and its magnitude is constant

Tangential acceleration is tangency to radius and its value varies proportionally radius

the total accelracicon is the result of the vector sum of the two accelerations and their directions given by trigonometry

            tan θ = a / α

the angular velocity increases linearly when with centripetal acceleration

Answer:

259 Hz or 269 Hz

Explanation:

Beat: This is the phenomenon obtained when two notes of nearly equal frequency are sounded together. The S.I unit of beat is Hertz (Hz).

From the question,

Beat = f₂-f₁................ Equation 1

Note: The frequency of the other instrument is either f₁ or f₂.

If the unknown instrument's frequency is f₁,

Then,

f₁ = f₂-beat............ equation 2

Given: f₂ = 264 Hz, Beat = 5 Hz

Substitute into equation 2

f₁ = 264-5

f₁ = 259 Hz.

But if the unknown frequency is f₂,

Then,

f₂ = f₁+Beat................. Equation 3

f₂ = 264+5

f₂ = 269 Hz.

Hence the beat could be 259 Hz or 269 Hz

Answer:

the two ice skater have the same momentum but the are in different directions.

Paula will have a greater speed than Ricardo after the push-off.

Explanation:

Given that:

Two ice skaters, Paula and Ricardo, initially at rest, push off from each other. Ricardo weighs more than Paula.

A. Which skater, if either, has the greater momentum after the push-off? Explain.

The law of conservation of can be applied here in order to determine the skater that possess a greater momentum after the push -off

The law of conservation of momentum states that the total momentum of two  or more objects acting upon one another will not change, provided there are no external forces acting on them.

So if two objects in motion collide, their total momentum before the collision will be the same as the total momentum after the collision.

Momentum is the product of mass and velocity.

SO, from the information given:

Let represent the mass of Paula with [tex]m_{Pa}[/tex] and its initial velocity with [tex]u_{Pa}[/tex]

Let represent the mass of Ricardo with [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex] and its initial velocity with [tex]u_{Ri}[/tex]

At rest ;

their velocities will be zero, i.e

[tex]u_{Pa}[/tex] = [tex]u_{Ri}[/tex] = 0

The initial momentum for this process can be represented as :

[tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]u_{Pa}[/tex] +  [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]u_{Ri}[/tex] = 0

after push off from each other then their final velocity will be [tex]v_{Pa}[/tex] and [tex]v_{Ri}[/tex]

The we can say their final momentum is:

[tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]v_{Pa}[/tex] +   [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]v_{Ri}[/tex] = 0

Using the law of conservation of momentum as states earlier.

Initial momentum = final momentum = 0

[tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]u_{Pa}[/tex] +  [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]u_{Ri}[/tex] =  [tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]v_{Pa}[/tex] +   [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]v_{Ri}[/tex]

Since the initial velocities are stating at rest then ; u = 0

[tex]m_{Pa}[/tex](0) + [tex]m_{Pa}[/tex](0) = [tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]v_{Pa}[/tex] +   [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]v_{Ri}[/tex]

[tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]v_{Pa}[/tex] +   [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]v_{Ri}[/tex]  = 0

[tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]v_{Pa}[/tex] = - [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]v_{Ri}[/tex]

Hence, we can conclude that the two ice skater have the same momentum but the are in different directions.

 B. Which skater, if either, has the greater speed after the push-off? Explain.

Given that Ricardo weighs more than Paula

So [tex]m_{Ri} > m_{Pa}[/tex] ;

Then [tex]\mathsf{\dfrac{{m_{Ri}}}{m_{Pa} }= 1}[/tex]

The magnitude of their momentum which is a product of mass and velocity can now be expressed as:

[tex]m_{Pa}[/tex][tex]v_{Pa}[/tex] =  [tex]m_{Ri}[/tex][tex]v_{Ri}[/tex]

The ratio is

[tex]\dfrac{v_{Pa}}{v_{Ri}} =\dfrac{m_{Ri}}{m_{Pa}} = 1[/tex]

[tex]v_{Pa} >v_{Ri}[/tex]

Therefore, Paula will have a greater speed than Ricardo after the push-off.

(A) Both the skaters have the same magnitude of momentum.

(B) Paula has greater speed after push-off.

Given that two skaters Paula and Ricardo are initially at rest.

Ricardo weighs more than Paula.

Let us assume that the mass of Ricardo is M, and the mass of Paula is m.

Let their final velocities be V and v respectively.

(A) Initially, both are at rest.

So the initial momentum of Paula and Ricardo is zero.

According to the law of conservation of momentum, the final momentum of the system must be equal to the initial momentum of the system.

Initial momentum = final momentum

0 = MV + mv

MV = -mv

So, both of them have the same magnitude of momentum, but in opposite directions.

(B) If we compare the magnitude of the momentum of Paula and Ricardo, then:

MV = mv

M/m = v/V

Now, we know that M>m

so, M/m > 1

therefore:

v/V > 1

v > V

So, Paula has greater speed.

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Answer:

M = F/3μ g - M₁/3

Explanation:

To solve this exercise we must use the equilibrium conditions translations

         ∑ F = 0

In the attachment we can see a free body diagram of each block

Block M (upper)

X axis

      fr₁ + F₂ -F = 0

      F = fr₁ + F₂              (1)

axis

     N₁-W = 0

     N₁ = Mg

the friction force has the formula

     fr₁ = μ N₁

     F = μ Mg + F₂

bottom block

X axis

     F₂ - fr₁ - fr₂ = 0

     F₂ = fr₁ + fr₂

Y axis

     N - W₁ -W = 0

     N = g (M + M₁)

we substitute

       F₂ = μ Mg + μ (M + M1) g

       F₂ = μ g (2M + M₁)

we substitute in 1

      F = μ M g + μ g (2M + M₁)

      F = μ g (3M + M₁)

we look for mass M    

      M = (F -  μ g M₁)/ 3μ g

      M = F/3μ g - M₁/3

the exercise does not have numerical data

Answer:

A) V_air = 1.295 L

B) Volume is not reasonable

Explanation:

A) Let;

m be total mass of the man

m_p be the mass of the man that pulled out of the water because of the buoyant force that pulled out of the lung

m_3 be the mass above the water with the empty lung

m_5 be the mass above the water with full lung

F_b be the buoyant force due to the air in the lung

V_a be the volume of air inside man's lungs

w_p be the weight that the buoyant force opposes as a result of the air.

Now, we are given;

m = 78.5 kg

m_3 = 3.2% × 78.5 = 2.512 kg

m_5 = 4.85% × 78.5 = 3.80725 kg

Now, m_p = m_5 - m_3

m_p = 3.80725 - 2.512

m_p = 1.29525 kg

From archimedes principle, we have the formula for buoyant force as;

F_b = (m_displaced water)g = (ρ_water × V_air × g)

Where ρ_water is density of water = 1000 kg/m³

Thus;

F_b = w_p = 1.29525 × 9.81

F_b = 12.7064 N

As earlier said,

F_b = (ρ_water × V_air × g)

Thus;

V_air = F_b/(ρ_water × × g)

V_air = 12.7064/(1000 × 9.81)

V_air = 1.295 × 10^(-3) m³

We want to convert to litres;

1 m³ = 1000 L

Thus;

V_air = 1.295 × 10^(-3) × 1000

V_air = 1.295 L

B) From research, the average lung capacity of an adult human being is 6 litres of air.

Thus, the calculated lung volume is not reasonable

Answer:

The intensity is  [tex]I_2 = 1654 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The intensity of the unpolarized light is  [tex]I_o = 4000 \ W/m^2[/tex]

    The  angle between the ideal polarizing sheet is  [tex]\theta = 0.429 \ rad = 0.429 * 57.296 = 24.58^o[/tex]

Generally the intensity of  light emerging from the first polarizer is mathematically represented as

               [tex]I_2 = \frac{I_o}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

               [tex]I_1 = \frac{4000}{2}[/tex]

                [tex]I_1 = 2000 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Then the intensity of  incident light emerging from the second polarizer is mathematically represented by Malus law as

                 [tex]I_2 = I_1 cos^2 (\theta )[/tex]

substituting values

                [tex]I_2 = 2000 * [cos (24.58)]^2[/tex]

                [tex]I_2 = 1654 \ W/m^2[/tex]

Answer:

v = 6.28 m/s

Explanation:

It is given that,

A windmill on a farm rotates at a constant speed and completes one-half of a rotation in 0.5 seconds,

Number of revolution is half. It means angular velocity is 3.14 radians.

Let v is the angular speed. So,

[tex]v=\dfrac{\omega}{t}\\\\v=\dfrac{3.14}{0.5}\\\\v=6.28\ m/s[/tex]

So, the rotation speed is 6.28 m/s.

The angular velocity is the rotation speed, which is the angle of rotation

of the windmill per second, which is 2·π radians.

Response:

The given parameter are;

The angle of rotation the windmill rotates in 0.5 seconds = One-half a

rotation.

Required:

The rotational speed (angular velocity)

Solution:

The angle of one rotation = 2·π radians

Angle of one-half ration = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2·π radians = π radians

[tex]Rotational \ speed = \mathbf{\dfrac{Angle \ of \ rotation}{Time}}[/tex]

Which gives;

[tex]Rotational \ speed, \omega = \dfrac{\pi}{0.5 \ s} = \mathbf{2 \cdot \pi \ rad/s}[/tex]

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Answer:

The moment of inertia is  [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  mass of the platform is   m =  137 kg

     The radius is  r  =  1.53 m

    The mass of the person is  [tex]m_p = 68.7 \ kg[/tex]

    The distance of the person from the center is  [tex]d_c =1.19 \ m[/tex]

    The mass of the dog is  [tex]m_d = 25.9 \ kg[/tex]

     The distance of the dog from the person [tex]d_d = 1.45 \ m[/tex]

Generally the moment of inertia of the system is mathematically represented as

      [tex]I = I_1 + I_2 + I_3[/tex]

Where [tex]I_1[/tex] is the moment of inertia of the platform which mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_1 = \frac{m * r^2}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]I_1 = \frac{ 137 * (1.53)^2}{2}[/tex]

           [tex]I_1 = 160.35 \ kg\cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_2[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the person about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_2 = m_p * d_c^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_2 = 68.7 * 1.19^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_2 = 97.29 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_3[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the dog about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_3 = m_d * d_d^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_3 = 25.9 * 1.45^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_3 = 54.45 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Thus  

        [tex]I= 160.35 + 97.29 + 54.45[/tex]

        [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Answer:

The kinetic energy is 25000 J

Explanation:

At the top of the hill, the potential energy = 50000 J

the potential energy = mgh

where m is the mass

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the vertical height at the top of the hill

Note the mass of the roller coaster and acceleration due to gravity will always remain constant, so that halfway down the hill, only the height changes by half its initial value.

This means that at halfway down the hill, the potential energy of the roller coaster is

PE = [tex]mg\frac{h}{2}[/tex] = 50000/2 = 25,000 J

We also know that the total mechanical energy of a system is given as

ME = KE + PE = constant

where

ME is the mechanical energy of the system

PE is the potential energy of the system

KE is the kinetic energy of the system

Let us now analyse.

At the top of the hill, all the mechanical energy of the roller coaster is equal to its potential energy due to the height on the hill above ground, since the roller coaster is not moving (kinetic energy is energy due to motion). Halfway down, the mechanical energy of the roller coaster is due to both the kinetic energy and the potential energy, since the roller coaster is moving down, and is still at a given height above the ground. Having all these in mind, we can proceed and say that at halfway down the hill, ignoring friction,

ME = KE + PE = constant

50000 = KE + 25000

therefore

KE = 25000 J

Answer:

d) (CATA + CBTB) / (CA + CB)

Explanation:

According to the given situation, the final temperature of both objects is shown below:-

We assume T be the final temperature

while m be the mass

So it will be represent

m CA (TA - T) = m CB (T - TB)

or we can say that

CATA - CA T = CB T - CBTB

or

(CA + CB) T = CATA + CBTB

or

T = (CA TA + CBTB) ÷ (CA + CB)

Therefore the right answer is d

The final temperature of both objects is [tex]T = \frac{C_AT_A+ C_BT_B}{C_B + C_A} \\\\[/tex].

The given parameters;

The final temperature of both objects is calculated as follows;

heat lost by object A is equal to heat gained by object B

[tex]mC_A (T_A - T) = mC_B(T- T_B)\\\\C_AT_A-C_AT = C_BT - C_BT_B\\\\C_BT+C_AT = C_AT_A+ C_BT_B\\\\T(C_B + C_A) = C_AT_A+ C_BT_B \\\\T = \frac{C_AT_A+ C_BT_B}{C_B + C_A} \\\\[/tex]

Thus, the final temperature of both objects is [tex]T = \frac{C_AT_A+ C_BT_B}{C_B + C_A} \\\\[/tex].

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Answer:

Explanation:

Find:

Computation:

F = (9/5)C + 32

3 times that of the Celsius

If C = x

So F = 3x

So,

3x = (9/5)x + 32

15x = 9x +160

6x = 160

x = 26.67

So, C = 26.67° and F = 80°

1/5 times that of the Celsius

If C = x

So F = x/5

So,

x/5 = (9/5)x + 32

x = 9x + 160

x = -20

So, C = -20° and F = -4°

Answer:

The charge is  [tex]q = 1.50 *10^{-5} \ C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The electric field strength is  [tex]E = 1860 \ N/C[/tex]

    The force is  [tex]F = 0.02796 \ N[/tex]

Generally the charge on this particle is mathematically represented as

     [tex]q = \frac{F}{E}[/tex]

=>   [tex]q = \frac{0.02796}{ 1860}[/tex]

=>   [tex]q = 1.50 *10^{-5} \ C[/tex]

Answer:

E. None of these statements are true.

Explanation:

We can't say the exact or approximate amount of tension on the rope, since we do know for sure from the statement who is winning.

for A, the tension on the rope does not depend on if both teams pull are in equilibrium.

for B, the 49ers would be pulling with a force more than 5000 N, if they were winning. The problem is that we can't say with all confidence that they'd be winning.

for C, we don't know how much tension exists on the rope, and its direction, so we can't work out how much tension the 49ers are pulling the rope with.

for D,  just as for C above, we can't work out how much tension there is on the rope, since we do not know how much force the 49ers are pulling with.

we go with option E.

Answer:D

Explanation:I got it right

Answer:

They needed to be able to unite even though they spoke different languages.

Explanation: