The high concentrations of persistent organic pollutants (POPs) in wildlife and humans living in the Arctic are not associated with which one of the following? Select one a. POPs are not easily broken down into harmless compounds b. POPs tend to bioaccumulate c. POPs have a high potential for long-range transport d. POPs are very soluble in water

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Answer 1

The high concentrations of persistent organic pollutants (POPs) in wildlife and humans living in the Arctic are not associated with d. POPs are very soluble in water.

According to UNEP/GPA 2006a, a group of toxic chemicals known as POPs can persist in the environment for several years before breaking down. POPs are found all over the world, and the repeated evaporation and deposition of chemicals released in one region can deposit them far away from where they came from.

Mines, military installations, smelters, power plants, and a variety of other sources can produce and release POPs. However, the Arctic is only the source of a small number of pollutants. They are transported from farther south over long distances by air, water, and, to a lesser extent, migratory species. In contrast to warmer environments, the unique environmental conditions of the Arctic tend to "trap" pollutants because the cold encourages their persistence. Bioaccumulation is a method by which POPs are also stored and concentrated in the fatty tissues of animals. POPs are by and large profoundly lipophilic in this way not soluble in water. As a result, it is thought that POPs transfer to water at a relatively slow rate.

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Related Questions

compare and contrast the molecular mechanisms of membrane receptor-mediated and nuclear receptor-mediated signal transduction.

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To recap, intracellular receptors are inside the cell, whereas membrane receptors are attached to the cell's plasma membrane.

Intracellular receptors interact with ligands found within the cell, whereas membrane receptors interact with ligands found outside of the cell.

Signaling chemicals and the receptors on target cells to which they attach. Intracellular receptors, ligand-gated ion channels, G protein-coupled receptors, and receptor tyrosine kinases.

GPCRs and single-pass transmembrane proteins are the two most common types of transmembrane receptors. The transmembrane region of certain receptors, such as the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, generates a protein hole through the membrane or surrounding the ion channel.

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The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that _____.
A) fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine
B) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not
C) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood
D) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption

Answers

The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates because most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood.

The lymphatic system is a network of small tubes and lymph nodes located throughout the body. These tubes are known as lymphatic vessels or lymph vessels. The lymphatic system is an essential component of our immune system.

Water-soluble nutrients, such as proteins, carbohydrates as well as certain vitamins and minerals, enter the bloodstream via capillaries and are transferred directly to the liver, where they are then transported to whichever organs and the body's tissues necessitate them.

Fats are absorbed through the villi and attempt to enter the lacteal, small lymph vessels known as lymph capillaries, where they become part of chyle, a milky fluid composed of lymph, fats, and free fatty acids. These fats are then transported into the bloodstream by lymphatic vessels.

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please select the response below that best reflects the relationship between race and genetic variability

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race-specific genetic variation is greater than that between races.

Lewontin came to the following conclusion after conducting this analysis: "Since such racial categorization is now revealed to be of essentially no genetic nor taxonomic relevance either, no reason can be made for its persistence." Phase 1 of the The Human Genome Project (HGP) established that there is no genetic foundation for race and that there is more genetic variety within a race than between them, with the average human population of the world now being 99.9% genetically similar [2]. race-specific genetic variation is greater than that between races.The majority of the diversity (80–85%) among human populations is located within local geographic groupings, according to a seminal 1972 research by Lewontin, whereas variations related to traditional "race" groups make up just a small portion of human genetic differences (1–15%).

(Led by Richard Lewontin, the Human Genome Project found.....

A) More genetic variation within races than between races

B) More genetic variation between races than within races

C) Equal genetic variation for all groups

D) None of these)

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A scientist is interested in the genetics of cold stress response in sunflowers. Using a DNA microarray to study gene expression, she should compare these two samples: (Choose two.)-cDNA from stem grown at 20°C
-cDNA from stem grown at 5°C

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She should contrast these two samples using a DNA microarray to assess gene expression. stems cultivated at 20°C and 5°C for cDNA, respectively.

What is DNA? What is its purpose?

The molecule of information is DNA. It holds the blueprints needed to create proteins, which are other big molecules. Each of your cells has these instructions, which are dispersed throughout 46 lengthy structures known as chromosomes. Numerous smaller DNA fragments known as genes make up each of these chromosomes.

Do people have DNA or RNA?

All biological life forms, including humans, have DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) genomes. However, a few viruses have RNA (ribonucleic acid) genomes. The polymeric molecules DNA and RNA are composed of chains of monomeric building blocks called nucleotides.

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What does muscle physiology have to do with stress management?Many muscles in the body remain in a chronically contracted state because they are continuously receiving the message from the nervous system that they should be contracting in preparation for the fight or flight response. They do not receive the signal from the nervous system that the threat has passed and it is safe to relax.

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Muscle physiology is involved in stress management as Tension in the muscles is almost a natural response to stress.

Tension in the muscles is almost a reflex response to stress—the body's defense mechanism against pain and injury. When stress occurs suddenly, the muscles tense up all at once and then relax after the stress has passed. The muscles in the body become more or less constantly guarded under chronic stress.

Due to the constant signal from the nervous system that they should be contracting in preparation for the fight or flight response, many body muscles remain in a chronically contracted state. They don't get the nervous system's signal that the danger is over and they can relax.

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Module 05 What is the definition of metabolism? The breaking down of body compounds is known as what? True or False: Amino acids becoming protein is an anabolic reaction. What is the sugar that helps make up ATP? From which B vitamin is CoA, or coenzyme A, derived? What are the features/characteristics of aerobic metabolism? For short, intense exercise, which energy-producing pathway does the body rely on most? Anaerobic means ________. When a person performing intense physical exercise begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the muscles respond by synthesizing more of what substance? (Lactate vs. glucose vs. fatty acids?) True or False: Low carbohydrate diets induce ketosis An individual is described as ________ when they have the endurance to engage in daily activities, as well enough reserve energy to handle added challenges. A minimum of ______ minutes at a time of aerobic physical activity is recommended per activity session. ________ refers to an increase to the size and strength of muscles in response to use. True or False: Putting a demand on muscles repeatedly by making them work harder is the most effective, safe way for athletes to add muscle tissue. According to ACSM guidelines, resistance or strength exercise should be incorporated on ________ per week. An athlete getting ready to compete in the 100-meter dash will rely primarily on what substance for quick energy in this event? (Fats vs. lactate vs. creatine phosphate?) The body’s primary source of glucose during physical activity is ________. True or False: With regards to the energy systems and fuels used by the body, all energy systems are used at all times, but one system which dominates depending on intensity and conditioning of athlete. What type of diet does research suggest can provide endurance athletes with ability to go longer without fatigue? ________ are the dietary nutrients most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentrations. Activities lasting longer than 20 minutes will gradually start using more ________ for fuel and less ________. True or False: Consuming a sports beverage to obtain carbohydrates is recommended during exhausting endurance activities lasting more than 1 hour. The phenomenon known as "hitting the wall" occurs in athletes when ________ is depleted. It’s recommended that an athlete

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The definition of metabolism is option A: breaking down of body compounds is known as catabolism

Amino acids becoming protein is an anabolic reaction is true

The sugar that helps make up ATP from which B vitamin is CoA, or coenzyme A, derived is Pantothenic acid.

Is the breakdown of protein anabolic?

In the ribosomes of a cell, amino acids, smaller molecules, are converted into proteins. Each protein is made up of a chain with a unique arrangement of amino acids. Protein synthesis is anabolic because proteins are constructed from smaller molecules to create larger ones.

Anabolic processes are used to assemble amino acids into proteins. Molecules are broken down into smaller pieces or converted into energy through catabolic processes. Since amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, the process of turning amino acids into proteins is known as anabolism.

Therefore, Another water-soluble vitamin called pantothenic acid creates coenzyme A, the primary transporter of carbon molecules inside of cells. For glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids to enter the citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA serves as the carbon carrier.

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Use the dropdown menus below to show the correct order in which you'll do things during the Antiseptics and Disinfectants exercise. Not all answer choices will be used. 2. [Choose) [Choose) Place paper disc onto nutrient agar plate Dip paper disc onto an antiseptic or disinfectant Swab surface of nutrient agar plate with bacteria Incubate nutrient agar plate Place antiseptic or disinfectant onto the agar.

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The correct order of answer is:

a) Incubate nutrient agar plate

b) Place antiseptic or disinfectant onto the agar

c) Place paper disc onto nutrient agar plate

d) Dip paper disc onto an antiseptic or disinfectant Swab surface of nutrient agar plate with bacteria

An antibiotic is a particular type of antiseptic agent that combats microorganisms. Because they are the most efficient sort of antibacterial agent for doing so, antibiotic medications are frequently used in the treatment and prevention of bacterial illnesses. Bacteria can be eliminated or their growth can be stopped. Only a small number of antibiotics also possess antiprotozoal qualities. Antiviral medications, also referred to as antivirals, are prescribed pharmaceuticals that work to stop the spread of viruses rather than treating specific viruses like the flu or the common cold with antibiotic properties. Antifungal medications, which stop the spread of fungus, are also ineffective against fungi.

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choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull?

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The foramen magnum allows access to the cranial cavity where the brain is located posteriorly.

The largest foramen of the skull is called the foramen magnum, which is Latin for "great hole." The most noticeable characteristic in the floor of this aspect of the cranial base is a huge central opening with an oval shape that is located in the deepest part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is contained within the anteromedian aspect of the occipital bone, specifically. The superior articular facets on the lateral masses of the atlas (vertebra C1) engage with the occipital condyles on the anterolateral edges of the foramen magnum, allowing nodding movements. The external occipital crest, a conspicuous ridge, also extends from the midline posterior boundary of the foramen magnum to the external occipital protuberance of the occipital bone.

Hence, opening provided to interconnected spinal cord and brain.

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A ______ is an inherited feature that varies from individual to individual.A ______ is one particular variation of a character.A genetic cross involving parents that differ in a single character is called a _____________.Most human genes come in alternate versions called ________.If an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is expressed in the organism is called the ________ allele.If an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is not expressed in the organism is called the ________ allele.The physical traits of an organism are called its _______.The _______ is the genetic makeup of an organism.In a test cross, F2 refers to ______.Black eyes are dominant to orange eyes, and green skin is dominant to white skin. Sam, a MendAlien with black eyes and green skin, has a parent with orange eyes and white skin. Carole is a MendAlien with orange eyes and white skin. If Sam and Carole were to mate, the predicted phenotypic ratio of their offspring would be _____.A phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the offspring of a cross indicates that _____.In a situation in which genes assort independently, what is the ratio of the gametes produced by an AaBB individual?You cross two fruit trees. One tree produces lemons with spiky leaves. The other produces limes with smooth leaves. Your F1 generation produces lemons with smooth leaves and spiky leaves. What are the genotypes of the parents? L = lemons; l = limes; S = smooth leaf; s = spiky leaf.Imagine that long fins in zebrafish is a dominant trait. A breeder wants to set up a breeding program beginning with homozygous dominant long-finned fish. If she obtains a handful of the long-finned fish, how can she tell which if any of these are homozygous for the trait?Genetics studies the inheritance of ______.Genes are located on _____.The transmission of traits from one generation to the next is ______.When self-fertilization produces offspring all identical to the parent, it is called _______.The offspring of two different varieties are _______.What kind of genotype has identical alleles?What kind of genotype has two different alleles?What is a Punnett square?A ______ is the specific location of a gene along a chromosome.In Mendel's monohybrid cross of true-breeding purple-flowered and white-flowered peas, all members of the F1 generation were of the _____ phenotype because their genotype was _____ for the flower-color gene.

Answers

1. A character is an inherited feature that varies from individual to individual.

2. A  trait is one particular variation of a character.

3. A genetic cross involving parents that differ in a single character is called a monohybrid cross.

4. Most human genes come in alternate versions called alleles.

5. If an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is expressed in the organism is called the dominant allele.

6. If an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is not expressed in the organism is called the recessive allele.

7. The physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype.

8. The genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism.

Black eyes are dominant to orange eyes, and green skin is dominant to white skin. Sam, a MendAlien with black eyes and green skin, has a parent with orange eyes and white skin. Carole is a MendAlien with orange eyes and white skin. If Sam and Carole were to mate, the predicted phenotypic ratio of their offspring would be 1 black eye, green skin: 1 black eye, white skin: 1 orange eye, green skin: 1 orange eye, white skin Sam's genotype is BbGg, and Carole's genotype is big.

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Insert the correct terms or phrases into the following sentences that compare DNA replication with transcription. Use this word bank: 3'-hydroxyl group, 5'-Phosphate group, DNA, DNA polymerase, DNA replication, Ligase, RNA, RNA polymerase, tRNA, transcription.
• In transcription, the goal is synthesis of _________________________
• In DNA replication, the goal is synthesis of _______________________
• RNA polymerase and primase both add nucleotides to a _____________________
• During ______________________, both strands of the DNA will function as a template.
• During ______________________, only one strand of the DNA will function as a template.

Answers

• In transcription, the goal is synthesis of RNA

• In DNA replication, the goal is synthesis of DNA

• RNA polymerase and primase both add nucleotides to a 3'-hydroxyl group.

• During DNA replication, both strands of the DNA will function as a template.

• During transcription, only one strand of the DNA will function as a template.

The biological process whereby a cell makes an RNA copy of certain DNA. The messenger RNA (mRNA) copy of this RNA carries the genetic material required for protein synthesis in a cell. It transports data from the DNA in the cell's nucleus to the cytoplasm, where proteins are produced.

Through the process of DNA replication, a double-stranded DNA molecule is copied to produce two identical DNA molecules. Because every time a cell splits, the two new daughter cells must have the same genetic material, or DNA, as the parent cell, replication is a crucial process.

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In an antibody molecule, one light chain is bonded to one heavy chain, and the two heavy chains are bonded to one another with _____ bonds, creating a symmetrical Y-shaped arrangement
Disulfide

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One light chain is linked to one heavy chain in an antibody molecule, and the two heavy chains are joined together by disulfide bonds to form a symmetrical Y-shaped configuration.

The immune system uses antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins or large Y-shaped proteins, to identify and eliminate foreign entities like dangerous germs and viruses. The pathogen molecule that the antibody specifically recognises as an antigen. When the immune system of the body detects harmful substances, or antigens, it produces an antibody, a type of protein. Antigens include substances and microbes (bacteria, fungi, parasites, and viruses), among others. In response to infection, the immune system creates proteins called antibodies.

In an antibody molecule, one light chain is bonded to one heavy chain, and the two heavy chains are bonded to one another with _____ bonds, creating a symmetrical Y-shaped arrangement?

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DNA is like a twisted ladder. The sides of the ladder are a______ ______backbone. The rungs of the ladder are _____ _____

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DNA is like a twisted ladder. The sides of the ladder are a alternating sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups is backbone. The rungs of the ladder are 4 nitrogen bases, thymine (T), adenine (A), cytosine (C), and guanine (G).

What is the ladder of DNA?In agarose or acrylamide gel electrophoresis, a solution containing DNA molecules of various lengths is known as a DNA ladder. It is used as a guide to determine the size of unidentified DNA molecules that were separated based on their mobility across a gel under an electrical field.By comparing the experimental samples' DNA bands to the closest ladder fragment, researchers may estimate the size of the bands in their DNA using the ladder. You can quickly and precisely determine your DNA band sizes by using the appropriate ladder.We can estimate the size of our experimental DNA pieces using the DNA ladder after electrophoresis. We compare a DNA ladder, which is a collection of DNA fragments with established molecular weights, to our experimental samples.

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Which of the following does cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle have in common? Select all that apply. A actin
B myosin
C Z discs
D intercalated discs
E A band

Answers

The following which cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle have in common include:

A actin

B myosin

C Z discs

E A band

What is a Muscle?

This is referred to as a soft body tissue consisting of long cells that can contract and produce motion or movement and is an important part of the musculoskeletal system in the body.

They are involved in the movement of various parts of the body and they work hand in hand with the bones to ensure that there is adequate functioning between the cells and various tissues.

Skeletal and cardiac muscles have protein such as actin and myosin and there is also the presence of a Z disc and A band. Intercalated discs on the other hand is only present in the cardiac muscles which us therefore why they were chosen as the correct choice.

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Given year is positive, which expressions for XXX, YYY, and ZZZ will output the correct range? Choices are in the form XXX / YYY / ZZZ.
If XXX: Output "1-100"
Else If YYY: Output "101-200"
Else If ZZZ: Output "201-300"
Else: Output "Other"
a. year > 0 / year > 99 / year > 199
b. year > 0 / year > 100 / year > 200
c. year < 100 / year < 200 / year < 300
d. year < 101 / year < 201 / year < 301

Answers

Note that the given year is positive, the expressions for XXX, YYY, and ZZZ that will output the correct range is: "year > 0 / year > 100 / year > 200." (Option B). This is a Range Output exercise in programming.

What is range output?

In the context of the above exercise, range output is a string that specifies a range of values for the variable "year". The output would depend on the value of "year", and there are four possible outputs: "1-100", "101-200", "201-300", or "Other".

The above option is correct because the first condition, year > 0, will cover all positive values of the year.

The second condition, year > 100, will cover all values between 101 and 200.

The third condition, year > 200, will cover all values between 201 and 300.

If the year is not within any of these ranges, the final Else condition will output "Other".

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embryonic development gives us insights into evolutionary relationships not obvious in adults. t / f

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True. Embryonic development gives us insights into evolutionary relationships that may not be immediately obvious in adults.

Through the study of embryonic development, scientists can trace the evolutionary history of various species and determine how certain characteristics have evolved over time. Through the use of genetic sequencing, scientists can trace the evolutionary relationships of species, and even determine how far back certain species have been separated from their common ancestor.

Through the study of embryonic development, scientists can also gain insight into how certain species have adapted to their environment over time and how certain characteristics have become more pronounced. Finally, the study of embryonic development can provide insights into how certain species have interacted with each other and how they are related to each other through shared evolutionary traits. By studying embryonic development, scientists can gain a better understanding of the evolutionary history of life on Earth.

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during the light reactions, chemical reactions are occurring simultaneously at photosystem i and photosystem ii. on the left, put the reactions starting at photosystem ii in order from first to last. then, on the right, put the reactions starting at photosystem i in order from first to last.

Answers

The reactions in Photosystem I and Photosystem II from first to last in order, are :

Photosystem I :

Light energy excites and ejects electrons from Photosystem IElectrons reduce NADP+ to NADPH

Photosystem II :

Light energy excites and ejects electrons from Photosystem IIHydrogen ions move into the thylakoid space.Hydrogen ions move back to the stroma, producing ATP.

What are Photosystem I and II ?

An antenna complex and a response center make up a photosystem. Based on the varying chlorophyll absorption wavelengths, there are typically two types of photosystems. Photosystem I and Photosystem II are the two photosystems.

These two photosystems, PS I and PS II, are membrane protein complexes with many subunits that take part in oxygenic photosynthesis. Chlorophyll is the pigment that is primarily responsible for absorbing light energy.

Light energy stimulate and eject electrons from Photosystem I, and electrons then convert NADP+ to NADPH in Photosystem I.

In Photosystem II, light energy activates Photosystem II, ejects electrons, hydrogen ions enter the thylakoid space, and hydrogen ions exit the stroma, resulting in the production of ATP.

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question at position 16 when populations get very small, harmful alleles may be expressed in individuals more often because:

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When populations get very small, harmful alleles may be expressed in individuals more often because:

The gene pool becomes smaller and more limited: In a small population, there are fewer genetic variations present, which means that harmful alleles that may be present in the gene pool are more likely to be expressed in individuals.There is an increased risk of inbreeding: In a small population, there is a higher likelihood of inbreeding, which means that individuals are more likely to mate with close relatives. The effects of natural selection are weakened: In a larger population, natural selection can help to eliminate harmful alleles by favoring individuals with beneficial traits.

This is why it is important for populations to maintain a certain level of genetic diversity, which can help to buffer against the negative effects of harmful alleles and preserve the overall health of the population.

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which of the following best explains the connection between energuy, growth, and the maintenance of an ordered system in teh experiment

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The connection between energy, growth, and the maintenance of an ordered can be described as grass requiring light energy to grow and maintain its ordered structure.

Energy is passed from the producers. Animals use the energy they get from their food to keep their bodies warm and carry out other metabolic tasks. During the process of cellular respiration, glucose, which is found in the food that animals eat, is broken down into an energy source called ATP. Order is maintained by coupling cellular processes that increase entropy (which results in changes to free energy that are negative) with those that decrease entropy (which results in changes to free energy that are positive). To maintain order and power cellular processes, energy input must be greater than free energy lost to entropy.

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Which of the following are abiotic factors that determine the organisms that can exist in marine environments?
O amount of oxygen and salt concentration
O amount of carbon dioxide and amount of decomposers
O amount of moisture and variety of consumers
O amount of algae and range of temperature

Answers

Answer:

O amount of moisture and variety of consumers

Abiotic factors include sunlight, temperature, moisture, wind or water currents, soil type, and nutrient availability. 

What is most responsible for the presence of groundwater in an area?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

b

Answer:

Rainfall that has seeped through the soil's surface is what creates the groundwater that is found below the water table. Where the water table naturally meets the land surface, springs are created, enabling groundwater to rise to the surface and eventually flow into a river, lake, or stream.

Explanation:

Which statement regarding VSM function and cytoskeletal dynamics is best supported by the data in Table 1?A. Vasoconstriction is associated with an increase in the ratio of F-actin to G-actin.B. F-actin levels decrease as phosphorylation of LC20 increases.C. Vasodilation does not affect phosphorylation levels of calponin.D. Arterial diameter reduction is always dependent upon increased calponin phosphorylation

Answers

Which statement regarding VSM function and cytoskeletal dynamics is best supported by the data in Table

A. Vasoconstriction is associated with an increase in the ratio of F-actin to G-actin.

Describe the cytoskeletal system.All eukaryotic cells and a large number of prokaryotic cells have cytoskeletal systems, which are networks of polymer. They serve as a means of information transmission and integration between cellular dimensions and aid in the transformation of a disorganized horde of macromolecules into a spatially structured, living cell.microtubules, intermediate filaments, etc. Myosin is frequently linked with microfilaments.

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what is the most likely distance from the nucleus for an electron in orbital c? note: your answer must be within 50 pm of the exact answer to be graded correct.

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The most likely distance from the nucleus for an electron in orbital c is  630 p.m.

An electron's location and wave-like behavior in an atom are described by a function known as an atomic orbital in atomic theory and quantum mechanics. The probability of finding an atom's electron anywhere in the vicinity of its nucleus can be calculated using this function.

Atomic orbitals come in four distinct varieties: specifically s (sharp), p (principle), d (diffuse), and f Additionally, each atom-shell contains a few orbital combinations. There are s orbitals in the n=1 shell, p orbitals in the n=2 shell, and s and p orbitals in the n=3 shell.

In order to determine the orbital distance from the nucleus, we first draw a perpendicular to the blue line's highest peak. Also, it's about 630 p.m.

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(complete question)

what is the most likely distance from the nucleus for an electron in orbital c? note: your answer must be within 50 pm of the exact answer to be graded correctly

Here is a sketch of the radial probability distribution of three orbitals:

Carbon dioxide, water, urea. different organisms have adaptations that allow them to remove cellular waste effectively. They vary according to

Answers

Adaptations are unique characteristics that allow animals to survive in their environment. There are three types of adaptations: structural, physiological, and behavioral.

Animals can live in their environment thanks to their special adaptations. Adaptations can be of three different types:

structural,

physiological, and

behavioral.

An animal's capacity to endure or even prosper in its surroundings might be influenced by its physical constitution. The camel species has evolved versatility in order to survive (or change). In order to construct houses, resist the elements, acquire food, stay secure, and attract mates, animals rely on their physical characteristics. Animals can defend themselves against predators and bad weather by adapting. Unlike weeds, insects, and other species that may alter their color to fit in, many birds can conceal themselves in the thick grass. As a result, when they are searching for food, predators have a hard time locating them.

The complete question is:

Different organisms have adaptations that allow them to remove cellular waste effectively. They vary according to___________ .

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Besides increasing blood pressure and causing drinking, angiotensin II stimulates the release of ______, which is crucial to Na+ conservation

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Besides increasing blood pressure and causing drinking, angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone.

A steroid hormone made by means of the adrenal cortex. It allows for managing the balance of water and salts within the kidney by using preserving sodium and liberating potassium from the frame. Too much aldosterone can purpose excessive blood strain and a build-up of fluid in body tissues.

In hyperaldosteronism, overproduction of the hormone aldosterone leads to fluid retention and improved blood pressure, weak point, and, rarely, periods of paralysis. Hyperaldosteronism can be a result of a tumor in the adrenal gland or can be a response to some illnesses.

Aldosterone reasons sodium to be absorbed and potassium to be excreted into the lumen through principal cells.

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the bacteria pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a protein that is secreted into its environment. the protein inhibits synthesis of elongation factor 2 (another protein) in humans. this effect may sound dangerous, but it has been considered as a possible treatment for hepatitis b. the protein produced by p. aeruginosa is a(n) endotoxin. exotoxin. biological weapon. biofilm.

Answers

The protein produced by P. aeruginosa is an exotoxin, which is a type of toxin that is actively secreted into the environment.

This exotoxin has the unique ability to inhibit the synthesis of elongation factor 2 (EF2) in humans. Although it may sound dangerous, this property has been considered as a possible treatment for hepatitis B due to EF2's role in the replication of the virus. In addition, the protein also has potential applications in cancer treatments. It is believed that the effect of the exotoxin can be used to prevent the growth of tumor cells. Therefore, this protein produced by P. aeruginosa is a useful therapeutic tool for various medical conditions.

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Which of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria that suggests that they might have evolved from free living bacteria? A. The plasma membrane of a mitochondrion, forming the surface of this organelle, is the site of many important steps of cellular respiration. B. Mitochondria have cell walls. C. Mitochondria have their own DNA. D. Mitochondria rely upon proteins as their source of energy.

Answers

C. Mitochondria have their own DNA. suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria.

The majority of the chemical energy required to power the cell's biochemical reactions is generated by mitochondria, which are organelles of the cell that are bound by a membrane (mitochondrion, singular). A small molecule known as adenosine triphosphate (ATP) stores the chemical energy produced by the mitochondria.

Mitochondria and Chloroplasts Could Have Been Primitive Bacterial Cells: This is supported by compelling evidence. The endosymbiotic theory describes this evidence. They have their own transcriptional and translational machinery as well as their own DNA, which is circular like that of bacteria. Bacterial membrane components, mitochondrial ribosomes, and transfer RNA molecules are comparable. Bacterial membrane components, mitochondrial ribosomes, and transfer RNA molecules are comparable.

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Which of the following occurs during meiosis? Select all that apply.
Produces two diploid cells.
Produces four haploid cells.
Produces gametes
Produces body cells
Resulting cells are unique
Resulting cells are identical
Homologous chromosomes pair up
Crossing over occurs

Answers

Answer:

A, b,d

in meiosis those occur

Which of the following statements about sister chromatids is FALSE?A. They are identical copies.B. They are duplicated chromosomes.C. They are attached at their centromeres.D. They are separated during mitosis.E. They replicate during prophase,

Answers

Answer:

Correct answer is E

Explanation:

The sister chromatids replicate during the S phase(synthesis phase) , rather than prophase.

The sequence starts with : interphase G1 , interphase S, interphase G2 , then prophase during mitosis.

european flycatchers feed caterpillars to their hatchlings. graph 1 shows the average dates of hatching and fledging (leaving the nest), and the biomass of the caterpillars between early may (when flycatcher young hatch) and june (when fledging of young occurs). the figure presents two graphs of curves in two coordinate planes. one graph is above the other, and the graphs are related by dates indicated on the horizontal axes. a vertical line runs through the two graphs and is labeled with the date may twenty eighth. the graphs are described as follows. the upper graph consists of curves representing the distribution of flycatcher hatching and fledging dates and hatchling food needs over a time period. the horizontal axis has no label, and the dates may fifteenth and june second are indicated along it. the vertical axis is labeled frequency, and no numbers are indicated along it, although it ends in an arrowhead. the first curve, labeled date of hatching, is a bell curve which begins on the horizontal axis to the left of may fifteenth, peaks at may fifteenth, and ends on the horizontal axis to the right of may fifteenth but to the left of may twenty eighth. the second curve, labeled date of fledging, is a bell curve which begins on the horizontal axis to the right of may twenty eighth but to the left of june second, peaks at june second at the same height as the first curve, and ends on the horizontal axis to the right of june second. a third bell curve that is broader than the other two curves begins on the horizontal axis immediately before may fifteenth, peaks at may twenty eighth at the same height as the other two curves, and ends on the horizontal axis immediately to the right of june second. this broader curve is labeled hatchling food needs. the lower graph consists of a curve representing the biomass of caterpillars over the same time frame as in the upper graph. the horizontal axis has no label, and the date may twenty eighth is midway along it. the vertical axis is labeled biomass of caterpillars, and no numbers are indicated along it, although it ends in an arrowhead. the curve is a bell curve which begins on the horizontal axis immediately before may fifteenth, peaks at may twenty eight, and ends on the horizontal axis at immediately before june second. the curve has approximately the same dimensions as the hatchling food needs curve of the upper graph. the beginning of the curve is labeled hatching, the peak is labeled peak mass, and the end of the curve is labeled pupae. graph 1. comparison of european flycatcher hatching and fledging dates and caterpillar biomass based on the data, scientists claim that the reproductive behavior of european flycatchers is influenced by the availability of energy sources. which of the following statements best justifies this claim?

Answers

Based on the data, scientists claim that the reproductive behavior of European flycatchers is influenced by the availability of energy sources. The statement that best justifies this claim is option

A: Young European flycatchers hatch from eggs when caterpillar biomass is available for the young birds to consume and convert into energy for growth.

Who are the Young European flycatchers?

Young European flycatchers, also known as Eurasian pied flycatchers, rely on a diet of insects, including caterpillars, during the nestling stage when they are growing and developing.

During this time, the young birds are fed by their parents, who bring them a steady supply of insects to eat. Caterpillars are an important food source for the young flycatchers, as they are high in protein and other nutrients that are necessary for growth and development.

Therefore, based on the above, Young European flycatchers have a better chance of surviving since the date of hatching coincides with the time when caterpillar biomass is at its highest.

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European flycatchers feed caterpillars to their hatchlings. Graph 1 shows the average dates of hatching and fledging (leaving the nest), and the biomass of the caterpillars between early May (when flycatcher young hatch) and June (when fledging of young occurs).

Graph 1. Comparison of European flycatcher hatching and fledging dates and caterpillar biomass:

The figure presents two graphs of curves in two coordinate planes. One graph is above the other, and the graphs are related by dates indicated on the horizontal axes. A vertical line runs through the two graphs and is labeled with the date May twenty eighth. The graphs are described as follows. The upper graph consists of curves representing the distribution of flycatcher Hatching and Fledging dates and Hatchling Food Needs over a time period. The horizontal axis has no label, and the dates May fifteenth and June second are indicated along it. The vertical axis is labeled Frequency, and no numbers are indicated along it, although it ends in an arrowhead. The first curve, labeled Date of Hatching, is a bell curve which begins on the horizontal axis to the left of May fifteenth, peaks at May fifteenth, and ends on the horizontal axis to the right of May fifteenth but to the left of May twenty eighth. The second curve, labeled Date of Fledging, is a bell curve which begins on the horizontal axis to the right of May twenty eighth but to the left of June second, peaks at June second at the same height as the first curve, and ends on the horizontal axis to the right of June second. A third bell curve that is broader than the other two curves begins on the horizontal axis immediately before May fifteenth, peaks at May twenty eighth at the same height as the other two curves, and ends on the horizontal axis immediately to the right of June second. This broader curve is labeled Hatchling Food Needs. The lower graph consists of a curve representing the biomass of caterpillars over the same time frame as in the upper graph. The horizontal axis has no label, and the date May twenty eighth is midway along it. The vertical axis is labeled Biomass of Caterpillars, and no numbers are indicated along it, although it ends in an arrowhead. The curve is a bell curve which begins on the horizontal axis immediately before May fifteenth, peaks at May twenty eight, and ends on the horizontal axis at immediately before June second. The curve has approximately the same dimensions as the Hatchling Food Needs curve of the upper graph. The beginning of the curve is labeled Hatching, the peak is labeled Peak Mass, and the end of the curve is labeled pupae.

Based on the data, scientists claim that the reproductive behavior of European flycatchers is influenced by the availability of energy sources. Which of the following statements best justifies this claim?

A

Young European flycatchers hatch from eggs when caterpillar biomass is available for the young birds to consume and convert into energy for growth.

B

European flycatcher hatchlings begin to need energy to leave the nest only after the caterpillars have turned into pupae.

C

Female European flycatchers require energy to lay eggs, so they lay their eggs when the caterpillar biomass is maximal.

D

The energy requirements for hatching European flycatchers and caterpillars are proportional to each other.

match each description to the appropriate stem cell type. embryonic stem cell induced pluripotentstem cell (ipsc) bothcan be used to repair or replacecan develop into any type of tissue damaged tissue

Answers

Embryonic stem cells-Can evolve into any type of tissue and can be used to repair or replace damaged tissue

Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSC)-Can evolve into any type of tissue and can be used to repair or replace damaged tissue

Embryonic stem cells are cells that exist in the early stages of animal and human development. Their ability to differentiate into any cell type in the body makes them a promising tool for regenerative medicine and tissue repair.

Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are a type of stem cell generated by reprogramming mature cells from an individual's body. Skin cells are generated in an embryonic stem cell-like state. Like embryonic stem cells, iPSCs have the ability to differentiate into any type of cell in the body and can be used to repair or replace damaged tissue.

Both embryonic stem cells and iPSCs have potential uses in a variety of medical applications, including repairing or replacing damaged tissue, developing new drugs and treatments, and studying diseases and conditions at the cellular level. However, the use of these cells in research and therapy is still an area of ​​active investigation and further research is needed to fully understand their potential and limitations.

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