(a) Computation of price and efficiency variances for direct materials and direct labor:Direct Material VariancesParticularsActual cost of direct materials purchased (100,000 kg × $ 4/kg)$400,000Standard cost of direct materials allowed for the output (12,000 units × 5 kg per unit × $ 3 per kg)$180,000Direct material price variance (DM purchase price - DM standard price) × DM purchased quantity$ 20,000 U[($ 4-$ 3) × 100,000]Direct material usage variance (Standard quantity of DM allowed for actual production - Actual quantity of DM used) × Standard cost per unit of DM$ 37,500 F[($ 5-$ 4) × 35,000]Direct material efficiency variance (Standard quantity of DM allowed for actual production - Standard quantity of DM allowed for actual production) × Standard cost per unit of DM$ 2,500 F[($ 5-$ 4) × 12,000 × 5]Direct Labor VariancesParticularsActual direct labor cost (22,000 hours × $ 9/hour)$198,000Standard direct labor cost (12,000 units × 2.5 hours per unit × $ 10 per hour)$300,000Direct labor rate variance (Actual direct labor rate - Standard direct labor rate) × Actual direct labor hours$ 22,000 U[($ 9-$ 10) × 22,000]Direct labor efficiency variance (Standard direct labor hours for actual production - Actual direct labor hours) × Standard direct labor rate$ 80,000 F[($ 10 × 12,000) - $ 198,000]b) Journal entries for recording the price and efficiency variances for direct materials and direct labor:ParticularsDebit ($)Credit ($)Direct Material Price Variance Account$20,000Accounts Payable Control Account$20,000(To record the DM price variance)Direct Material Usage Variance Account$37,500Raw Material Inventory Account$37,500(To record the DM usage variance)Direct Labor Rate Variance Account$22,000Salaries and Wages Payable Account$22,000(To record the DL rate variance)Direct Labor Efficiency Variance Account$80,000Salaries and Wages Payable Account$80,000(To record the DL efficiency variance)
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Consider a company whose long run total cost function is LTC=200q-20q+q² and whose marginal cost function is LMC = 200-40q+3q² a. Find the quantity where LAC is at a minimum. b. (10 pt) What is the lowest possible average cost?
it doesn't make sense to have a negative quantity, so we discard this solution.
To find the quantity where the long-run average cost (LAC) is at a minimum, we need to differentiate the long-run total cost (LTC) function with respect to quantity (q) and set it equal to zero.
LTC = 200q - 20q + q^2
To find the derivative, we differentiate each term separately:
dLTC/dq = 200 - 20 + 2q
Setting the derivative equal to zero and solving for q:
200 - 20 + 2q = 0
2q = 20 - 200
2q = -180
q = -180/2
q = -90
However, it doesn't make sense to have a negative quantity, so we discard this solution.
In this case, the long-run average cost function does not have a minimum. It is an upward-sloping curve, indicating that the average cost increases as the quantity produced increases. This means that there is no specific quantity at which the average cost is at a minimum.
Moving on to part b, the lowest possible average cost can be found by calculating the average cost at different quantities and selecting the minimum value.
The average cost (AC) is calculated by dividing the total cost (TC) by the quantity (q):
AC = LTC/q
Substituting the long-run total cost function:
AC = (200q - 20q + q^2)/q
AC = 200 - 20 + q
To find the lowest possible average cost, we need to minimize the AC function. Since the AC function is a linear function with a positive slope, the lowest average cost will occur at the minimum value of q.
However, since we have already determined that the LTC function does not have a minimum, there is no specific quantity at which the average cost is at a minimum. The lowest possible average cost will depend on the specific quantity produced and the corresponding costs associated with that quantity.
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A widely used activity base for developing factory overhead rates in highly automated settings is: direct labor hours direct labor dollars direct materials machine hours Which types of inventories docs a manufacturing business report on the balance sheet? Finished goods inventory and work in process inventory Direct materials inventory and work in process inventory Direct materials inventory, work in process inventory, and finished goods inventory Direct materials inventory and finished goods inventory At the beginning of the period, the Cutting Department budgeted direct labor of $155,000. direct material of $165,000 and fixed factory overhead of $15,000 for 9,000 hours of production. The department actually completed 10,000 hours of production. What is the appropriate total budget for the department, assuming it uses flexible budgeting. $416,000 $370, 556 $368, 889 $335,000 The first budget customarily prepared as part of an entity's master budget is the: production budget cash budget sales budget direct materials purchases Motorcycle Manufactures, Inc projected sales of 76,000 machines for 2012. The estimated January 1, 2012, inventory is 6, 500 units, and the desired December 31, 2012. .memory is 7,000 units. What is the budgeted production (in units) for 2012?
A widely used activity base for developing factory overhead rates in highly automated settings is machine hours.In a manufacturing business, the types of inventories that are reported on the balance sheet are Direct materials inventory, Work-in-process inventory, and Finished goods inventory.
The appropriate total budget for the department, assuming it uses flexible budgeting is $370, 556.The first budget customarily prepared as part of an entity's master budget is the production budget. The budgeted production (in units) for 2012 is 76,500. Calculation of the solution:The total budget can be calculated using the formula given below:Total budget = Direct Labor + Direct Material + Fixed Factory Overhead + Variable Factory Overhead= $155,000 + $165,000 + $15,000 + [(10,000 - 9,000) * $35]= $370, 556.
Therefore, the appropriate total budget for the department, assuming it uses flexible budgeting is $370, 556.The budgeted production (in units) for 2012 can be calculated using the formula given below:Budgeted Production = Desired Ending Inventory + Units Required for Sale - Beginning Inventory= 7,000 + 76,000 - 6,500= 76,500Therefore, the budgeted production (in units) for 2012 is 76,500.
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There was a car accident involving Peter Hampton and Beyonce. Hampton sues Beyonce for negligence resulting from the car accident, and Beyonce countersues Hampton also for negligence. At the trial, it is determined that Hampton’s negligence was 60% responsible for the accident, and Beyonce’s negligence was 40% responsible for the accident. Hampton’s losses totaled $20,000, and Beyonce’s losses totaled $40,000. Under a pure comparative negligence system, how much will Hampton recover? How much will Beyonce recover? ___________________
Based on the share, it should be noted that Hampton will recover $8,000, and Beyonce will recover $24,000.
How to calculate the amountIn order to calculate the amount Hampton will recover, we need to determine his proportionate share of the losses. Since Hampton's losses totaled $20,000, his recovery will be reduced by his degree of negligence. Therefore, Hampton will recover 40% of his losses, which is $20,000 x 0.40 = $8,000.
Similarly, to calculate the amount Beyonce will recover, we need to determine her proportionate share of the losses. Since Beyonce's losses totaled $40,000, her recovery will also be reduced by her degree of negligence. Therefore, Beyonce will recover 60% of her losses, which is:
$40,000 x 0.60
= $24,000.
So, Hampton will recover $8,000, and Beyonce will recover $24,000.
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In Bill’s product workshop, a particular job, known as SG45, consumed £9,300 of materials, and incurred 80 hours of direct labour, as well as 40 machine-hours, during November 20X3. The relevant total production data during November 20X3 were as follows. Production department Direct wages (£) 240,000 Budgeted overheads chargeable (£) 180,000 Direct labour hours worked 12,000 Machine hours operated 6,000 Required: Calculate, to the nearest £, the total production cost of job SG45 if overheads are absorbed on the basis of machine-hours
Calculation of total production cost of job SG45 if overheads are absorbed on the basis of machine-hours is given below;
Overhead absorption rate = Budgeted overheads chargeable / Machine hours operated= £180,000 / 6,000 hours= £30/hour Direct labour cost = Direct labour hours worked × Direct wages per hour= 12,000 × £20= £240,000Machine cost = Machine hours × Overhead absorption rate per hour= 40 × £30= £1,200
Material cost = £9,300Total production cost of job SG45= Direct labour cost + Machine cost + Material cost= £240,000 + £1,200 + £9,300= £250,500Therefore, the total production cost of job SG45 if overheads are absorbed on the basis of machine-hours is £250,500.
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An investor will receive an annuity of $4,000 a year for ten years. The first payment is to be received five years from today. At a 9% discount rate, this annuity's worth today is closest to:
Group of answer choices
a. $25,671
b. $18,186
c. $16,684
The closest option is (a) $25,671.To calculate the present value of an annuity
we can use the formula:
PV = PMT * (1 - (1 + r)^(-n)) / r
Where:
PV = Present value
PMT = Payment per period
r = Discount rate
n = Number of periods
In this case, the payment per period (PMT) is $4,000, the discount rate (r) is 9%, and the number of periods (n) is 10.
Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
PV = $4,000 * (1 - (1 + 0.09)^(-10)) / 0.09
Calculating this, we find that the present value of the annuity is approximately $25,671.
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A researcher mistakenly uses deseasonalized data in calculating the seasonal factors. If she found apparent seasonal behavior, this is best attributed to:
a. random noise.
b. the business cycle.
c. seasonality.
d. trend.
e. None of the options are correct.
The best explanation for the observed behavior is seasonality, as deseasonalized data does not account for seasonal patterns. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
The apparent seasonal behavior observed in the deseasonalized data is best attributed to seasonality. Seasonality refers to regular and predictable fluctuations that occur within a specific time period, such as daily, weekly, monthly, or yearly patterns. These patterns can be influenced by various factors, including weather, holidays, cultural events, and consumer behavior. By mistakenly using deseasonalized data, the researcher might have removed the seasonal component, leading to the observation of underlying seasonality in the data.
Random noise (A) refers to unpredictable and irregular variations that do not follow any specific pattern. The business cycle (B) refers to the fluctuations in economic activity over a period of time, typically characterized by expansion, peak, contraction, and trough phases. Trend (D) represents the long-term direction of data, indicating a consistent increase or decrease. In this case, the best explanation for the observed behavior is seasonality, as deseasonalized data does not account for seasonal patterns. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
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The graph below represents the cost and revenue situation for the Bagel Company. PRICE (Dollars per bagel) MC $7.00 ATC $5.50 $4.00 1 1 $2.00 Demand IMR 1 160 230 280 QUANTITY (Bagels) a) Is the market one of perfect or imperfect competition? How do we know? b) What is the profit maximizing quantity of bagels produced per time period? c) What is the profit situation for the company at this output level? d) In the light of your answer to the previous question, would you advise the company to produce bagels where unit or average costs are at a minimum?
a) Based on the information provided, we can determine whether the market is one of perfect or imperfect competition by analyzing the characteristics of perfect competition. In perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers, homogeneous products, perfect information, and easy market entry and exit.
From the graph, we can see that the market demand curve is downward-sloping, indicating that there are multiple buyers for the bagels. However, we don't have information about the number of sellers or the presence of homogeneous products. Without this information, we cannot definitively determine whether the market is one of perfect or imperfect competition.
b) The profit-maximizing quantity of bagels produced per time period can be determined by finding the quantity where marginal cost (MC) equals marginal revenue (MR). In the graph, MC is represented by the curve labeled "MC," and the demand curve is labeled "Demand."
To find the profit-maximizing quantity, we look for the point where MC intersects with MR. In this case, it occurs at a quantity of 230 bagels. Thus, the profit-maximizing quantity of bagels produced per time period is 230.
c) To determine the profit situation for the company at this output level, we compare the average total cost (ATC) to the price. In the graph, ATC is represented by the curve labeled "ATC."
At the profit-maximizing quantity of 230 bagels, we find the corresponding point on the demand curve. If the price exceeds the ATC at that quantity, the company is making a profit. However, if the price is less than the ATC, the company is incurring a loss.
Based on the graph, the price is above the ATC at the profit-maximizing quantity of 230 bagels. Therefore, the company is making a profit at this output level.
d) In light of the company's profit situation at the current output level, where it is making a profit, it would be advisable to continue producing bagels. Producing bagels at a quantity where unit or average costs are at a minimum (minimum ATC) would further enhance the company's profitability. By producing at the minimum ATC, the company can lower its cost per unit and potentially increase its profit margins.
However, since the graph does not provide information on the minimum ATC point, further analysis would be required to identify the optimal quantity where unit costs are minimized.
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What is the role of the "veil of ignorance" in Rawls' theory of distributive justice?
The veil of ignorance is an idea introduced by John Rawls in his theory of distributive justice. Rawls believed that the principles of justice should be determined from an original position behind the veil of ignorance.
In the original position, individuals are placed behind a veil of ignorance, which means they are not aware of their own personal characteristics such as their gender, race, intelligence level, or social status. They are also unaware of their place in society, their talents, abilities, beliefs, and values.The purpose of the veil of ignorance is to ensure that the principles of justice are determined from a position of fairness. This is because people behind the veil of ignorance do not know how their lives will be affected by the principles they choose. Therefore, they are more likely to choose principles that are fair and impartial, and that benefit everyone equally, regardless of their personal characteristics.Rawls believed that the principles of distributive justice should be determined from the original position behind the veil of ignorance. This means that the principles of justice should be designed to benefit the least well-off members of society. Rawls argued that this was the most fair and just way of distributing resources, because it ensured that everyone had an equal chance to succeed, regardless of their personal circumstances.The veil of ignorance plays a critical role in Rawls' theory of distributive justice, as it ensures that the principles of justice are determined from a position of fairness. It is an important concept that promotes equality, impartiality, and fairness in the distribution of resources.
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The following Information is for the fictitious nation Alpha: Working-age population = 1.2 million Labor force = 900,000 Number Employed = 864,000 Instructions: Enter your responses as percent values. a. The unemployment rate for Alpha Is| b. The labor force participation rate for Alpha Is %
For the Working-age population - 1.2 million, the labor force participation rate for Alpha is 75% and The unemployment rate for Alpha is 4%
The unemployment rate is the percentage of the labor force that is not working and is seeking a job.
Unemployment Rate = Unemployed Workers/Labor Force
The number of unemployed workers can be calculated as: Number Unemployed = Labor Force - Number Employed
Number Unemployed = 900,000 - 864,000
Number Unemployed = 36,000 So the unemployment rate for Alpha is
Unemployment Rate = Number Unemployed/Labor Force
Unemployment Rate = 36,000/900,000
Unemployment Rate = 0.04 or 4%
Therefore, the unemployment rate for Alpha is 4%.
Labor Force Participation Rate
The labor force participation rate is the percentage of the working-age population that is part of the labor force.
Labor Force Participation Rate = Labor Force/Working-Age Population
Labor Force Participation Rate = 900,000/1,200,000
Labor Force Participation Rate = 0.75 or 75%
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What is the difference between CSR and Green Marketing? Use an
example to illustrate your point.
CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility) and Green Marketing are two different terms that are frequently used in the business industry. In order to understand the difference between the two, it is important to know what they actually mean.CSR refers to a company's responsibility towards society. It is a company's obligation to act in the interests of society and the environment.
CSR can be seen as a company's effort to create a positive impact on the society and the environment. This includes things like philanthropy, volunteer work, reducing the company's carbon footprint, promoting ethical practices, etc. CSR is not limited to a single area or aspect of the company, it encompasses everything from the company's policies to its products and services.On the other hand, Green Marketing refers to the marketing of products that are environmentally friendly. This includes things like recyclable products, products made from renewable resources, products that are energy-efficient, etc. The main objective of Green Marketing is to create awareness among the consumers about the importance of protecting the environment and encouraging them to buy products that are environmentally friendly.One of the main differences between CSR and Green Marketing is that CSR is about a company's overall responsibility towards society and the environment while Green Marketing is about marketing products that are environmentally friendly. For example, a company might have a strong CSR program that involves reducing its carbon footprint, promoting ethical practices, and supporting local communities. However, this does not mean that all of its products are environmentally friendly. In this case, the company might use Green Marketing to promote specific products that are environmentally friendly, but this does not mean that the company as a whole is environmentally responsible. In conclusion, CSR and Green Marketing are both important aspects of a company's operations, but they are different and should not be confused with one another.
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he investment selection process of stocks for Islamic investment funds go through a systematic approach of all of the following EXCEPT: O industry screen O financial screen O purification O safety or reputation screen
The investment selection process of stocks for Islamic investment funds involves a systematic approach that includes industry screening, financial screening, purification, and safety or reputation screening. However, purification is not a step in the process.
The investment selection process for Islamic investment funds follows specific guidelines to ensure compliance with Shariah principles. It involves several stages, including industry screening, financial screening, purification, and safety or reputation screening.
Industry screening: This step involves filtering out industries that are considered non-compliant with Islamic principles. For example, businesses involved in activities such as alcohol, gambling, pork, or interest-based banking would be excluded.
Financial screening: Islamic investment funds apply financial criteria to select stocks. They assess financial ratios, debt levels, and interest income to ensure adherence to Shariah principles.
Purification: Purification is not a step in the investment selection process for Islamic investment funds. Purification typically refers to the process of removing any impermissible income from permissible sources of revenue. However, it is not directly related to the initial stock selection process.
Safety or reputation screening: This stage involves evaluating the overall safety and reputation of the companies being considered for investment. Factors such as corporate governance, ethical practices, and compliance with legal requirements are taken into account.
By following this systematic approach, Islamic investment funds aim to construct portfolios that align with the ethical and religious principles of Islamic finance while also considering financial viability and risk factors.
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Elena is 12 years old. During 2020 she earns interest of $10,500 on funds she inherited when her maternal grandfather died, as well as non-eligible dividends of $15,300 received from a CCPC that is controlled by her father. Her only tax credits are the basic personal credit and the dividend tax credit. What is the amount of her federal Tax Payable for 2020? Reuben Chechetto had to take his employer to court in 2020, to sue for wages owing to him over an 8 year period ending in 2020. In the 2020 taxation year, he receives a court settlement of $80,000, or $10,000 per year. In all years, Reuben had taxable income of $60,000. What will the tax consequences be with respect to the $80,000 in back wages received in 2020? Select one: O A. Mr. Chechetto can use a special relief mechanism in the Income Tax Act which will have the effect of spreading the lump-sum payment over the 8 taxation years affected. O B. Mr. Chechetto will have to report the full $80,000 in additional wages in 2020. Fi Ti OB. Mr. Chechetto will have to report the full $80,000 in additional wages in 2020. OC. Mr. Chechetto can use a special relief mechanism in the Income Tax Act which will have the effect of spreading the lump-sum payment over a maximum period of 5 years. OD. As these funds were awarded through a court settlement, they are not taxable. A corporation sold a long-term investment in common shares with an adjusted cost base of $25,000, for $10,000 during the current year. It also sold a parcel of land that is considered capital property with an adjusted cost base of $8,000, for $12,000. Its net allowable capital loss for the year is $11,000. Select one: O True O False
The opposite of a capital gain, a capital loss causes a loss when an investment is sold. The difference between an investment's cost or buy price and its selling price is known as its capital gain or loss.
A capital loss is the difference between the acquisition price or cost price of an eligible capital asset and its selling price, which often results in a loss for the seller. This is different from losses incurred when selling products below cost, which is often regarded as an income loss for the business.
Just as capital gains must be recorded as income, capital losses can be used as deductions on the investor's tax return.
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The originality of product.......
.5 marks
Good description as a professional sale
person
•............
.10 marks
value to
humanity....……
general impression.2
total 20 marks.
marking scheme
the originality of product.
„.5 marks
Good description as a professional sale
person.
..... 10 marks
value to
humanity.....…
general impression..2
give me answer as soon as possible with details
The general impression of the product's performance, market potential, and customer reception is considered. This impression takes into account the combination of originality, the salesperson's description, and the value the product brings to humanity. The weightage given to each criterion determines the total score assigned to the product evaluation.
The originality of a product is an important aspect to consider when assessing its potential success. A product that brings something new and innovative to the market can capture customers' attention and stand out from competitors. The level of originality can be evaluated based on factors such as unique features, functionality, design, or technology.
A good description from a professional salesperson plays a crucial role in effectively conveying the benefits and features of the product to potential customers.
A salesperson who can clearly articulate the product's value proposition, explain its key features, and address customer concerns or questions can significantly influence customers' buying decisions.
The value to humanity is an assessment of how the product contributes to improving people's lives or addressing important societal needs. Products that provide solutions to pressing problems, promote sustainability, enhance well-being, or offer convenience and efficiency can have a positive impact on humanity.
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The successful International Marketer in the 21st century will have global awareness and a frame of reference that goes beyond a region or even a country and encompasses the world. Discuss the traits of internationally aware Marketer. (20 Marks)
An internationally aware marketer in the 21st century possesses a combination of cultural sensitivity, global market knowledge, adaptability, communication skills, and a global mindset.
1. Cultural Sensitivity: An internationally aware marketer understands and appreciates cultural differences across countries and regions. They are sensitive to diverse cultural norms, values, beliefs, and customs, which helps them tailor marketing strategies and messaging to specific target markets.
2. Language Proficiency: Being proficient in multiple languages is an advantage for an internationally aware marketer. It allows them to communicate effectively with consumers, understand local nuances, and build relationships based on trust and respect.
3. Global Market Knowledge: A successful international marketer keeps up-to-date with global market trends, emerging economies, and geopolitical factors that impact the business environment. They possess a deep understanding of different markets, including consumer behavior, market dynamics, and regulatory frameworks.
4. Adaptability: International markets are dynamic and constantly evolving. An internationally aware marketer is adaptable and flexible in their approach, capable of adjusting strategies to accommodate changing market conditions, consumer preferences, and emerging opportunities.
5. Cross-cultural Communication Skills: Effective communication across cultures is crucial for an internationally aware marketer. They have excellent interpersonal and cross-cultural communication skills, allowing them to build relationships, negotiate deals, and resolve conflicts in a culturally sensitive manner.
6. Global Networking: Building a strong network of international contacts is essential for an internationally aware marketer. They actively engage in networking events, industry conferences, and professional associations to establish connections and gain insights from experts in various markets.
7. Strategic Thinking: An internationally aware marketer possesses strong strategic thinking skills. They can analyze global market trends, identify opportunities, and develop innovative marketing strategies that align with overall business objectives and target market needs.
8. Digital Savviness: In today's globalized world, digital marketing plays a crucial role. An internationally aware marketer understands digital channels, social media platforms, and e-commerce trends. They leverage technology to reach global audiences, create engaging content, and measure marketing effectiveness.
9. Ethical Awareness: Operating in diverse markets requires an internationally aware marketer to be ethically conscious. They understand and respect local ethical standards, legal frameworks, and corporate social responsibility practices.
10. Global Mindset: Ultimately, an internationally aware marketer possesses a global mindset. They have a broad perspective, open-mindedness, and a willingness to learn from different cultures and markets. They embrace diversity and are inclusive in their approach, which fosters creativity and innovation.
By embracing these traits, they can effectively navigate the complexities of the global marketplace and succeed in driving business growth on an international scale.
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Bonds With A Face Value Of $440000 And A Quoted Price Of 102.25 Have A Selling Price Of
(a) $448910
(b) $449900
(c) $448811
(d) $528990
The selling price of bonds with a face value of $440,000 and a quoted price of 102.25 would be $448,910. So the correct option is (a).
Bonds are debt instruments issued by governments, corporations, and other organizations to raise capital. When an entity issues bonds, it is essentially borrowing money from investors. Bonds typically have a fixed face value (also known as the par value or principal), a stated interest rate (known as the coupon rate), and a maturity date. Investors who purchase bonds become creditors of the issuing entity and are entitled to receive periodic interest payments and the return of the principal amount at maturity. Bonds can be bought and sold in the financial markets.
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Which of the following from among the independent, dependent and moderating variables is a confound in an experimental study? Multiple Choice The independent variable The dependent variable The moderating variable All three variables are confounding variables O None of the three variables are confounding variables
d. all three variables are confounding variables. in an experimental study, a confound refers to an extraneous variable that systematically varies
along with the independent variable and affects the dependent variable. this can lead to a misinterpretation of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
among the s provided, the confound would be "all three variables are confounding variables." if all three variables (independent, dependent, and moderating variables) are confounded, it means that there are other variables influencing the relationship between them, making it difficult to isolate the true effects of each variable.
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False Value Hardware began 2024 with a credit balance of $31,700 in the refund liability account. Sales and cash collections from customers during the year were $740,000 and $700,000, respectively. False Value estimates that 7% of all sales will be returned. During 2024, customers returned merchandise for credit of $20,000 to their accounts. What is the balance in the refund liability account at the end of 2024? Multiple Choice $63,500 $11,700 $71,800 $51,800
The balance in the refund liability account at the end of 2024 will be $11,700. Here’s how to calculate it:Given that False Value Hardware began 2024 with a credit balance of $31,700 in the refund liability account. Sales during the year were $740,000 and cash collections from customers were $700,000.
The estimated return percentage of sales is 7%.During 2024, customers returned merchandise for a credit of $20,000 to their accounts. The formula for calculating the balance in the refund liability account is: Beginning balance in refund liability + Sales made – Returns made – Cash refunds = Ending balance in refund liability account
Substituting the given values in the formula we get: $31,700 + $740,000 - ($740,000 x 0.07) - $20,000 - $700,000 x 0 = $11,700Thus, the balance in the refund liability account at the end of 2024 is $11,700, which is option B.
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Indicate whether the following statements are "True" or "False" regarding characteristics of ad valorem taxes on realty. A. Some jurisdictions extend immunity from tax for a specified period of time (a tax holiday) to new or relocated businesses. B. Some states partially exempt the homestead, or personal residence, portion of property from taxation. C. Lower taxes may apply to a residence owned by a taxpayer aged 65 or younger. D. Property owned by the Federal government is exempt from this tax.
A. True.B. True.C. False. Higher taxes may apply to a residence owned by a taxpayer aged 65 or younger.D. True.Ad valorem taxes on realty, also known as real estate taxes, are taxes based on the assessed value of the real property being taxed. These taxes are generally levied by state or local governments, with rates varying depending on the location.
Some jurisdictions extend immunity from tax for a specified period of time (a tax holiday) to new or relocated businesses. - TrueB. Some states partially exempt the homestead, or personal residence, portion of property from taxation. - TrueC. Lower taxes may apply to a residence owned by a taxpayer aged 65 or younger. - False. Higher taxes may apply to a residence owned by a taxpayer aged 65 or younger.D.
Property owned by the Federal government is exempt from this tax. - True also known as real estate taxes, are taxes based on the assessed value of the real property being taxed. These taxes are generally levied by state or local governments, with rates varying depending on the location. False. Higher taxes may apply to a residence owned by a taxpayer aged 65 or younger.D.
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The entity reported the following information in 2020:
Cost of goods sold 1,400,000
Income tax expense 72,000
Interest expense 20,000
Operating expenses 220,000
Other comprehensive income (OCI):
Unrealized holding gain on investments 120,000
Sales revenue 2,000,000
Instructions: Type the numerical answer 1, 2, 3. or 4 in the box after the question.
A. How much is the comprehensive income? Blank 1
1) 408,000
2) 288,000
3) 360,000
4) 432,000
B. How much is the net income? Blank 2
1) 408,000
2) 288,000
3) 360,000
4) 432,000
A. The comprehensive income is $408,000 (Option 1).
B. The net income is $288,000 (Option 2).
To calculate comprehensive income, we need to consider net income and other comprehensive income (OCI). Net income is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold, operating expenses, and interest expense from the sales revenue and then deducting the income tax expense. In this case, net income is $288,000 (Option 2).
Comprehensive income includes net income as well as OCI. OCI represents gains or losses from non-owner sources that are not included in net income. In this case, the OCI is an unrealized holding gain on investments, which is $120,000. Therefore, the comprehensive income is calculated by adding the net income and OCI, resulting in $408,000 (Option 1).
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Franklin Corporation has an opportunity to purchase bonds at a rate of 11%. They are in the 34% tax bracket. What is the after tax yield on these bonds?
a) 5.93%
b) 9.62%
c) 3.74
d) 11%
e) 7.26%
The answer to this question is (e) 7.26%.Explanation:A corporation's after-tax yield for taxable bonds may be calculated using the following formula:After-Tax Yield = Before-Tax Yield x (100% - Tax Rate)For Franklin Corporation.
Before-tax yield = 11%Tax rate = 34%The formula now becomes:After-tax Yield = 11% x (100% - 34%) = 7.26%Thus, the after-tax yield on these bonds is 7.26%.Option (e) is the correct answer.This question's response is (e) 7.26%.Explanation:The formula below can be used to determine a corporation's taxable bond after-tax yield:After-Tax Yield is Before-Tax Yield multiplied by (100% - Tax Rate).Franklin Corporation:11% is the before-tax yield.Tax rate is 34%.Now, the equation is:After-Tax Yield is equal to 11% x (100% – 34%), or 7.26%.Consequently, these bonds' after-tax yield is 7.26%.The right response is option (e).
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Franklin Corporation has an opportunity to purchase bonds at a rate of 11%. Thus the after-tax yield on these bonds is 7.26%, and option (e) is the correct answer.
The formula to calculate the after-tax yield on bonds is:
After-tax yield = Pre-tax yield × (100% - Tax rate) / 100
As per the question, Franklin Corporation is in the 34% tax bracket. Thus, its tax rate is 34%. Also, the rate at which Franklin Corporation is getting an opportunity to purchase bonds is 11%. Hence, substituting these values in the formula of the after-tax yield, we get:
After-tax yield = 11 × (100 - 34) / 100
= 11 × 66 / 100= 7.26%
Therefore, the after-tax yield on these bonds is 7.26%.
After-tax yield = Pre-tax yield × (100% - Tax rate) / 100
= 11 × (100 - 34) / 100
= 11 × 66 / 100 = 7.26%.
The after-tax yield on these bonds is 7.26%.
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21. You have the following data for a firm: EBITDA €300.0,
Depreciation €50.0, CAPEX €87.5, and its net working capital
dropped by €25.0. If the corporate tax rate is 21%, calculate its
Free C
The amount of cash created by a company's operations that is available for distribution to investors, reinvestment in the firm, or debt reduction is measured by a financial indicator called free cash flow (FCF).
EBITDA of a firm is €300.0, Depreciation is €50.0, CAPEX is €87.5, and net working capital decreased by €25.0. The corporate tax rate is 21%. The free cash flow (FCF) for the given firm can be calculated as follows: FCF = EBITDA - Depreciation - Taxes - CAPEX + Δ NWC Where Δ NWC = Change in Net Working Capital Taxes = Corporate tax rate × (EBITDA - Depreciation - Δ NWC).
Therefore, FCF = €300.0 - €50.0 - (0.21 × (€300.0 - €50.0 - (- €25.0))) - €87.5 + (- €25.0)FCF = €300.0 - €50.0 - (0.21 × (€300.0 + €25.0)) - €87.5 - €25.0FCF = €250.0 - €66.5 - €87.5FCF = €96.0 million. Hence, the Free Cash Flow for the given firm is €96.0 million.
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which one of the following statements is correct?multiple choice- short term securities tend to have a high degree of interest rate risk, -the money market refers to the securities that mature in one year or less, -two primary reasons why a company holds cash are seasonal fluctuations and short term investments, -corporations are not permitted to invest in money, market mutual funds but can invest in bank money market acccounts, -banks are prohobited from investing cash surpluses on behalf of the customers, on a short term basis.
The correct statement among the given options is: The money market refers to the securities that mature in one year or less. A money market refers to a financial marketplace for borrowing and lending of short-term funds, typically with maturities ranging from overnight to just under one year.
Participants in the money market are institutions, governments, and corporations that lend or borrow money for a short time. The money market is where monetary policy decisions are implemented to stabilize or improve an economy. Furthermore, the money market is a form of lending that enables businesses to obtain funding for operating activities or to meet short-term financial obligations. For investors, the money market is an alternative to savings accounts because the investment is often at a higher interest rate. Money market investments are generally short-term, usually ranging from overnight to just under one year. The assets traded in the money market include Treasury bills, commercial paper, municipal notes, certificates of deposit, and federal funds, among others.
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Juniper Design Limited of Manchester, England, provides design services to residential developers. Last year, the company had net operating income of $430,000 on sales of $1,200.000. The company's average operating assets for the year were $1,400,000 and its minimum required rate of return was 11% Required: Compute the company's residual income for the year Residus income
The company's residual income for the year is $276,000..
to compute the company's residual income, we need to subtract the minimum required rate of return from the net operating income.
residual income = net operating income - (average operating assets × minimum required rate of return)
given information:
net operating income = $430,000
average operating assets = $1,400,000
minimum required rate of return = 11%
residual income = $430,000 - ($1,400,000 × 0.11)
residual income = $430,000 - $154,000
residual income = $276,000
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How does economic productivity affect living standards and how does public policy affect both?
Economic productivity plays a significant role in determining living standards, and public policy can have a significant impact on both economic productivity and living standards. It is important for policymakers to take these factors into account when designing policies that affect the economy and society as a whole.
Economic productivity refers to the measure of a nation's economic output per unit of input. In other words, it’s the amount of output that can be generated by the production of goods and services. Economic productivity has a significant impact on living standards. When productivity increases, it can lead to a rise in incomes, which ultimately leads to an increase in the standard of living.
One of the most important factors that affect productivity is the level of human capital in a nation. Human capital refers to the education and training of the workforce. In general, nations with more educated and trained workforces tend to be more productive than those with lower levels of education and training.
Public policy can affect both economic productivity and living standards in a number of ways. For example, policies that promote investment in education and training can increase the level of human capital and, in turn, increase productivity. Additionally, policies that promote investment in research and development can lead to technological advancements that increase productivity.
On the other hand, policies that restrict trade, create barriers to entry for new businesses, or impose excessive regulations can hinder productivity growth. This, in turn, can negatively impact living standards.
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Charlie loves watching Teletubbies on his local public TV station, but he never sends any money to support the station during its fundraising drives. a. What name do economists have for people like Charlie? b. How can the government solve the problem caused by people like Charlie? c. Can you think of ways the private market can solve this problem? How does the existence of cable TV alter the situation?
a. Economists refer to people like Charlie as "free riders."
b. Government can solve the problem through mandatory funding or increased public funding.
c. Private market can use subscription models or pay-per-view services, and cable TV provides an alternative funding source, but online streaming and free content present challenges.
a. Economists refer to people like Charlie as "free riders." Free-riders are individuals who benefit from a public good or service without contributing to its funding. In this case, Charlie enjoys watching Teletubbies on the public TV station without financially supporting it.
b. The government can address the issue caused by free riders like Charlie by implementing mandatory funding mechanisms, such as taxes or fees, to support public TV stations. This ensures that everyone contributes their fair share to sustain the station's operations.
c. In the private market, the problem of free riders can be addressed through different strategies. One approach is to offer exclusive benefits or incentives to those who financially support the TV station, such as access to premium content or special events. Another option is to introduce advertising on the TV station to generate revenue. The existence of cable TV alters the situation by providing an alternative funding model. Cable TV stations can charge subscription fees, which directly support their operations and content. This reduces the reliance on voluntary contributions and minimizes the free rider problem, as subscribers are already paying for the service they consume.
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your firm uses a continuous review system and operates 52 weeks per year. one of the skus has the following characteristics. refer to the standard normal table for z-values. > demand (d)= 19,600 units/year ordering cost (s) = $35.00/order > holding cost (h) = $3.75/unit/year > lead time (l) = 1 week(s) > cycle-service level = 96% > demand is normally
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Question: Your Firm Uses A Continuous Review System And Operates 52 Weeks Per Year. One Of The SKUs Has The Following Characteristics. Refer To The Standard Normal Table For Z-Values. > Demand (D)= 19,600 Units/Year Ordering Cost (S) = $35.00/Order > Holding Cost (H) = $3.75/Unit/Year > Lead Time (L) = 1 Week(S) > Cycle-Service Level = 96% > Demand Is Normally

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Your firm uses a continuous review system and operates 52 weeks per year. One of the SKUs has the following characteristics. Refer to the standard normal table for z-values. > Demand (D)= 19,600 units/year Ordering cost (S) = $35.00/order > Holding cost (H) = $3.75/unit/year > Lead time (L) = 1 week(s) > Cycle-service level = 96% > Demand is normally distributed, with a standard deviation of weekly demand of 98 units. > Current on-hand inventory is 1,040 units, with no scheduled receipts and no backorders. The item's economic order quantity is units.
The economic order quantity (EOQ) for the SKU can be calculated as 279 units. When the inventory level reaches this point, the firm should initiate a replenishment order to minimize inventory costs while meeting customer demand. To maintain a cycle-service level of 96%, a reorder point of 238 units should be set.
1. The firm should place orders when the inventory level reaches this point. To calculate the economic order quantity (EOQ), we use the formula EOQ = √(2DS/H), where D is the annual demand, S is the ordering cost per order, and H is the holding cost per unit per year. Substituting the given values, we have EOQ = √(2 * 19600 * 35 / 3.75) ≈ 279 units.
2. To determine the reorder point, we need to consider the lead time and the desired cycle-service level. Since the lead time is 1 week and the firm operates 52 weeks per year, the average demand during the lead time is 19600/52 = 377 units. To achieve a cycle-service level of 96%, we need to set the reorder point at the level where there is only a 4% chance of stockout during lead time. Using the standard normal table, the z-value corresponding to a 4% chance is -1.75. Therefore, the reorder point is 377 - (-1.75 * √(98)) ≈ 238 units.
3. In summary, the firm should place orders for the SKU using an economic order quantity of 279 units. To maintain a cycle-service level of 96%, the reorder point should be set at 238 units. When the inventory level reaches this point, the firm should initiate a replenishment order to minimize inventory costs while meeting customer demand.
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define the term derivative and provide examples of risks that
derivative contracts are designed to reduce.
A derivative is a financial product whose value is derived from the value of one or more underlying assets, such as stocks, behavior value of the derivative is based on the performance of the underlying asset, and it allows investors to speculate on the future direction of the asset's price.
Derivative contracts are designed to reduce risks in various ways.Some examples of risks that derivative contracts are designed to reduce are as follows:Market risk: Derivatives can help investors protect themselves against market risk, which is the risk that the price of an asset will decline. For example.
A investor who owns a stock might use a put option to protect against the risk of a decline in the stock's price.Credit risk: Derivatives can help investors reduce their credit risk, which is the risk that a borrower will default on a loan or other debt. For example, a bank might use a credit default swap to reduce its credit risk when it lends money to a borrower.Interest rate risk: Derivatives can help investors manage their exposure to interest rate risk, which is the risk that the value of an asset will decline due to changes in interest rates. For example, a company might use an interest rate swap to reduce its exposure to fluctuations in interest rates.Currency risk: Derivatives can help investors manage their exposure to currency risk.
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(Uncertainty in Collection) ABC Co. uses a standard contract for the granting of a license to customers. The standard contract contains the following: a. Fixed fee of P100,000 payable as follows: P20,000 down payment and balance due in 4 equal annual installments to start a year after the signing of contract. b. The license provides the customer, the right to use ABC's intellectual property as it exists at grant date. On Jan. 1, 20x1, ABC Co. signs three contracts. The licenses are also transferred to the customers on this date. The discount rate is 12%. Accordingly, the present value of the note in each contract is P60,747. ABC assesses the collectability of the note from each customer and concludes the following: Collectability of note Customer 1 Customer 2 Customer 3 Probable Doubtful Significantly uncertain The receivable from Customer 2 is doubtful of collection because the region where Customer 2 operates is undergoing economic difficulty. However, ABC believes that the region's economy will recover in the near term and that the license will help Customer 2 increase its sales. Accordingly, ABC to expects provide Customer 2 with a price concession and estimates that it is probable that ABC will collect only half of the note. ABC constrains its estimate of the variable consideration and determines an adjusted transaction price of P50,373 (i.e., P20,000 down payment + P30,373 PV of the note). The discount rate is 12%. Requirement: Provide the journal entries.
In the given case, the journal entries can be computed as follows:For Customer Void contract 1:Particular Debit Credit Receivables 100,000Sales revenue100,000. For Customer 2:Particulars Debit Credit Receivables 60,747Allowance for doubtful accounts 30,373.
Sales revenue50,373 For Customer 3:Particulars Debit Credit Receivables 100,000 Sales revenue 100,000(To record the sale of license to Customer 3)Note that since the collectability of the note is significantly uncertain in case of Customer 3, ABC Co. has not provided for doubtful accounts as the degree of uncertainty is high and it cannot be predicted at this point of time how much amount would ultimately be collectible from this customer.
Therefore, the full receivable amount has been recognized as revenue.Therefore, the journal entries for the given case are as follows:For Customer 1:Receivables100,000 Sales revenue 100,000For Customer 2:Receivables60,747Allowance for doubtful accounts 30,373Sales revenue50,373For Customer
Receivables 100,000 Sales revenue 100,000Note that in case of Customer 2, since the amount of collectability has been estimated as half of the receivable amount, an allowance for doubtful accounts equal to the estimated amount of uncollectible amount has been recognized so that the net sales amount recognized is only the amount which is reasonably certain of collection.
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After graduating from college, Joseph Tantillo decided to start a retail Web site that specializes in personalized Greek apparel. To fund his Web site, he borrowed money from his parents (who expect to be repaid with interest). In other words, he used financing 1) debt 2) liquid 3) equity 4) venture 5) entrepreneurial
Joseph Tantillo, after graduating from college, embarked on his entrepreneurial journey by starting a retail website that specializes in personalized Greek apparel. Like many entrepreneurs, he needed financial resources to kickstart his venture. In order to fund his website, Joseph made the decision to borrow money from his parents, who expected to be repaid with interest. Therefore, he chose to finance his business through debt.
Debt financing is a common method used by entrepreneurs and businesses to raise capital. It involves borrowing money from lenders or investors with the promise to repay the principal amount along with interest over a specified period of time. In Joseph's case, his parents acted as his lenders and provided him with the necessary funds to launch his retail website.
The decision to opt for debt financing often comes with its own set of considerations and implications. One of the advantages of debt financing is that it allows entrepreneurs to maintain ownership and control over their business. Joseph, in this case, remains the sole owner of his retail website, as the debt he incurred does not dilute his ownership stake.
Additionally, debt financing offers entrepreneurs the opportunity to benefit from the potential growth and profitability of their business without having to share the ownership or profits with other stakeholders. Joseph, being the sole owner, can retain all the profits generated by his retail website.
On the other hand, debt financing also brings certain responsibilities and risks. Joseph has a legal obligation to repay the borrowed amount to his parents, along with the agreed-upon interest. Failure to make timely payments or defaulting on the loan can have serious consequences, such as damaging his relationship with his parents and potentially affecting his creditworthiness.
The interest rate charged on the borrowed amount is an important factor to consider. It represents the cost of borrowing and affects the overall financial health of the business. Joseph and his parents would have likely discussed and agreed upon an interest rate that reflects the risk associated with the loan and is fair to both parties.
By choosing debt financing, Joseph demonstrates his confidence in the success and profitability of his retail website. He believes that the revenue generated from his business will be sufficient to cover the loan repayment and interest while still allowing him to achieve his financial goals.
Joseph Tantillo decided to finance his retail website specializing in personalized Greek apparel through debt. By borrowing money from his parents, he obtained the necessary capital to launch his business while retaining full ownership and control. Debt financing offers its advantages, such as maintaining ownership and the potential to retain all profits, but also comes with responsibilities and risks, including the obligation to repay the loan and potential consequences of defaulting. Joseph's decision reflects his belief in the future success of his venture and his commitment to repaying his parents with interest.
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A municipal bond has a coupon rate of 5.02 percent and a YTM of 5.35 percent. If an investor has a marginal tax rate of 39 percent, what is the equivalent pretax yield on a taxable bond? Multiple Choice 823% 592 % 306% 326% 877%
The equivalent pre-tax yield on a taxable bond is 8.77%. A municipal bond has a coupon rate of 5.02 percent and a YTM of 5.35 percent.
If an investor has a marginal tax rate of 39 percent, the equivalent pre-tax yield on a taxable bond can be calculated by using the following formula:
e = m / (1 - t)
where, e is the equivalent pre-tax yield on a taxable bond,
m is the yield on the municipal bond,
t is the investor's marginal tax rate
Substitute the given values in the formula and solve:
e = 5.35 / (1 - 0.39)e = 5.35 / 0.61e = 8.77%
Therefore, the equivalent pre-tax yield on a taxable bond is 8.77%. Hence, the main answer is 877%.
The above calculation can be understood as follows:
If an investor invests in a taxable bond, the yield earned is taxable, which means the investor would have to pay taxes on the interest earned from the bond. However, if the investor invests in a municipal bond, the interest earned is tax-exempt. Therefore, to make a fair comparison between the two, the pre-tax yield on a taxable bond is calculated to make it equivalent to the yield earned on a tax-exempt municipal bond.
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