The entrance fee to a local waterpark is $34 per person. At the waterpark, you can rent a raft for $1.50 per hour. Which expression is equivalent to the amount it would cost Leah for h hours in the park if she rented a raft?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Prime factorize.

60 = 2 *2 * 3 * 5     = 2² * 3 * 5

40 = 2 * 2 * 2 *5     = 2³ *       5

90 = 2 * 3 * 3 * 5    = 2 * 3² * 5

LCM = 2³ * 3² * 5 = 8 * 9 * 5 = 360

Answer:

x = 3 , x = -5

Step-by-step explanation:

Given x^2 +2x=15 add 1 to both sides to get:

x^2 + 2x + 1 =16

(x+1)^2 = 16

x + 1 = ± [tex]\sqrt{16}[/tex] = ± 4

x = -1 ± 4

x = 3 or x = -5

Answer:

let the angle be x then other angle is 4x

so,

x + 4x = 180

5x = 180

x = 36

so other angle I.e 4x = 4 × 36 = 144

Let one angle be x

Both are linear pair hence their sum will be 180

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x+4x=180[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto 5x=180[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x=\dfrac{180}{5}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto x=30[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf \longmapsto 5x=5(30)=150[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Soln

Given

Cp of 1 glass tumbler=80.1000

=Rs 80000

Number of broken glass tumbler=50

Number of remaining glass tumbler=1000-50

=950

Sp of one glass tumbler=96

Sp of 950 glass tumbler=96.950

=91200

Now

Sp > Cp so it is profit

Profit%=sp-cp/cp.100

=91200-80000/80000.100

=11200/80000.100

=14%

Answer:

14%profit

Step-by-step explanation:

Cost of 1000 tumblers=1000×80=80,000

50 of them were broken: 1000-50=950

: He sells 950 tumblers of rs.96 each= ( 950×96)

S.P=91200

We can clearly see he gains for rs.11200.

P%=gain/C.P×100

11200×80000×100

=14%

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

(6x3=18)  (6x1/3=2)  (18+2=20)

First things first!

Multiply 6 by 3 (18).

Mulitply 6 by 1/3 (2).

Add 18 and 2, and ... *drum roll*, the final answer is 20!

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

a2 – b2 = (a – b)(a + b)

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 – 2ab

(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2

(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca

(a – b – c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 – 2ab + 2bc – 2ca

(a + b)3 = a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3 ; (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

(a – b)3 = a3 – 3a2b + 3ab2 – b3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab(a – b)

a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2)

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 – ab + b2)

(a + b)4 = a4 + 4a3b + 6a2b2 + 4ab3 + b4

(a – b)4 = a4 – 4a3b + 6a2b2 – 4ab3 + b4

a4 – b4 = (a – b)(a + b)(a2 + b2)

a5 – b5 = (a – b)(a4 + a3b + a2b2 + ab3 + b4

Answer:

a2 – b2 = (a – b)(a + b)

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 – 2ab

(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2

(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca

(a – b – c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 – 2ab + 2bc – 2ca

(a + b)3 = a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3 ; (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

(a – b)3 = a3 – 3a2b + 3ab2 – b3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab(a – b)

a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2)

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 – ab + b2)

(a + b)4 = a4 + 4a3b + 6a2b2 + 4ab3 + b4

(a – b)4 = a4 – 4a3b + 6a2b2 – 4ab3 + b4

a4 – b4 = (a – b)(a + b)(a2 + b2)

a5 – b5 = (a – b)(a4 + a3b + a2b2 + ab3 + b4)

Answer:

answer is - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

- x + y = 3

x = 4

- ( - 4 ) + y = 3

4 + y = 3. take 4 to the right

y = 3 - 4

y = - 1

I hope this answers your question.

Answer:

5n

Step-by-step explanation:

cost of one helmet = $5

let 'n' be the number of person that is n=1,2,3,4........

note that the value of n is always a natural number

therefore the expression = 5n

where 5 is the cost one helmet

n is the number of persons

Answer:

Hello,

Step-by-step explanation:

n! + (n-1)!

=(n-1)! * n+ (n-1)!

=(n-1)! * (n+1)

Answer:

aslo bien jjjjjjj

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Values of y are decreasing where x is in the range (-4;02)

Answer:

The bigger angle is 144 degrees and the smaller one is 36 degrees

Answer: Third Choice. Thousandths

Step-by-step explanation:

Concept:

Here, we need to know the order and name of each place value.

Please refer to the attachment below for the specified names.

Solve:

STEP ONE: Orde and name each place

2 ⇒ One Thousands

4 ⇒ Hundreds

5 ⇒ Tens

6 ⇒ Ones

.

1 ⇒ Tenths

3 ⇒ Hundredths

8 ⇒ One Thousandths

7 ⇒ Ten Thousandths

STEP TWO: Find the number [8] in the number

As we can see from the list above, 8 is at the right of the decimal point, thus, the place value is Thousandths.

Hope this helps!! :)

Please let me know if you have any questions

Answer:

6, 7

Step-by-step explanation:

6 x 7 = 42

Answer:

The Constant is 9/2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Xét tam giác DAB có: P là trung điểm AD, M là trung điểm AB

=> MP là đường trung bình của tam giác DAB => MP//BD và MP=[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]BD  (1)

Xét tam giác DBC có: N là trung điểm DC, Q là trung điểm BC

=> QN là đường trung bình của tam giác DBC => QN//BD và QN=[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]BD  (2)

Từ (1) và (2) => vecto MP song song cùng chiều với vecto QN

và độ dài MP = độ dài QN = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]BD

=> vecto MP = vecto QN

Tương tự xét các tam giác DAC và tam giác ABC => vecto MQ = vecto PN

Answer:

[tex]x = - 8[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First,Step write the given equation.

[tex] \frac{x}{2} + 7 = 3[/tex]

In Algebra, we learn how to solve for a missing term called a variable. We must use inverse operations to undo terms to isolate our variable. Inverse operations means that we do the opposite of the given.

For example, say we have a equation

[tex]x + 2 = 3[/tex]

We would subtract 2 from both sides. E.g( remember the golden rule of algebra). What we do to one side, we do the other. This applies when we solving for a variable.

This means that

[tex]x = 1[/tex]

And if we substitute 1 in for x, it is indeed true.

[tex]1 + 2 = 3 = 3[/tex]

Now, back to the question.

[tex] \frac{x}{2} + 7 = 3[/tex]

First, we subtract 7 from both sides to get rid of the 7 on the left side. Also remeber to undo terms that aren't included in the variable when solving these problems.

So now we got

[tex] \frac{x}{2} = - 4[/tex]

Then we multiply 2 by both sides since that the opposite of division.

[tex] \frac{x}{2} \times 2 = x = -4 \times 2 = - 8[/tex]

So this means that

[tex]x = - 8[/tex]

If we plug this in, this is true.

[tex] \frac{ - 8}{2} + 7 = 3[/tex]

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

following PEMDAS, we don't have () so we move on to exponents

5^2 is equal to 5 x 5 which is 25

40-25=15

[tex]\huge\textsf{Hey there!}[/tex]

[tex]\large\textsf{40 - 5}\mathsf{^2}\\\\\\\large\textsf{5}\mathsf{^2}\\\large\textsf{= 5}\times\large\textsf{5}\\\large\textsf{= \bf 25}\\\\\\\large\textsf{= 40 - 25}\\\\\\\large\textsf{= \bf 15}\\\\\\\\\\\\\boxed{\boxed{\huge\textsf{Therefore your answer is: \bf 15}}}\huge\checkmark[/tex]

[tex]\huge\textsf{Good luck on your assignment \& enjoy your day!}[/tex]

~[tex]\textsf{Amphitrite1040:)}[/tex]

Answer:

This question seems to be asking for the work, so I put it below.

Anyhow, Marla had 3.5 candies, and Ron had 10.5.

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 3x - 7  (lets set this as "a")   { a = 3x - 7}

x + 7 = 3x -7 + 7

x + 7 = 3x

( x + 7 ) / 3 = 3/3x

( x + 7 ) / 3 = x     =    *(same as "a") {a}

( x + 7 ) / 3 = 3x - 7

( x + 7 ) / 3 * 3 = ( 3x - 7 ) * 3

x + 7 = 9x - 21

x - x + 7 = 9x - x - 21

7 = 8x - 21

7 + 21 = 8x - 21 + 21

28 = 8x

28 / 8 = 8/8x

3.5 = x

We can plug this back into the original equation and find that it is correct because:

x = 3x - 7

x = 3.5  =====

3.5 = 3( 3.5 ) - 7

3.5 = 10.5 - 7

3.5 = 3.5

Answer:

Marla has 7 and Ron has 21

Step-by-step explanation:

lets take

no. of candies Marla has as "x"

and no. of  candies Ron has will be "3x"

Marla says if Ron gives her seven candies, they will have the same no. of candies

so your equation will be -

x + 7 = 3x - 7 (as Marla gets the candy, Ron loses the candy)

3x - x = 7 + 7

2x = 14

∴x = 7

and 3x = 3 x 7 = 21

YOUR WELCOME

====================================================

Explanation:

The two smaller triangles are proportional, which lets us set up this equation

5/n = n/15

Cross multiplying leads to

5*15 = n*n

n^2 = 75

----------

Apply the pythagorean theorem on the smaller triangle on top, or on the right.

a^2+b^2 = c^2

5^2+n^2 = m^2

25+75 = m^2

100 = m^2

m^2 = 100

m = sqrt(100)

m = 10

7n-16

Step-by-step explanation:

Sry can u give me the picture

Answer:

2(2)+7=11

2(3)+7=13

2(4)+7=15

2(5)+7=17

2(9)+7=25

Step-by-step explanation:

2(2)+7

4+7=11

2(3)+7

6+7=13

2(4)+7

8+7=15

2(5)+7

10+7=17

2(9)+7

18+7=25

Step-by-step explanation:

Eueydhhdgdgdbdbddbdbhd

Answer:

Hello,

[tex]R=\dfrac{18}{\pi}\ (cm)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]Formula: \ L=\theta*R\\[/tex]

[tex]R=\dfrac{6}{\dfrac{\pi}{3} } =\dfrac{6*3}{\pi} =\dfrac{18}{\pi}\ (cm)[/tex]

Answer:

In recreational mathematics, a square array of numbers, usually positive integers, is called a magic square if the sums of the numbers in each row, each column, and both main diagonals are the same.[1][2] The order of the magic square is the number of integers along one side (n), and the constant sum is called the magic constant. If the array includes just the positive integers {\displaystyle 1,2,...,n^{2}}{\displaystyle 1,2,...,n^{2}}, the magic square is said to be normal. Some authors take magic square to mean normal magic square.[3]

The smallest (and unique up to rotation and reflection) non-trivial case of a magic square, order 3

Magic squares that include repeated entries do not fall under this definition and are referred to as trivial. Some well-known examples, including the Sagrada Família magic square and the Parker square are trivial in this sense. When all the rows and columns but not both diagonals sum to the magic constant we have semimagic squares (sometimes called orthomagic squares).

The mathematical study of magic squares typically deals with its construction, classification, and enumeration. Although completely general methods for producing all the magic squares of all orders do not exist, historically three general techniques have been discovered: by bordering method, by making composite magic squares, and by adding two preliminary squares. There are also more specific strategies like the continuous enumeration method that reproduces specific patterns. Magic squares are generally classified according to their order n as: odd if n is odd, evenly even (also referred to as "doubly even") if n is a multiple of 4, oddly even (also known as "singly even") if n is any other even number. This classification is based on different techniques required to construct odd, evenly even, and oddly even squares. Beside this, depending on further properties, magic squares are also classified as associative magic squares, pandiagonal magic squares, most-perfect magic squares, and so on. More challengingly, attempts have also been made to classify all the magic squares of a given order as transformations of a smaller set of squares. Except for n ≤ 5, the enumeration of higher order magic squares is still an open challenge. The enumeration of most-perfect magic squares of any order was only accomplished in the late 20th century.

Magic squares have a long history, dating back to at least 190 BCE in China. At various times they have acquired occult or mythical significance, and have appeared as symbols in works of art. In modern times they have been generalized a number of ways, including using extra or different constraints, multiplying instead of adding cells, using alternate shapes or more than two dimensions, and replacing numbers with shapes and addition with geometric operations.

The sum area of shaded region​ is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex].

The formula to find the sum of infinite geometric progression is

[tex]S_{n}=\frac{a_{1}(1-q^{n}) }{1-q} \ \ q \ne 1[/tex]

Given

S = [tex]\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{16} +\frac{1}{64} +.........[/tex]

Using geometric progression

S = [tex]\lim_{h \to \infty} [\frac{1}{4} +(\frac{1}{4} )^{2} +(\frac{1}{4} )^{3} +.........+(\frac{1}{4} )^{n}][/tex]

Using summation formula for geometric progression

[tex]S_{n}=\frac{a_{1}(1-q^{n}) }{1-q} \ \ q \ne 1[/tex]

= [tex]\lim_{h \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{4} (1-(\frac{1}{4} )^{n} }{1-\frac{1}{4} }[/tex]

= [tex]\lim_{h \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{4} (1-\frac{1}{4^{n} }) }{\frac{3}{4} }[/tex]

= [tex]\lim_{h\to \infty} \frac{1}{3}(1-\frac{1}{4^{n} } )[/tex]

[tex]\lim_{h\to \infty} \frac{1}{4^{n} }[/tex] = 0

S  = [tex]\frac{1}{3}(1-0) = \frac{1}{3}[/tex]

The sum area of shaded region​ is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex].

Find out more information about summation formula for geometric progression here

brainly.com/question/27438806

#SPJ2

Answer:

y-intercept is 0, x-intercept is 0 and 1

Step-by-step explanation:

For y-intercept, x=0 :

[tex]{ \tt{y = {(0)}^{2} - 2(0) }} \\ { \tt{y = 0}}[/tex]

For x-intercept, y=0 :

[tex]{ \tt{0 = {2x}^{2} - 2x }} \\ { \tt{2x(x - 1) = 0}} \\ { \tt{x = 0 \: \: and \: \: 1}}[/tex]

Answer:

-3/2 >x

Step-by-step explanation:

-5-15>10+20x

Combine like terms

-20 > 10 +20x

Subtract 20 from each side

-20 -10 > 10+20x-10

-30> 20x

Divide by 20

-30/20 >20x/20

-3/2 >x

Answer:

-3/2 > x

Step-by-step explanation:

-5 - 15 > 10 + 20x

 ^    ^

  -20

-20 > 10 + 20x

-10    -10

---------------------

-30 > 20x

-----   -------

20     20

-3/2 > x

Hope this helped.

msin²x+cos²x=m-1

since the interval are 0 and π/4

Therefore

msin²(0)+cos²(0)=m-1

m(0)+1=m-1

1=m-1

m=2

use π/4 now

msin²(π/4)+cos²(π/4)=m-1

m(1/2)+(1/2)=m-1

m+1=2(m-1)

m+1=2m-2

-m=-3

m=3

Therefore

m=2 or 3

Answer: x ≥ 87

Step-by-step explanation:

Set the minimum score on the next test as x & calculate it:

[tex]\frac{75+78+89+71+x}{5} =80\\\\75+78+89+71+x=80(5)\\\\313+x=400\\\\x=400-313=87[/tex]

So they need at least a score of 87 for the average to be 80+.

Answer:

x ≥ 87

Step-by-step explanation: