The left and right cervical plexuses are located deep on each side of the neck, immediately lateral to cervical vertebrae C1-C4.
The most severe spinal cord damage. Paralysis can affect the hands, arms, legs, or trunk of a person. The patient might not be able to manage their bowel or urine habits, independently cough, or control their breathing. Sometimes the capacity to speak may decrease or worsen.
One of the nerves that control your diaphragm is cervical nerve 4, which also regulates the mobility of your upper shoulder (muscle at the bottom of your rib cage that helps you breathe). Your neck, shoulders, and upper arms may experience some of the feeling that C4 causes.
The ventral rami of the cervical spine, which extend from C1 to C4, are where the nerves that make up the cervical plexus get their beginnings.
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Pedigree analysis is often used to determine mode of inheritance (dominant or recessive, for example). Be sure to read the "Tips for Pedigree Analysis" in Figure 14.15 in your text. Consider the following pedigree for the trait albinism (lack of skin pigmentation) in three generations of a family. (Solid symbols represent individuals with albinism.) Complete the unlabeled pedigree by indicating the genotypes for all involved.
In one sense, the term “genotype”—like the term “genome”—refers to the entire set of genes in the cells of an organism. In a narrower sense, however, it can refer to different alleles, or variant forms of a gene, for particular traits, or characteristics.
Based only on a pedigree, you might not always be able to ascertain the genotype of a person. An person may occasionally have homozygous dominant or heterozygous alleles for a characteristic. The relationships between a person and their parents, siblings, and children are frequently used to identify genotypes. The phenotypes of the children can be used to identify the unknown genotype. The unknown individual is homozygous dominant if pairing the recessive phenotypic individual with the unknown dominant phenotype (PP or Pp genotype) results in only dominant phenotypes (no recessive).
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Which of the following PCR modifications was developed to allow for the amplification of an RNA template ? A ) Multiplex B ) Nested C ) Reverse transcriptase D ) Real - time
Transcriptase in reverse To enable the amplification of an RNA template, PCR modifications were created.
The relatively straightforward polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology amplifies a DNA template to generate certain DNA fragments in vitro. Amplification of DNA sequences by PCR requires much less time than traditional procedures, which can take days or weeks to clone a DNA sequence into a vector and replicate it in a living cell.
Contrary to conventional biochemical tests, which include nucleic acid detection with radioisotopes, the PCR procedure only needs a little amount of biological material. As a result, PCR can amp up individual sequences at higher levels and with greater sensitivity than earlier techniques did.
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Which of these is ATP?
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of two phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base thymine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, ribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, deoxyribose, and nitrogenous base adenine.
The figure shows the molecule, which consists of three phosphate groups, deoxyribose, and nitrogenous base guanine.
At the cellular level, energy is used and stored as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenine, ribose, and three serially bound phosphate groups make up the structure of ATP, which is a nucleoside triphosphate.
An organic substance known as a nucleotide is composed of three different subunits: a nucleobase, a sugar with five carbons, and a phosphate group. Either ribose or deoxyribose may be the sugar. So a nucleoside with a phosphate group is a nucleotide. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), a substance made up of adenosine and three phosphate groups, is hydrolyzed by enzymes to provide energy for several biochemical cellular activities. An amino acid is an organic monomer that is used to construct proteins.Chemical energy is the type of energy found in ATP. Chemical energy is a kind of potential energy that is kept in chemical bonds as stored energy. Adenine nucleotides are joined to three phosphate groups to form the molecule known as ATP, or adenosine triphosphate.
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If an immunocompromised child lives in a community in which 97% of people have received the MMRV vaccine, herd immunity is likely to protect the child fromA. measlesB. rabiesC. mumpsD. ChickenpoxE. German measlesF. meningitis
If an immunocompromised child lives in a community in which 97% of people have received the MMRV vaccine, herd immunity is likely to protect the child from measles (A), mumps (C), chickenpox (D), german measles (F).
What type of immunity occurs when a person receives the MMR vaccination?When a person receives the MMR vaccination type of immunity which will occur is active Immunity. Vaccine-induced immunity is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through vaccination.MMRV vaccine contain all three vaccines contain live, attenuated measles, mumps, and rubella virus. MMRV vaccine also contains live, attenuated varicella-zoster virus. The lyophilized live MMR vaccines and MMRV vaccine should be reconstituted and administered as recommended by the manufacturersActive immunity refers to the administration of "antigens" in order to activate an immune response, whereas passive immunity refers to the transfer of "antibodies".
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Which of the following is NOT the role of an organism in a food web?
A
Producer
B
Scavenger
C
Composer
D
Predator
Answer: D
Explanation: A producer is an organism which produces its own food through photosynthesis. A consumer is an organism which does not make its own food but must get its energy from eating a plant or animal.
Composer is not the role of an organism in a food web. So, the correct option is C.
What is Food web?The feeding relationships between various creatures in an environment are depicted graphically in a food web. It demonstrates how energy and nutrients are transferred from one organism to another as it progresses through the various trophic levels, starting with primary producers (like plants) and going up to herbivores, carnivores, and top predators.
Producers are living things like plants or algae that use photosynthesis or chemosynthesis to create their own nourishment. Animals like vultures and hyenas are examples of scavengers; they consume dead and rotting stuff for food. Predators include animals like lions and hawks that go for and kill prey for sustenance.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Select the two true statements about natural selection.
Only variations that help individuals avoid predators can become more
common through natural selection.
The result of natural selection in a population depends on the population's
environment.
Natural selection causes advantageous variations to become more
common over many generations.
Natural selection can cause an individual to gain new advantageous
variations during its life
The result of natural selection in a population depends on the population's environment and Natural selection causes advantageous variations to become more common over many generations are true statements about the process of natural selection (options 2 and 3).
What is the process of natural selection?The process of natural selection is an evolutionary mechanism associated with the differential survival and reproduction of the most adaptive phenotypes in a given environment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of natural selection leads to a change in gene allele frequency due to differential reproduction.
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Use extrapolation to determine the environmental salt concentration that is isotonic to the paramecium?
The salt solution concentration is isotonic . More water increases the likelihood that water will enter the Paramecium through osmosis.
The contractile vacuole will need to fill up and then empty out more often if more water enters through osmosis. The paramecium would become overfilled salt solution concentration with water and eventually explode due to the inability of the cell to contain it all. Because the water would collect more quickly in a low salt solution concentration than it would in a high salt solution, it would happen faster if the paramecium was in it.
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a binding constraint is one for which the cell value is greater than the right-hand side of the value of the constraint.
The statement that mentioned above was false statement. Because a constraint is binding if at the optimum the constraint function holds with. Equality giving a boundary solution, somewhere on the constraint itself, otherwise the constraint is non-binding or slack.
What is a binding constraint in Excel?The dual value expresses the increase in the value of the objective function per unit increase in the value of the variable. A constraint's dual value is nonzero only when the constraint is equal to its bound. This is known as a binding constraint, and its value was determined throughout the optimization process.A constraint function can be translated into a different form that is equal to the original function; that is, the constraint boundary and feasible set for the problem remain unchanged, but the function's form does.Learn more about binding constraint here: brainly.com/question/17053557
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which of the following represents the path taken by food after leaving the mouth? question 34 options: pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine pharynx, larynx, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine larynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine larynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
The right answer is option a. Food first enters our bodies through the mouth before moving through the oesophagus and ending up in the stomach. After leaving the stomach, it moves into the small intestine and then the large intestine.
The GI tract is made up of multiple hollow organs that link to one another from the mouth to the anus. The hollow organs that make up the GI tract are the anus, small intestine, large intestine, and stomach. The part of your digestive process that receives food from your mouth is called the pharynx, which is located in your throat. The pharynx is connected to the oesophagus, which transports food to the stomach, and the trachea, also known as the windpipe, which transports air to the lungs.
So, we can conclude that option (a) is the appropriate response.
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Which of the following is NOT a
negative ecological (ecosystem-
related) impact on rangelands
from grazing livestock?
A. the weight of the cattle compacts the soil
B. increased wind and water erosion
C. the livestock eat too much grass
D. the livestock waste fertilizes the grasses
Facilitated diffusion via channels and carrier proteins The majority of solutes that diffuse across the plasma membrane cannot move directly through the lipid bilayer. The passive movement of such solutes (down their concentration gradients without the input of cellular energy) requires the presence of specific transport proteins, either channels or carrier proteins. Diffusion through a transport protein in the plasma membrane is called facilitated diffusion. outside cell Facilitated diffusion across the plasma membrane channel protein carrier protein inside cell Adapted from Biology by Campbell and Reece © 2008 Pearson Education, Inc. Sort the phrases into the appropriate bins depending on whether they are true only for channels, true only for carrier proteins, or true for both channels and carriers. transport solutes down a concentration or electrochemical gradient undergo a change in shape to transport solutes across the membrane provide a hydrophilic path across the membrane provide a continuous path across the membrane allow water molecules and small ions to flow quickly across the membrane transport primarily small polar organic molecules are integral membrane proteins only channels only carriers both channels and carriers
The concept of facilated diffusion is highlighted in general. It occur down the concentration gradient without energy expenditure.
Diffusion that is assisted (facilitated) by a membrane transport channel is referred to as facilitated diffusion. These pathways, which are composed of glycoproteins (proteins with linked carbohydrates), allow substances to flow across the membrane. These channels are nearly typically unique to either a specific molecule or a certain class of molecule (such as an ion channel), and as a result, they are closely associated with specific physiological processes. For instance, GLUT4 is a crucial transporter channel in the treatment of diabetes. A glucose transporter called GLUT4 is present in skeletal muscle and fat. In order for these cells to absorb glucose from the blood, insulin causes GLUT4 to bind to their membranes and insert.
Since this is a passive system, the amount of sugar that enters our cells is inversely proportional to the amount we ingest, up until the point where all of our channels are being utilised (saturation). Cells with type II diabetes mellitus don't insert GLUT4 into their membranes because they don't respond to insulin as well. As a result, blood glucose levels may increase, increasing the risk of renal failure, heart disease, and stroke.
Hence, facilated diffusion is specialized passive transport.
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which of the following terms are used to describe the appearance of the edge or margin of a colony growing on an agar surface? A. Turbid B. Smooth C. Wavy D. Convex E. Irregular
Irregular is the following terms are used to describe the appearance of the edge or margin of a colony growing on an agar surface.
1. Start by looking at the colony on the agar surface.
2. Observe the shape, size and color of the colony.
3. Pay close attention to the edge or margin of the colony.
4. Look for any irregularities in the shape, size and color of the edge or margin.
5. If any irregularities are present, the edge or margin of the colony can be described as irregular.
6. An agar surface is a type of laboratory media that is used to grow microorganisms. It is a gel-like substance composed of various nutrients and minerals.
7. When a colony of microorganisms is growing on an agar surface, the edge or margin of the colony can be observed.
8. The appearance of this edge or margin can be described as irregular. This means that the edge is not even or uniform in shape. It may have bumps, ridges, or other irregularities.
9. The irregular edge of a colony on an agar surface is usually caused by the growth of different types of organisms in the colony. This can make the edge appear uneven or irregular.
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TRUE OR FALSE abel these ftm tubes to demonstrate your understanding of the growth patterns of different organisms based on their metabolic need for or sensitivity to oxygen.
The FTM tubes can be labeled as follow on basis of the growth patterns of different organisms based on their metabolic needs:
1. Aerobic, 2. Microaerophilic, 3. Facultative, 4. Anaerobic
The term "metabolism" refers to the biological process that gives humans the energy they need to survive. People's metabolisms can vary from person to person; for example, some people may have a fast metabolism while others may have a slow one. This genetic and hereditary difference in metabolism.
But physical activity and exercise can momentarily change the metabolism from high to slow and from slow to high. When we exercise regularly, our body automatically uses more energy, changing our slow metabolism to a high metabolism.
The complete question is:
Label these FTM tubes to demonstrate your understanding of the growth patterns of different organisms based on their metabolic need for or sensitivity to oxygen.
Facultative, Aerobic, Microaerophilic, Anaerobic,
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In which brain structure does short term memory information processing take place?
A. brainstem
B. medulla
C. hypothalamus
D. hippocampus
In which brain structure does short term memory information processing take place hippocampus
A sophisticated brain structure located deep within the temporal lobe is the hippocampus. It plays a significant part in memory and learning. It is a malleable and delicate structure that is susceptible to various stimuli. According to studies, it is also impacted by a number of neurological and mental problems.What three activities does the hippocampus regulate?
The hippocampus, which is a crucial component of the limbic system, controls learning, memory encoding, memory consolidation, and spatial navigation.According to Schumacher et al. (2018), the hippocampus, which is part of the medial temporal lobe and connected to the amygdala, regulates emotional memory recall and regulation. It has improved functional connectivity with the anterior cingulate or amygdala during emotional regulation and recall of positive memory.
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In addition to extending the thigh, the biceps femoris rotates the thigh ____ whereas the semimembranosus and semitendinosus rotate the thigh _____
In addition to extending the thigh, the biceps femoris rotates the thigh outwards; whereas the semimembranosus and semitendinosus rotate the thigh inwards.
The biceps femoris rotates the thigh outward (laterally) and the semimembranosus and semitendinosus rotate the thigh inward (medially).
When the biceps femoris contracts, it pulls the femur bone outward and back, resulting in a lateral rotation of the thigh. This outward rotation of the thigh is called external rotation and is commonly seen when executing a squat.
Conversely, when the semimembranosus and semitendinosus contract, they pull the femur bone inward and back, resulting in a medial rotation of the thigh. This inward rotation of the thigh is called internal rotation and is commonly seen when performing a lunge.
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Which of the following amino acids is more likely to be found on the exterior of a globular protein and which on the interior? Explain.
(a) Valine
(b) Aspartic acid
(c) Phenylalanine
(d) Lysine
Valine is more likely to be found on the exterior of a globular protein because it is a hydrophobic amino acid, meaning it tends to interact with other non-polar molecules and be repelled by water.
Exploring the Differences Between Interior and Exterior Amino Acids in Globular ProteinsValine tends to interact with other non-polar molecules and be repelled by water. Aspartic acid is more likely to be found on the interior of a globular protein because it is a polar amino acid and therefore more likely to interact with other polar molecules and be attracted to water. Phenylalanine and lysine are both polar amino acids and are therefore more likely to be found on the interior of a globular protein.Learn more about amino acids: https://brainly.com/question/2526971
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A few unidentified seeds were found in a sealed clay jar during an archaeological dig. Radiocarbon dating showed that the seeds were 725 years old. When the seeds were planted, plants grew from them. Based on cell theory, what statements can confidently be made regarding these unidentified plants and seeds?Living cells inside the seeds divide to generate the new plant cells. Tissues in both the plants and the seeds are made of cells.
When the seeds were planted, plants grew from them this indicates that new plant cells are produced when the living cells inside the seeds divide.
The widely accepted scientific theory known as "cell theory" asserts that all living species are composed of cells, that these cells are the fundamental organizational and structural unit of all species, and that all cells are derived from previously existing cells.
In the given scenario, it is abundantly clear that cells makeup both the seeds and the mature plant. In order to produce the new cells of the plants, the living cells that are contained within the seeds multiply.
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a collection of dna fragments of various lengths was subjected to electrophoresis. arrange these dna molecules in order, based on the distance they would travel from the well. the molecule that travels the shortest distance should be at the top of the list, and the molecule that travels the greatest distance should be at the bottom of the list.
a. 900 bp
b. 2500 bp
c. 4200 bp
d. 6000 bp
e. 8000 bp
DNA fragments spanning varying lengths were separated using electrophoresis. Depending on how far they would go from the well, their pressures would be 8000 bp, 6000 bp, 4200 bp, 2500 bp, and 900 bp.
How does DNA function? What is it?The instructions required for a creature to grow, endure, and reproduce are encoded in its DNA. Dna fragments must be transformed into information that may be used to build proteins, that are molecules, in order to perform these functions.
Where in the body can you find DNA?Nearly every of the body's cells contains the same DNA. Although some DNA can also be found in the mitochondria, the majority of DNA is found inside structures called chromosomes. The DNA in chromosomes is wound around transcription factors (alkaline proteins).
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Which choice below briefly describes the Kirby-Bauer method of antimicrobic sensitivity testing? Multiple Choice - Broth disk elution - Disk diffusion - Minimal inhibitory concentration testing - Broth dilution
The correct choice is
b. Disc diffusion.
The Kirby-Bauer method for testing antimicrobial susceptibility, Is also known as the disc diffusion method.
It is a method for testing the susceptibility of bacteria to antimicrobial agents.
A disc impregnated with a specific antimicrobial agent is placed on a solid agar plate inoculated with the bacteria to be tested. The antimicrobial agent diffuses out of the disc into the surrounding medium and the zone of inhibition around the disc can be measured.
This allows researchers to determine the susceptibility of bacteria to antibiotics and select appropriate treatment regimens.
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The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis isSpermatogonia>spermatocyte>spermatid>spermsSpermatid>spermatocyte>spermatogonia>spermsSpermatogonia>spermatid>spermatocyte>spermsSpermatocyte>spermatogonia>spermatid>sperms
In a mature human testis, spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, and sperms should be formed in the proper order during the spermatogenetic process.
Spermatogenesis is the cycle by which haploid spermatozoa are formed. They develop from germ cells. These germ cells develop in the seminiferous tubules of the testis. This cycle begins with the mitotic division of immature microorganisms near the cell layer of the tubules. Thus the primary spermatocyte divides into two haploid daughter cells called secondary spermatocytes. Each secondary spermatocyte now undergoes a second. Each secondary spermatocyte now undergoes a second maturational division that is mitotic. Thus each secondary spermatocyte gives rise to two spermatids that are transformed to form two spermatozoa.
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based on the information given in slides 3 and 5 , for what set of cancer genes does p53 act as a transcription factor?
Answer:
Based on the information given in slides 3 and 5, p53 acts as a transcription factor for a set of genes involved in the cell cycle and apoptosis (programmed cell death).
Slide 3 states that p53 is a transcription factor that regulates the cell cycle and apoptosis. Slide 5 mentions that p53 activates the transcription of a set of genes involved in the cell cycle and apoptosis, including cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor genes (CDKIs) and Bax.
CDKIs are proteins that inhibit the activity of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs), which are enzymes that regulate the cell cycle. Bax is a protein that promotes apoptosis.
Therefore, p53 acts as a transcription factor for a set of genes involved in the regulation of the cell cycle and apoptosis, including CDKIs and Bax.
Explanation:
P53 acts as a transcription factor and acts as a guardian of the cell, preventing the cell from getting into the cancer stage, and when the p53 is mutant, then various kinds of cancer are formed.
What is the significance of the p53 ?It is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of cells in the cell cycle and induces DNA repair and apoptosis when the cell is not good enough to go into the cell cycle. Because the loss of functional p53 protein is a common feature of many types of human cancer, it is one of the transcription factors that positively regulate the cell for normal cell division.
Hence, p53 acts as a transcription factor and acts as a guardian of the cell, preventing the cell from getting into the cancer stage, and when the p53 is mutant, then various kinds of cancer are formed.
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A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the top layer.
A single thin layer of flattened cells to irregular boundaries makes up simple squamous epithelium. Those who line the walls of blood vessels and the lungs' air sacs. They also participate in physiological processes such as osmosis and diffusion.
A stratified squamous epithelium is a stratified epithelium with squamous (flattened and scale-like) epithelial cells in the topmost layer. Cuboidal or columnar cells may be found in the deeper layers. Some stratified squamous epithelia are heavily keratinized, while others are barely or not at all.
Squamous cells are thin, flat cells that resemble fish scales and are found in the skin's surface, the lining of hollow organs, and the lining of a respiratory and digestive tracts. Protective functions of stratified squamous epithelium include protection against microorganisms invading underlying tissue and/or protection against water loss. A single basal layer contains stem cells, 2-3 layers of proliferative basaloid cells in the suprabasal region, as well as larger keratinized cells near the surface.
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Which of the following activities would have the biggest positive impact on a person's cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one: A. yoga B. walking C. weightlifting D. push-ups
A. yoga. Yoga practices outperform other aerobic exercises in some cardiorespiratory fitness metrics, according to current CVD preventive guidelines.
Which exercises strengthen the heart and lungs?Exercises that are "pure" aerobic exercises include walking, jogging, running, cycling, swimming, aerobics, rowing, stair climbing, hiking, cross-country skiing, and many styles of dancing. Sports like tennis, basketball, and soccer can help you get better cardiovascular shape.
Does yoga increase your ability to run?Yoga is equivalent to modest levels of physical activity, according to a clinical experiment that was published in 2007 in BMC Complementary and Alternative Medicine, and is insufficient to increase cardiovascular fitness.
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2
2² + b² = c²
What is the main benefit of this model?
OA. It shows a pattern for determining the side lengths of a triangle.
OB. It shows the shape and parts of a triangle.
OC. It helps make predictions about the number of sides in a triangle.
OD. It helps visualize the features of a triangle.
Answer: A
Explanation:
a^2+b^2=c^2 is a famous formula known as Pythagorean Theorum.
It can be used to determine a side length of a right triangle based on the length of the other two sides.
A right triangle is a triangle with one angle measuring 90* or having a "right angle."
_______-__________ lines produce offspring carrying specific parental traits that remain constant
from generation to generation.
Purebred or true-breeding lines produce offspring carrying specific parental traits that remain constant from generation to generation.
These lines are created by breeding individuals that consistently produce offspring with the same traits. For example, if a purebred line of plants consistently produces offspring with a particular flower color, then all of the plants in that line will have that flower color. Similarly, if a purebred line of animals consistently produces offspring with a particular coat color, then all of the animals in that line will have that coat color. Purebred lines are used in many areas of biology, including agriculture, animal breeding, and biomedical research.
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Adding compost to farmed soil is better than adding synthetic fertilizer because: O compost contains disease fighting microorganisms that synthetic fertilizers lack. O synthetic fertilizers contain a great many microorganisms, some of which spread plant diseases. O compost contains carbon, and using only synthetic fertilizers can lead to a loss of soil carbon content. O synthetic fertilizers are adding the primary chemicals to the atmosphere that contribute to the ozone hole.
Adding compost to farmed soil is better than adding synthetic fertilizers for a variety of reasons. Perhaps the most important of these is that compost contains disease fighting microorganisms that synthetic fertilizers lack.
These microorganisms help to keep the soil healthy and reduce the chances of plant diseases. The microorganisms in synthetic fertilizers, on the other hand, can sometimes spread plant diseases.
Another advantage of adding compost to farmed soil is that it contains carbon. Over time, the use of only synthetic fertilizers can lead to a loss of soil carbon content, which is essential for healthy soil. In contrast, compost adds carbon and helps maintain the soil’s fertility.
Finally, it’s important to consider the environmental impact of synthetic fertilizers. Synthetic fertilizers are adding the primary chemicals to the atmosphere that contribute to the ozone hole. In contrast, compost is a natural product and does not contribute to environmental pollution.
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1:Phosphorus enters the biosphere through the process of ____________ which produces a bioavailable form of the nutrient.
a: phosphorylation
b: phosphorus fixation
c: weathering of phosphorus containing rocks
d: mycorrhizal fixation
2: Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they:
a: are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
b: allow for the cycling of the nutrients within the biosphere.
c: None of these choices are true.
d: are involved in processes that return the nutrients to their major reservoirs.
3: What is the difference between population size and effective population size (Ne)?
a: The effective population size is idealized so that there are more females than males.
b: The effective population size is usually larger than the population size.
c: In effective population size, only the females are counted because you can tell who the offspring are from.
d: In the effective population size, those individuals that do not reproduce are not counted.
Weathering. Decomposers are critical in the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles because they are responsible for the fixation of the nutrients into a bioavailable form.
Since the main source of phosphorus is found in rocks, the first step of the phosphorus cycle involves the extraction of phosphorus from the rocks by weathering. Weather events, such as rain and other sources of erosion, result in phosphorus being washed into the soil.Effective population size (Ne) is one of the most important parameter in population genetics and conservation biology. It translates census sizes of a real population into the size of an idealized population showing the same rate of loss of genetic diversity as the real population under study.Ne is defined as the size of an ideal Wright–Fisher population exhibiting the same amount of genetic drift and inbreeding as the population under consideration (Wright, 1931). Ne may be complicated to estimate in most populations because of age structure, generation overlap and iteroparity.
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A specimen
is viewed under a x400 magnification.
The magnified image is 10.5 mm wide.
What is the actual width of the specimen?
Give your answer in microns (μm) and to
2 significant figures.
Enter a numbers
The actual width of the specimen would be 26 μm..
Microscope's magnificationA microscope multiplies the size of images so that the small details that cannot be seen with ordinary eyes are magnified for further study.
Thus, if a microscope magnifies an object whose original size is A by X times, the magnification of the object would be calculated as:
Magnification = AX
In other words, the actual size of the object can be determined by dividing it by the number of times the microscope magnified it.
In this case, the microscope magnified the specimen by 400. The magnified width of the specimen is 10.5 mm. Thus, the actual width of the object can be calculated as:
10.5/400 = 0.02625 mm.
In order to give the answer in microns, recall that:
1 mm = 1000 μm
Thus:
0.02625 mm = 0.02625 x 1000
= 26.25 μm
To 2 significant figures, the actual width of the specimen would be 26 μm.
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Which of the following are advantages to sexual reproductioin? Choose all that apply.
Requires more energy
Variation helps offspring adapt to change
Requires finding a mate
Embryos receive protection
Takes more time
Produces genetically unique offspring
Requires more energy
Answer:
meow meow meow meow, meow meow meow meow, meow meow
Explanation:
meow
If a cell has 8 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each of its dauchter cells have after evtokinesis?
Answer: Also 8
Explanation:
Okay, so the parent cell has eight chrome zone chromosomes. Therefore each daughter cell will also have eight chromosomes because of mitosis.
Answer: 8 daughter cells
Explanation:
Each daughter cell will have 8 chromosomes. That is correct. By the end of mitosis, there are two daughter cells. Each daughter cell will have the same amount of genetic material as the parent – 8 chromosomes.
