The effect of the FIFO accounting method on inventory valuation during a period of sharply rising prices.
The FIFO (first-in, first-out) inventory accounting method is one of the most common inventory valuation approaches in use.
In this method, the cost of goods sold is calculated by assuming that the oldest inventory items are sold first, and the newest inventory items are sold last. It is widely used because it is straightforward and easy to understand. However, during periods of sharply rising prices, this method can have a significant impact on inventory valuation.
Inventory valuation is the process of determining the cost of inventory that a business owns. This cost is used to determine the value of the inventory on the balance sheet, as well as the cost of goods sold on the income statement. During periods of rising prices, the cost of inventory items can increase dramatically.
As a result, the value of inventory on the balance sheet can be much higher than it would be if the prices had remained stable. This can be problematic for businesses that use the FIFO method because it assumes that the oldest inventory items are sold first.
As a result, the cost of goods sold can be significantly lower than it would be if the newest inventory items were sold first.
This can result in higher profits and lower taxes, but it can also result in misleading financial statements.To conclude, the FIFO accounting method has a significant impact on inventory valuation during periods of sharply rising prices. The cost of goods sold can be significantly lower, resulting in higher profits and lower taxes.
However, this can result in misleading financial statements, and it is important for businesses to carefully consider the impact of rising prices on their inventory valuation.
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In the context of marketing, selling their products, blank means encouraging consumers to buy through different venues
O multichannel retailing
O independent wholesaling
O merchant wholesaling
O independent retailing
Option (a), Multi-channel retailing refers to encouraging customers to make purchases through many channels when it comes to marketers selling their items.
What precisely is meant by "multi-channel retailing"?Multichannel retailing is the process of using many channels to provide the same products on different platforms. Brick and mortar shops, online shops, mobile app stores, and other outlets are only a few of the countless channels. There are both online and offline platforms that could be used.
Gives your customers a variety of purchasing options: is multi-channel retailing a marketing strategy?Multi-channel retailing is a hybrid strategy that brings together a range of options. Consumers can choose between purchasing products at an outlet or using online marketplaces to buy their selected products.
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b. if the market price is below p*, what will happen to inventories and what will buyers do to cause the price to rise?
if the market price is below p then inventories will run out and buyers do to cause the price to rise is to buy more products.
The cost at which a certain commodity or service is sold to end users in the market is known as the market price. The market price is often the point where the market forces converge (market equilibrium). There are, however, some circumstances where the market price is not balanced.
The amount provided will fall short of the quantity required for an item when the market price is below the equilibrium. In other words, because the costs are so cheap, there will be an excessive demand for the particular commodity. A market scarcity is what is happening in this case.
The result of this circumstance is that the product's customers won't be able to purchase as many units of the product as they would want. Due to this circumstance, vendors will be incentivized to increase both their pricing and the quantity of goods they are ready to offer. Some customers may discontinue requesting the goods as a result of the price rise.
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when communicating internal control matters noted in a nonissuer financial statement audit, an auditor's report should indicate that
When communicating internal control matters noted in a non issuer financial statement audit, an auditor's report should indicate that the auditor has performed tests of internal control over financial reporting.
The opinion will be based on the tests performed and conclusions reached about the effectiveness of the company's internal control over financial reporting. The auditor must also communicate any matters related to the internal control environment identified during the audit that may have a material effect on the financial statements.
This communication should include a description of the matters, their significance, and the effect, if any, on the auditor's opinion.
In conclusion, when communicating internal control matters noted in a non issuer financial statement audit, an auditor's report should indicate that the auditor has performed tests of internal control over financial reporting and has expressed an opinion on the effectiveness of the company's internal control over financial reporting.
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T/F. Flora's Fruit + Fresh is one of several local stores where customers can purchase locally grown fruits and vegetables. Each week, Flora also offers workshops in her store on topics such as canning, healthy eating, and growing a garden, which no other local store does. By offering these unique workshops, Flora is engaging in strategic positioning.
The given statement is true about the Flora is engaging in strategic positioning.
By offering unique workshops on topics that no other local store is providing, Flora's Fruit + Fresh is engaging in strategic positioning. Strategic positioning involves differentiating a business from its competitors by highlighting its unique features or offerings, and in this case, Flora's Fruit + Fresh is doing just that by providing educational workshops in addition to selling locally grown fruits and vegetables. Strategic positioning is the process of differentiating a business unit from its competitors by emphasizing unique features or benefits to appeal to a specific target market. It involves creating a distinctive image and reputation in the minds of customers to gain a competitive advantage in the market.
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when the sequel to a movie eventually shows up on their regular television networks, might watch it.
Laggards might watch a sequel to a film when it ultimately airs on their normal tv networks.
Why do you use the term "laggards"?A stock and security that really is underperforming in comparison to its reference or peers is referred to as a lagging. A laggard will see reduced returns in comparison to the market. The antithesis of a leader is a laggard. Traditionalists, laggards who have yet to adopt new ideas. Laggards are localised to the extent of being isolated when contrasted to the other user types, having essentially no opinion leadership. Because of their fixation with the past, all choices must be considered in the context of earlier generations.
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As part of strategic choice, there are three key levels of strategy to consider. This excludes the following:
Where to compete.
How to compete.
Who the competitors are
.Which investment vehicle to use.
As part of strategic choice, there are three key levels of strategy to consider and this excludes: Who the competitors are.
What are the factors to consider?Being strategic in business requires thinking ahead in order to know the right tools and policies to implement in the bid to sell more of one's products.
To be effective at strategizing, there is a need to think about the right place to compete, the tools and measures to take while strategizing, and the investment vehicle to use. Who the competitors are does not really matter in the choice of strategy.
Complete Question;
As part of strategic choice, there are three key levels of strategy to consider. This excludes the following: 0 Where to compete. 0 HOW to compete. 0 Who the competitors are. 0 Which investment vehicle to use.
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which of the following are important criteria for evaluating a performance management system? (select all that apply.)
The following are important criteria for evaluating a performance management system; Validity, Reliability, Acceptability, Specificity, Strategic Congruence and Parsimony.
These are the important criteria for evaluating a performance management system.
Validity: The validity of the performance management system refers to the degree to which it accurately assesses performance.
Reliability: The degree to which a performance management system can produce consistent results over time is referred to as reliability.
Acceptability: The acceptability of the performance management system refers to the degree to which it is deemed fair by the system's participants.
Specificity: Specificity refers to the degree to which the system's goals, criteria, and expectations are unambiguous.
Strategic congruence: A system is strategically consistent if the behavior it promotes and rewards is consistent with the organization's goals.
Parsimony: Finally, parsimony refers to the degree to which a system is easy to use and comprehend.
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The complete questions is:
which of the following are important criteria for evaluating a performance management system? (select all that apply.)
1. Validity2. Reliability3. Acceptability4. Specificity5. Strategic Congruence6. Parsimony
Suppose the total cost of a college education will be $50,000 in 12 years for a child. The Parents have $5,000 to invest today. What rate of interest must they earn on investment to cover the cost of child"s education?
O a. 19.2%
O b. 21.15%
O c. 25.1%
O d. 12%
Answer:
Explanation:
The correct answer is c. 25.1%. This can be calculated by using the formula for compound interest: A = P(1+r/n)^nt, where A is the amount of money needed, P is the initial principal, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of times the interest is compounded each year, and t is the number of years. In this case, we know that A = $50,000, P = $5,000, n = 1, and t = 12. Solving for r we get:
r = (50,000/5,000)^(1/12)-1 = 25.1%.
Therefore, the parents must earn an annual interest rate of 25.1% to cover the cost of their child's education.
Jack Hammer Company completed the following transactions. The annual accounting period ends December 31. Apr. 30 Received $600,000 from Commerce Bank after signing a 12-month, 6 percent, promissory note. June 6 Purchased merchandise on account at a cost of $75,000. (Assume a perpetual inventory system. ) July 15 paid for the June 6 purchase. Aug. 31 Signed a contract to provide security service to a small apartment complex starting in September, and collected six months' fees in advance amounting to $24,000. Dec. 31 Determined salary and wages of $40,000 were earned but not yet paid as of December 31 (ignore payroll taxes). Dec. 31 Adjunted the accounts at year-end, relating to interest. Dec. 31 Adjusted the accounts at year-end, relating to security service. Required: 1. & 2. Prepare journal entries for each of the transactions through August 31 and adjusting entries required on December 31 3. Show how all of the liabilities arising from these items are reported on the balance sheet at December 31 Book Complete this question by entering your answers in the tabs below. Reg 1 and 2 Req3 Show how all of the liabilities arising from these items are reported on the balance sheet at December 31. (Do not round intermediate calculations.) JACK HAMMER COMPANY Balance Sheet
The liabilities arising from transactions that are reported on the balance sheet at December 31 are Notes Payable 600,000, Accounts Payable 75,000, Salaries and Wages Payable 40,000, Interest Payable 6,000, and Unearned Service Revenue 24,000.
1. April 30:
Debit Cash 600,000
Credit Notes Payable 600,000
2. June 6:
Debit Accounts Payable 75,000
Credit Merchandise Inventory 75,000
3. July 15:
Debit Accounts Payable 75,000
Credit Cash 75,000
4. August 31:
Debit Cash 24,000
Credit Unearned Service Revenue 24,000
5. December 31:
Debit Salaries and Wages Expense 40,000
Credit Salaries and Wages Payable 40,000
6. December 31:
Debit Interest Expense 6,000
Credit Interest Payable 6,000
7. December 31:
Debit Unearned Service Revenue 24,000
Credit Service Revenue 24,000
The liabilities arising from these transactions that are reported on the balance sheet at December 31 are Notes Payable 600,000, Accounts Payable 75,000, Salaries and Wages Payable 40,000, Interest Payable 6,000, and Unearned Service Revenue 24,000.
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Juliet has just completed a twelve-week training course and now is back at work. Her boss should expect that she will be
considerably better at her job and much more committed to staying with the firm than she was twelve weeks earlier.
somewhat better at her job and slightly more emotionally attached to the company than she was before she began her training course.
so convinced, as a result of her training, that she knows more than she actually does that she will lose her emotional attachment to the company.
slightly better as a worker but, due to gratitude for the opportunity to further her education, considerably more committed to her employer than she was before.
largely unchanged, aside from a bit more knowledge with regard to her job, as compared with virtually no increase or decrease in her emotional attachment to the firm.
Juliet's boss should expect that she will be slightly better as a worker but, due to gratitude for the opportunity to further her education, considerably more committed to her employer than she was before. Therefore the correct option is option C.
She will be somewhat better at her job and slightly more emotionally attached to the company than she was before she began her training course, but not so convinced that she knows more than she actually does that she will lose her emotional attachment to the company.
In other words, she will be largely unchanged, aside from a bit more knowledge with regard to her job, as compared with virtually no increase or decrease in her emotional attachment to the firm. Therefore the correct option is option C.
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The following question may be like this:
Juliet has just completed a twelve-week training course and now is back at work. Her boss should expect that she will be considerably better at her job and much more committed to staying with the firm than she was twelve weeks earlier.
somewhat better at her job and slightly more emotionally attached to the company than she was before she began her training course.so convinced, as a result of her training, that she knows more than she actually does that she will lose her emotional attachment to the company.slightly better as a worker but, due to gratitude for the opportunity to further her education, considerably more committed to her employer than she was before.largely unchanged, aside from a bit more knowledge with regard to her job, as compared with virtually no increase or decrease in her emotional attachment to the firm.Which of the following is NOT a factor that would affect the amount of an underwriting spread in a securities offering?
In the following question, The factor that would NOT affect the amount of an underwriting spread in a securities offering is the "type of security being offered."
An underwriting spread is a difference between the price at which securities are sold by the underwriter to the public and the price at which they were bought from the issuer.
The following are factors that would affect the amount of an underwriting spread in a securities offering:
Market demand: The demand for security in the market will affect the underwriting spread. If there is high demand for the security, the underwriter will charge a higher spread. Issuer’s creditworthiness: The issuer's creditworthiness will also impact the underwriting spread. If the issuer has a low credit rating, the underwriter may charge a higher spread to compensate for the additional risk.Issue size: The size of the security issue is another factor that will affect the underwriting spread. If the issue size is large, the underwriter may charge a smaller spread as they will make more profit from a larger issue.Type of underwriting agreement: The type of underwriting agreement will affect the underwriting spread. For example, a firm commitment underwriting agreement will generally have a larger spread than a best efforts underwriting agreement.For more such questions on securities offering
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FILL IN THE BLANK.The internal rate of return is compared against the minimum ____ rate of return when analyzing the acceptability of an investment project.
The internal rate of return is compared against the minimum acceptable rate of return when analyzing the acceptability of an investment project.
The minimum acceptable rate of return is also known as the required rate of return. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which the present value of cash inflows is equal to the present value of cash outflows.The internal rate of return (IRR) is a valuable measure that assesses an investment project's potential profitability. The IRR considers the time value of money and compares the project's cash inflows to its initial investment. If the IRR is greater than or equal to the required rate of return, then the project is deemed acceptable.
However, if the IRR is less than the required rate of return, the project is not considered acceptable. This is because the required rate of return represents the opportunity cost of the investment. Investors have several choices for investment opportunities, and they must decide which opportunities provide the most significant return on their investment. IRR is a popular measure of investment performance and is used by investors to assess whether or not an investment is worth making.
The comparison of IRR to the required rate of return provides investors with insight into the investment's potential profitability. If the IRR is greater than the required rate of return, the investment is worth making. If the IRR is less than the required rate of return, the investment is not worth making.
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which of the following are best practices for responding to a social media crisis? (choose three answers) Review how competitors are handling the situation and follow suit
Listen to what your audience is saying for insight into sentiment
Pause all outgoing content to review it for anything obsolete or tonedeaf
Review and update social profiles to highlight any changes
The three best practices for responding to a social media crisis are:
Listen to what your audience is saying for insight into sentimentPause all outgoing content to review it for anything obsolete or tone-deafReview and update social profiles to highlight any changesWhat is social media crisis?Listening to what your audience is saying during a social media crisis can provide valuable insight into their concerns and sentiment, allowing you to address them appropriately. Pausing all outgoing content and reviewing it for anything that may be obsolete or tone-deaf can help prevent further damage to your brand's reputation. Finally, reviewing and updating your social profiles to highlight any changes can help demonstrate your brand's commitment to resolving the crisis and improving going forward.
Therefore, Reviewing how competitors are handling the situation and following suit can also be a helpful best practice, but it is not always necessary or appropriate, depending on the specific circumstances of the crisis.
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All of the following are deposit-type institutions that serve as financial intermediaries except: credit unions. insurance companies. savings and loans.
Insurance companies are not deposit-type institutions that serve as financial intermediaries. Option B
What is financial intermediaries about?While credit unions and savings and loans are financial institutions that accept deposits from customers and use those funds to make loans to other customers, insurance companies primarily provide insurance policies and investment products, such as annuities and mutual funds, rather than accepting deposits from customers.
Hence, Insurance companies also invest the premiums they collect from policyholders in a variety of assets, including stocks, bonds, and real estate.
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Use the midpoint formula and points a and b to calculate the elasticity of demand for that range of the demand curve.Instructions: Round your answers to 2 decimal places. Enter positive values for elasticities (absolute values).Elasticity of demand for D1 (points a to b in the left diagram above) =Elasticity of demand for D2 (points c to d in the right diagram above) =Elasticity of demand for D3 (points e to f in the diagram above) =
=1.8 is the elasticity of demand for that range of the demand curve =0.56 ± 0.01
Elasticity of demand is the degree to which demand responds to a change in an economic factor. Price is the economic factor that is most frequently taken into account when calculating elasticity. Other factors include the availability of alternatives and one's income level. Demand elasticity measures how it alters in response to shifting macroeconomic circumstances. Let us start by looking at the definition of "elasticity of demand," which reads, "The elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of the amount demanded of a good to changes in one of the variables on which demand depends.
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Vernon Medical Clinic has budgeted the following cash flows.
January February March
Cash receipts $ 117,000 $ 123,000 $ 143,000
Cash payments
For inventory purchases 98,500 80,500 93,500
For S&A expenses 39,500 40,500 35,500
Vernon Medical had a cash balance of $16,500 on January 1. The company desires to maintain a cash balance of $10,000. Funds are assumed to be borrowed, in increments of $1,000, and repaid on the last day of each month; the interest rate is 3 percent per month. Repayments may be made in any amount available. Vernon pays its vendors on the last day of the month also. The company had a monthly $40,000 beginning balance in its line of credit liability account from this year’s quarterly results.
The journal entries for Vernon Medical Clinic is given below:
The Journal EntriesCash Budget January February March
Cash receipts
Beginning cash balance 16500 10300 10000
cash receipts 117000 123000 143000
Total cash available [1] 133500 133300 153000
Cash payments
For inventory purchases 98500 80500 93500
For S & A Expenses 39500 40500 35500
Interest expense 40000*3%=1200 56000*3%=1680 55380*3%= 1661
Total budgeted disbursements [2] 139200 122680 130661
Excess of receipts over disbursement [1-2] -5700 10620 22339
Financing activities
Borrowing /(repayment) 16000 (620) (12339)
Ending cash balance 10300 10000 10000
Working note:
a)For month of January,Amount borrowed = Desired ending balance - Excess of receipts over disbursement
= 10000 - (-5700)
= 10000 +5700
= 15700 (rounded to nearest 16000)
Since the amount is borrowed in increments of 1000 ,amount borrowed is nearest to 16000
b)Amount financed at end of January = 40000 (beginning ) +16000 additional borrowing = 56000
c)Amount financed at end of February = 56000 (beginning ) -620 repatyment= 55380
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(20 points total) Consider a capital budgeting problem with five projects from which to select. Let us define binary variables xi 1 if project 1 is selected, o otherwise; x2 1 if project 2 is selected, o otherwise and so on Write the appropriate constraint(s) for each condition a, b, c, d, e and the objective function for part f. a. (3 points) Choose no fewer than three projects. b. (4 points) If project 3 is chosen, project 4 must be chosen. c. (4 points) If project l 1s chosen, project 5 must not be chosen. d. (3 points) Projects cost $100, 200, 150, 75, and 300 (in thousands) respectively. The budget is $450,00o. e. (3 points) No more than two of projects 1, 2, and 3 can be chosen. f. (3 points) If the revenues generated by the projects are $400, 100, 265, 80 and 100 (in thousands), write an objective function which maximizes profit.
The appropriate constraint for a capital budgeting problem with five projects:
a) X₁+X₂+X₃+X₄+X₅ ≥ 3b) X₄ - X₃ ≥ 0c) X₁+X₅ ≤ 1d) 100X₁+200X₂+150X₃+75X₄+300X₅ ≤ 450e) X₁+X₂+X₃ ≤ 2f) Maximize 400X₁+100X₂+265X₃+80X₄+100X₅The procedure a company uses to assess possible big projects or investments is called capital budgeting. Before a project is accepted or denied, capital budgeting is necessary. Examples of such projects include the construction of a new plant or a significant investment in a third party enterprise.
A business may examine the lifetime cash inflows and outflows of a planned project as part of capital planning to ascertain whether the projected returns will satisfy an adequate goal benchmark. The practise of capital budgeting is sometimes referred to as investment assessment.
The constraints for each of the conditions are following:
a) Choose no fewer than three projects:
X₁+X₂+X₃+X₄+X₅ ≥ 3
b) If project 3 is chosen, project 4 must be chosen:
X₄ - X₃ ≥ 0
c) If project l 1s chosen, project 5 must not be chosen:
X₁+X₅ ≤ 1
d) Projects cost $100, 200, 150, 75, and 300:
100X₁+200X₂+150X₃+75X₄+300X₅ ≤ 450
e) No more than two of projects 1, 2, and 3 can be chosen:
X₁+X₂+X₃ ≤ 2
f) the revenues generated by the projects:
Maximize 400X₁+100X₂+265X₃+80X₄+100X₅
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Randy promises to give Stewart her iPod in exchange for Stewart's promise to pay Randy $50. This bilateral contract was created when
a. Stewart promised to pay Randy $50.
b. Randy offered to sell her iPod to Stewart.
c. Stewart became aware that Randy was willing to sell her iPod.
d. Randy decided to sell her iPod.
Randy promises to give Stewart her iPod in exchange for Stewart's promise to pay Randy $50. This bilateral contract was created when Randy decided to sell her iPod. option d is correct.
The bilateral contract is an agreement where two parties promise each other to perform an act. It is also known as a two-sided contract. Randy promises to give her iPod to Stewart while Stewart promises to pay Randy $50. Both parties have to fulfill their promises for this contract to be valid.This bilateral contract was created when Randy decided to sell her iPod. The act of selling the iPod is the consideration on Randy's part. The consideration on Stewart's part is the promise to pay $50. The contract is valid when both parties make a promise and receive some form of consideration.Randy's promise to give Stewart her iPod is the offer, while Stewart's promise to pay $50 is the acceptance. Once both parties fulfill their promises, the contract is executed. If either party fails to perform their obligations, the other party can take legal action against them.In conclusion, Randy and Stewart have created a bilateral contract where Randy promises to give her iPod to Stewart in exchange for Stewart's promise to pay $50. This contract is valid because both parties have made a promise and received some form of consideration. If either party fails to fulfill their obligations, the other party can take legal action against them.For more such question on bilateral
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which of the following are high-energy people who enjoy handling every detail of their own businesses?
Answer:
entrepreneurs
Explanation:
because I said so.
true/false. one lesson learned from the airlines and differentiation is that the company must find areas of higher value that are highly visible to the employees.
True, The business must identify areas of higher value that are strongly apparent to the personnel, according to one lesson learnt from the airlines and differentiation.
When a business, product, or service differentiates itself from the competition, it either meets a specific consumer need, has unique traits that are not often available, or provides superior service to a particular target market. The following are a few examples of distinctive factors: marketing, packaging, pricing, and product design. A plan for differentiating a product should show that it has all the qualities of rival options while also offering unique extra benefits that no other product can. Differentiating their products helps businesses acquire market share and a competitive edge. A product's special features are commonly mentioned in the product name, advertising, and packaging.
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many worry that the official cpi inflation rate overstates true inflation because the cpi doesn't adequately account for
Inflation, in simple words, is the increase in the cost of goods and services over time. To measure inflation, an index is used that is called the consumer price index or CPI. This index helps to measure the change in prices of the goods and services that an average household consumes.
However, many people worry that the official CPI inflation rate overstates true inflation because the CPI does not adequately account for various factors that influence inflation.Inflation is caused by various factors like demand-pull, cost-push, and built-in inflation. Demand-pull inflation occurs when demand for goods and services exceeds the supply of goods and services.As a result, producers increase prices to maintain their profit margins. Cost-push inflation occurs when the cost of increases, which is passed on to the consumers in the form of higher prices. Built-in inflation occurs when workers demand higher wages to keep up with the rising prices of goods and services.The CPI measures the prices of goods and services that an average household consumes. However, it does not take into account the prices of goods and services that are consumed by businesses, the government, and foreigners. This can lead to an overestimation of inflation as the prices of goods and services consumed by businesses, the government, and foreigners may not increase at the same rate as the prices of goods and services consumed by households.Another limitation of the CPI is that it does not adequately account for changes in the quality of goods and services. If the quality of goods and services increases over time, the CPI may not reflect the true increase in the value of those goods and services. This can lead to an underestimation of inflation.In conclusion, the CPI is a useful measure of inflation, but it has its limitations. The CPI does not adequately account for various factors that influence inflation, such as changes in the quality of goods and services and the prices of goods and services consumed by businesses, the government, and foreigners. As a result, many people worry that the official CPI inflation rate overstates true inflation.for more such question on consumers
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Note: the annual percentage rate of change in the price level
budgeted performance considers all of the following in relation to a benchmark: (select all that apply).
Budgeted performance considers all of the following in relation to a benchmark company factors, industry factors, economic factors
Performance budgets take into account the resources that are consumed and the services that are produced for each department or unit of an organisation. They are designed to motivate workers to put in a lot of effort and get desirable results. The likelihood of conflicting priorities for expenditures and the lack of uniform cost criteria are negatives. A performance budget is one that pertains to programmes, functions, and performance and takes into account the expected expenses and income of corporations, the government, or statutory organisations.
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The _____ in a survey is simply the percentage of people who were selected in the sample who actually completed the survey.
The completion rate in a survey is simply the percentage of people who were selected in the sample who actually completed the survey.
A survey is an essential tool used in research to collect data from a specific population. It is a process that involves designing, implementing, and analyzing data from a sample of respondents. To ensure that the data collected is accurate and reliable, it is essential to have a high response rate. The completion rate is an important metric used to evaluate the success of a survey.The completion rate is the proportion of people who complete a survey compared to the number of people who are invited to participate. It is typically expressed as a percentage. For example, if 100 people are invited to participate in a survey and 80 complete the survey, the completion rate is 80%.
The completion rate is an important metric because it provides insights into the quality of the data collected. A low completion rate may indicate that the survey was not well-designed or that the questions were not relevant to the respondents. It may also indicate that the survey was too long, making it difficult for respondents to complete it. In contrast, a high completion rate indicates that the survey was well-designed and that the questions were relevant to the respondents. It also suggests that the survey was easy to complete, making it more likely that respondents will provide accurate and reliable data.
In conclusion, the completion rate is an important metric used to evaluate the success of a survey. It is simply the percentage of people who were selected in the sample who actually completed the survey. A high completion rate is desirable because it provides insights into the quality of the data collected.
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Below is the company data for Apple Inc, currently being traded on the US markets. The measures are stated om millions of USD currency.
· Cash & marketable securities $165
· Fixed assets $286
· Net sales $1320
· Earnings Before Interests and Taxes (EBIT) $143
· Net Earnings After Taxes (NEAT ) $ 66
· Quick Ratio ((CA-Inventory)/CL) 2.1 to 1
· Current Ratio (CA/CL) 3.4 to 1
· Average Collection Period (ACP) 45.60 days
· Return on Equity (ROE, NEAT/Net Common Equity) 13%
· Tax rate 25%
For Apples Liabilities & Equity side, they only report common equity, debt and current operating liabilities.
Based on the detailed information above, find the following calculations;
· (1) Accounts Receivables, (2) Current Operating Liabilities, (3) Current Assets, (4) Total Assets, (5) Net Common Equity, and (6) Debt. (10 marks)
· With the increase in online commerce, assume Apple has decreased its ACP by 15.60 days (i.e., totaling 30 days) while holding all other variables constant, how much cash could they generate? (10 marks).
· What is Apple’s ROIC (post-tax) ? (10 marks)
The ROIC of the given transaction is given as 8.05%
What is a Journal Entry?A journal entry is the act of recording any transaction, whether one that is economic or not.
An accounting diary that displays the debit and credit balances of a corporation lists transactions. Several recordings, each of which is either a debit or a credit, may be included in the journal entry.
The net common equity is $508 and the total assets is $155
The current assets is $534, the accounts receivable is $165
If the average collection period decreased by 15.60 days, the additional generated cash would be $56
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The image below contains the journal of the given data
Consider the following disease scenarios, and determine the correct mode of transmission for each by dragging the labels to the appropriate description.
- Syphillis from unprotected sex
- Lyme disease
- Salmonellosis from egg salad at a picnic
- Chickenpox from one child coughing on another
- Hepatitis B from needle sharing
- MRSA
We can see here the disease scenarios, and their correct mode of transmission:
Syphilis from unprotected sex: Sexual transmissionLyme disease: Vector-borne transmission (tick bite)Salmonellosis from egg salad at a picnic: Foodborne transmissionChickenpox from one child coughing on another: Airborne transmissionHepatitis B from needle sharing: Parenteral transmission (through blood or bodily fluids)MRSA: Direct contact transmission (skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated objects)What is a disease?A disease is a particular abnormal condition that affects the body or mind of an organism, often characterized by specific symptoms and signs. It can be caused by various factors such as infections, genetic mutations, lifestyle choices, environmental factors, or a combination of these factors.
Diseases can range from minor ailments such as a common cold to more serious and life-threatening conditions such as cancer or heart disease.
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determine which of the statements below accurately describe services provided by a bank. (check all that apply.)
Option c, d, e: The statements that provide the bank services are that the depositors can use checks for withdrawing money, a record set up by a bank, and a deposit in a bank supported by/means a deposit ticket.
A bank account is a facility provided by a bank that allows account holders to make deposits.
Services that bank provide to account holders include opening a savings or checking account at any time, withdrawing funds by check, monthly statements to track money, coins, bills, time deposits It includes depositing funds in the form of functions, etc.
The descriptions provided in the last three options therefore describe the services provided by the bank.
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Complete question:
Determine which of the statements below accurately describe services provided by a bank. (Check all that apply.) Multiple select question.
a: Each bank deposit is supported by a check.
b: To limit access to a bank account, all persons authorized to write checks on the account must sign a deposit slip.
c: To withdraw money from an account, the depositor can use a check.
d: A bank account is a record set up by a bank for a customer.
e: Each bank deposit is supported by a deposit ticket.
The NIST risk management approach includes all but which of the following elements?
a.
inform
b.
frame
c.
assess
d.
respond
The NIST risk management approach includes all of the following elements: risk identification, risk assessment, risk response, risk monitoring, and risk communication. Option D
However, it does not include compliance, which is the process of meeting certain legal, regulatory, or ethical requirements.
Risk identification involves analyzing the sources of potential risk, assessing their impact, and determining their likelihood of occurrence. Risk assessment evaluates and quantifies the risks. Risk response plans determine the best way to respond to the risks, such as by avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting them. Risk monitoring involves tracking the risks over time and taking corrective action if needed. Risk communication is the process of sharing information about the risks with all stakeholders.
Overall, the NIST risk management approach does not include compliance as one of its elements. Option D
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by ensuring that nominal payments keep pace with rising prices, market participants can protect themselves from
By ensuring that nominal payments keep pace with rising prices, market participants can protect themselves from C. Inflation.
What is inflation ?Inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, and as prices rise, the purchasing power of money declines.
When nominal payments, such as wages, salaries, interest rates, and rental payments, do not keep pace with inflation, the real value of those payments declines, and individuals and businesses are not able to purchase as much with their money as they could before. This can lead to a decrease in standard of living and a reduction in economic growth.
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Options for this question include:
A. Interest B. Unemployment C. Inflation D. LossesI think the answer is a but I am not quite sure
One of your clients regularly trades options. The customer feels that QRS is going to remain relatively stable or have a slight downturn and he decides to sell 1 QRS May 55 call for $2.50 when QRS is at $54.50. About a month later, the customer receives an exercise notice when QRS is trading at $60.75 per share. In terms of the exercise, what price will the client report for tax purposes in relation to the price at which the stock is sold to the buyer of the call?
The customer will report the exercise price of the call option for tax purposes as the price at which the stock is sold to the buyer of the call. In this case, the customer will report a price of $60.75 per share for tax purposes.
When the customer sells the call option, he/she agrees to sell the underlying stock at the strike price of $55 if the buyer decides to exercise their option. Since the current market price of the underlying stock is higher than the strike price at the time of exercise, the buyer of the call will exercise the option and buy the underlying stock at the strike price of $55.
Therefore, the customer will report a price of $60.75 per share for tax purposes since this is the price at which the stock was sold to the buyer of the call. This is referred to as the "exercise price" of the call option and is used to calculate any capital gains or losses resulting from the option trade.
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