Two phenomena that are difficult to demonstrate in evaluative conditioning are occasion-setting and extinction.
Evaluative conditioning is a term that refers to a change in attitude or behavior when paired with stimuli that (naturally) evoke positive or negative emotions about an object. Some examples of evaluative conditioning are present in:
Marketing and advertisingAssociation with celebrityThere are two forms of stimuli that are hard to demonstrate for evaluative conditioning tests. The first one is occasion setting, which is the ability of a stimulus to modulate the efficacy of association between stimulus(es) or between stimulus and reinforcer. The second one is extinction. It's hard to demonstrate because unintentionally unlearning a behavior and eventually stops doing it altogether is difficult with conscience.
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which of the following characterizes chronic malnutrition in children? a. rapid weight loss b. low weight for height c. short height for age d. hyperactivity e. shrunken liver
The chronic malnutrition in children is short height for age which means option c is the correct choice.
This is a condition that develops when children do not eat the correct balance of nutrients in the first 1,000 days of life (from conception to the age of two), resulting in the irreversible stunting of their cognitive and physical development. It is caused by a lack of nutrients, either as a result of a poor diet or problems absorbing nutrients from food. Estimates indicate that starving people become weak in 30 to 50 days and die in 43 to 70 days.
Therefore, option c is the correct choice.
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TRUE/FALSE. continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off.
Continuous improvement in the context of a hospital organization entails maintaining profitability, even if some quality measures have to be traded off. The given statement is false.
A group of people who cooperate is known as an organisation. Examples of such groups include unions, corporations, charities, and neighbourhood associations. The term "organisation" can be used to describe a person, a company, a group, or the process of creating something. A club, corporation, charity, or political party are all examples of official groups of individuals. These specialty schools are chronic illness primarily offered by nonprofit institutions. Functional, departmental, and matrix organisations are the three types of organisations that best reflect the organisational structures currently used by the majority of businesses. Owners must weigh the benefits and drawbacks of each of these formats before picking which to use for their particular firm.
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a student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with which patient conditions? (choose all that apply)
A student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with patient diseases of the brain and spinal cord.
Neurology is that the branch of drugs coping with the identification and treatment of all classes of conditions and unwellness involving the brain, the medulla spinalis and also the peripheral nerves. medicine apply depends heavily on the sphere of neurobiology, the scientific study of the system.
Serious neurological disorders with diseases of the brain and spinal cord are learning disabilities, autism, cerebral palsy, ADD, epilepsy, spinal stenosis, tumors,degenerative disc disease, etc.
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TRUE/FALSE. the medical record must meet the standards defined by the centers for medicare and medicaid services conditions of participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.
The medical record must meet the standards defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Conditions of Participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This statement is True.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) that administers the Medicare program as well as Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), and health insurance portability standards in collaboration with state governments.
CMS also has administrative simplification standards from the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), quality standards in long-term care facilities (more commonly known as nursing homes) through its survey and certification process, clinical laboratory quality standards under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, and oversight of HealthCare.gov. Until 2001, CMS was known as the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).
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with the transition to a greater prevalence of chronic diseases, physicians have increasingly had to take which approach to medical care?
With the transition to a greater prevalence of chronic diseases, physicians have increasingly had to take a "Whole Person" care approach to medical care.
The provision of physical, behavioral, emotional, and social services necessary to enhance care coordination, well-being, and health outcomes while respecting patients' treatment preferences is known as whole-person care. Whole-person care is the patient-centered optimal use of various healthcare resources.
Diet, exercise, leisure time, and sleep. Together, these pillars maintain the well-being of your body and mind.
In order to improve health outcomes and make better use of available resources, "Whole-Person Care" refers to the patient-centered coordination of social, behavioral, and health services.
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an orthodox jewish pregnant woman comes to the labor and birth suite with her birth attendant. her partner is also present in the room. the woman is about to give birth when the nurse observes the partner move to the head of the bed outside the view of the birth. the nurse interprets this action as:
According to the condition of the question, the nurse interprets this action as the reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices.
What is the major responsibility of the nurse to pregnant women?The prenatal nurse monitors the health status of the mother and fetus, provides emotional support, and teaches the pregnant woman and her family about physiological and psychological changes during pregnancy, fetal development, labor and childbirth, and care for the newborn.
According to the context of this question, when a woman is about to give birth when the nurse observes the partner move to the head of the bed outside the view of the birth. This demonstrates the reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices towards their same culture and emotions.
Therefore, the nurse interprets this action as a reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices.
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which antibiotics may be administered topically? (select all that apply) group of answer choices ofloxacin daptomycin polymyxin b rifampin bacitracin
Both Bacitracin and Polymyxin B are antibiotics used topically. Rifampin, ofloxacin, and daptomycin are not designed to be applied topically.
A particular class of antimicrobial agent that works against bacteria is an antibiotic. Antibiotic drugs are frequently employed in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections because they are the most effective type of antibacterial agent for doing so.
Bacteria are common, largely free-living creatures that frequently only have one biological cell. They make up a significant portion of the prokaryotic microbial kingdom. Bacteria, which are typically a few micrometers long and were among the first living forms to arise on Earth, are found in the majority of its habitats.
Bacteria may be killed or have their growth suppressed. Antibiotics frequently cause rash, nausea, dizziness, diarrhea, and yeast infections as side effects.
The most severe adverse effects include diarrhea caused by the Clostridioides difficile infection (commonly known as C. difficile or C. diff), which can cause severe colon damage and even death.
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a patient develops a tumor in one of their parathyroid glands, causing an increase in the release of parathyroid hormone into the blood. what would be the result?
Answer:
Hypercalcemia
Explanation:
Parathyroid tumors may increase the levels of parathyroid hormones. This leads to more calcium in your blood. This is called hypercalcemia.
the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for the creation of an ileal conduit. which statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective?
The statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective is "I will not need to worry about being incontinent of urine."
An ileal conduit is one of the numerous surgical techniques for urinary diversion. It's typically been named because of the Bricker ileal conduit after its inventor, Eugene M. Bricker. During the procedure, a MD creates a replacement tube from a chunk of bowel that permits the kidneys to empty and urine to exit the body through atiny low gap known as a stoma.
Incontinent of urine is a common and infrequently embarrassing problem. The severity ranges from sometimes leaking urine once you cough or sneeze to having an urge to urinate that is therefore sharp and powerful you do not get to a rest room in time.
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a newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5cm), and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33cm). the nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and was at breech presentation delivery by c section. what action should the nurse take based on these data?
The action the nurse should take based on these data is to record the finding on the chart since they are within normal limits.
What is nursing action?Nursing actions are described as those interventions a nurse takes to implement their patient care plan, including any treatments, procedures, or teaching moments intended to improve the patient's comfort and health.
There are typically three different categories for nursing actions and they include:
independent actionsdependent actions and interdependent actionsA newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5cm), and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33cm) which is the normal limits. The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and was at breech presentation delivery by c section. It is expected that the nurse to record the finding on the chart since they are within normal limits.
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TRUE/FALSE. In the agreement/attestation statement signed by a provider, it agrees to charge Medicare beneficiaries for any services that Medicare beneficiaries are entitled to have payment made on their behalf by the Medicare program.
False. Assisting the elderly of the country with hospital, medical, and other healthcare bills is the goal of the Medicare health insurance programme. Almost 65 years of age and older has access to Medicare.
Additionally, Medicare has been expanded to cover those under 65 with end-stage renal disease, Social Security disability benefits, or Railroad Retirement Board benefits (ESRD). Medicare is administered by a federal organisation called the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
Each sort of healthcare coverage that a Medicare beneficiary has is referred to as a "payer" when they do so. It is possible to tell when Medicare is the secondary payer using a number of techniques and tools, which helps to verify that claims are paid properly.
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A nurse is caring for a client following arthroscopic knee surgery. To prevent postoperative complications, the nurse should have the client do which of the following?
A. Remain on bed rest for the first 24 hr
B. keep the leg in a dependent position
C. apply ice to the affected area
D. begin active range of motion
Answer:
B: Keep the leg in a dependent position
Explanation:
Keeping the leg in a dependent position will reduce swelling and help to prevent postoperative complications.
the parents of a child admitted with rheumatic fever (rf) ask why the child has been placed on bedrest. the nurse explains that bedrest serves what primary purpose for the client?
Bedrest serves primary purpose for the client with rheumatic fever to restrict the inflammation and pain.
Rheumatic fever (acute rheumatic fever) is a condition that may have an effect on the guts, joints, brain, and skin. infectious disease will develop if infection, contagion, and strep skin infections aren't treated properly. Symptoms embody fever and painful, tender joints. Treatment involves medication, typically for keeps.
Rheumatic fever causes inflammation, particularly of the guts, blood vessels and joints. The heart valves may be inflamed and become scarred over time. Rheumatic fever will cause long complications in sure things. It primarily affects youngsters between the ages of six and sixteen.
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a patient is sent to a general surgeon by her family physician for an opinion and recommendation for surgical repair of a recurrent femoral hernia, right. a brief problem focused history and exam are performed. the mdm complexity was straightforward. what is the correct e/m service code?
The correct e/m service code is CPT Code: 99241
ICD-10-CM:
K41.91
A femoral hernia occurs when fatty tissue or a portion of your bowel protrudes through the top of your inner thigh into your groin. It pushes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle wall (abdominal wall) into an area called the femoral canal. Femoral hernias are generally not life-threatening medical conditions. Strangulation of the hernia can become life-threatening, however, and must be treated through emergency surgery.
Femoral hernias are frequently confused with inguinal hernias due to their proximity. Femoral hernias are relatively uncommon. If the hernia is not repaired, the intestine can become trapped inside. This is referred to as an incarcerated or strangulated hernia. It has the potential to cut off blood supply to the intestines.
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at the clinic, little jake received an injection from the physician's assistant who was wearing a white coat. after that, every time he saw someone wearing white, he started to scream in fright. jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the .
Jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the conditioned stimulus (CS).
A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. Using the terminology of the conditioned stimulus (CS) , it is a learned stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. as an example, the sound of a bell is that the stimulation in Pavlov's experiment, and therefore the dogs salivating would be the conditional reaction.
An injection is that the act of administering a liquid, particularly a drug, into an individual's body employing a needle and a syringe. An injection is taken into account a sort of canal drug administration; it doesn't involve absorption within the channel.
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the nurse is preparing to administer hepatitis b vaccine, recombinant (energix-b) 5 mcg im to a school-aged child. the vaccine is labeled, 10 mcg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer?
Use ratio and proportion, 5 mcg : X ml :: 10 mcg : 1ml 10X = 5 X = 0.5 ml
Most people who are vaccinated with hepatitis B vaccine are immune for life. Hepatitis B vaccine is usually given as 2, 3, or 4 shots. Infants should get their first dose of hepatitis B vaccine at birth and will usually complete the series at 6–18 months of age.Hepatitis B vaccine is a vaccine that prevents hepatitis B. The first dose is recommended within 24 hours of birth with either two or three more doses given after that. This includes those with poor immune function such as from HIV/AIDS and those born premature.The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends hepatitis B (HepB) vaccination among all adults aged 19–59 years and adults > 60 years with risk factors for hepatitis B or without identified risk factors but seeking protection.
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student study guide chapter 8: planning a diet for fitness and wellness 1. draw the mypyramid food guide and label the sections. 2. what are some disadvantages with eating fast foods? 3. list some healthy snack foods. 4. what should you look for when reading a food label? 5. what is the basal metabolic rate? 6. will taking vitamin supplements give you more energy? 7. what type of foods will give you the most energy for a longer period of time? 8. what types of liquids should you drink before, during, and after exercise?
Consume an abundance of fruits and vegetables. Select foods low in added sugars, saturated fats, and sodium. Choose whole grains, lean protein sources, and dairy products. Exercise all four types: endurance, strength, balance, and flexibility.
2. Obesity, insulin resistance, type 2 diabetes, and various cardiovascular conditions are examples of such risks. This is due to the high levels of sugar, salt, saturated fat, trans fats, processed ingredients, and calories in most fast foods. It is also low in antioxidants, fiber, and a variety of other nutrients.
3. Fruits and vegetables are excellent healthy snack options. They are high in vitamins while being low in calories and fat. Whole-wheat crackers and cheeses are also tasty snacks. Including healthy fats like olive oil, nuts, nut butter, or avocado can also help with satiety and blood sugar control. She recommends cereal with milk, yogurt, and fruit, as well as whole-grain crackers or toast with nut butter.
4. When reading the Nutrition Facts label, start with the number of servings in the package (servings per container) and the serving size. Total fat, saturated fat, sugar, and salt are the most important to consider. These are the "big four" that can affect our weight and blood pressure, increasing our risk of coronary heart disease and stroke.
5. The resting metabolic rate is typically measured in the morning before eating or exercising and after a full night's sleep. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the number of calories required to perform your body's most fundamental (basal) functions, such as breathing, circulation, and cell production.
6. Vitamins and minerals are substances that your body requires to produce energy, stay healthy, and function properly. It's best to get your vitamins from food to naturally maintain your day-to-day energy levels. Multivitamins can help with energy levels and overall well-being. Consult your healthcare provider to determine the best formula for your specific health needs.
7. Carbohydrates, particularly "complex" carbohydrates like fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, are the best fuel for exercise. Fish, nuts, vegetable oils, and avocados contain healthy fats that can help fuel endurance sports like long-distance running. Protein can help to rebuild an immune system that has been worn down by exercise.
8. Take 8 ounces of water. 20 to 30 minutes before starting your workout or during your warm-up. During exercise, drink 7 to 10 ounces of water every 10 to 20 minutes. Drink 8 ounces of water within 30 minutes of finishing your workout.
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1. A medical order states that a patient is to receive 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over two
hours. How fast is the IV running in ml/hr?
Hello,
I hope you and your family are doing well!
To find the rate at which the IV is running in ml/hr, you can use the formula:
rate = volume/time
In this case, the volume of the IV is 500 mL and the time it is to be infused is 2 hours. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:
rate = 500 mL / 2 hours = 250 mL/hr
Therefore, the IV is running at a rate of 250 mL/hr.
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a patient presents with heatstroke. the nurse uses cool packs, cooling blanket, and a fan. which technique is the nurse using when the fan produces heat loss?
Your physician may perform the following to do this on heatstroke: Put cold water on you. It has been demonstrated that the fastest way to drop your core body temperature is to take a cold or ice bath.
There is a lower chance of death in heatstroke and organ damage the sooner you can be submerged in cold water. Use cooling methods that involve evaporation. Health care professionals may use evaporation to try to lower your body temperature if cold water immersion is not an option. Warm air is blown over you as cool water is misted on your body, evaporating as it cools your skin. Provide cooling blankets and ice for you. Applying ice packs to your groin is another technique, which involves wrapping you in a special cooling blanket.
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a client with a spinal cord injury is to receive methylprednisolone sodium succinate 100 mg intravenously twice a day. the medication is supplied in vials containing 125 mg per 2 ml. how many ml will constitute the correct dose? enter the correct number only.
The correct dose maybe 1.6 ml. Use of high-dose methylprednisolone within eight hours of acute closed spinal cord injury as a therapy standard or as a treatment is not supported by enough research.
Within eight hours of a closed spinal cord injury, a bolus intravenous infusion of methylprednisolone at a dose of 30 mg per kilogram of body weight administered over fifteen minutes, followed 45 minutes later by an infusion of 5.4 mg per kilogram of body weight administered every hour for 23 hours, is the only course of treatment for which there is only weak clinical evidence (Level I- to II-1). If methylprednisolone infusion is chosen as a therapy option, there is not enough evidence to justify continuing it past 23 hours.
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a 23-year-old man presents with 2 days of rice water diarrhea after a recent trip to india. what is the appropriate pharmacologic treatment for his condition?
Doxycycline (cholera). Doxycycline is currently advised as the first-line treatment for adults, including pregnant women, and children for rice water diarrhea.
Assuming that the cholera strain is sensitive, several antibiotics, including doxycycline, ciprofloxacin, and azithromycin, are useful in the treatment of cholera causing diarrhea. The WHO recommends only administering antibiotics to cholera patients whose condition is deemed "serious." According to this suggestion, antibiotics should only be administered to individuals who have "severe dehydration" (10% dehydration) at the time of their diagnosis. In terms of transmission, one litre of rice-water stools contains V. cholerae germs. 105 to 108 organisms constitute an infectious dosage.
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you are dispatched emergent to a possible carbon monoxide poisoning in a family residence. as you are questioning your patient, your partner is about to apply the pulse oximetry. you quickly remember in school you learned that cos affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen is times greater?
I quickly remember in school I learned that CO's affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen is 200 times greater.
Carbon monoxide has a 200-fold higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen does. As soon as one molecule of carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve changes to the left, further increasing its affinity and significantly reducing the release of oxygen to the tissues.
The pH of tissue decreases and hydrogen ion concentration rises in carbon dioxide. Because of this, oxygen release to tissues is enhanced and hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases. The lung experiences opposite changes.
Hemoglobin-bound carbon monoxide reduces the amount of oxygen carried to bodily tissues and essential organs like the brain and heart. The link between oxygen and hemoglobin is around 200 times weaker than the bond between carbon monoxide and hemoglobin.
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which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead squat assessment
Abductor static stretch mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the exercise squat assessment.
Exercise is a sort of physical activity that enhances or maintains both physical fitness and overall health and wellness. It is done for a variety of reasons, including to improve athletic prowess, support strength and growth, develop the muscles and cardiovascular system, lose or maintain weight, improve health, or just for enjoyment. Since exercising outside enables people to socialize, form groups, and enhance their physical and emotional well-being, many people prefer to do so. Depending on the goal, the type of exercise, and the age of the person, a certain quantity of exercise is recommended for health advantages. Any form of exercise is better for you than no exercise at all.
The complete question is:
which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead exercise squat assessment?
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller
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you are called to a 'patient down' at a private residence. as you get inside and into the back bedroom, you can see that there is a woman face down and motionless. she does not appear to be conscious and there is a pool of saliva next to her head. your partner maintains spinal precautions as you roll her onto her back. the husband states that she has a history of heart problems, takes a lot of medications, and has no allergies. what would you do next?
Ensure there is no carotid pulse before starting CPR.
Fat deposits (plaques) obstruct the blood vessels that provide blood to your brain and head, causing carotid artery disease (carotid arteries). The obstruction raises your risk of having a stroke, a major medical emergency that happens when the blood supply to the brain is cut off or significantly diminished.
When the heart stops beating, CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a life-saving emergency operation. After cardiac arrest, immediate CPR can increase survival rates by a factor of two to three.
Maintaining blood flow, even if just partially, increases the chance of a successful resuscitation once trained medical personnel arrive on the scene.
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a client who is in rehabilitation following a cerebrovascular accident (or brain attack) is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side. the nurse finds that the client needs assistance with eating to ensure optimum nutrition. which action is most important for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating?
Answer:
The most important action for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating for a client who is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side following a cerebrovascular accident is to assess the client's swallowing function. This is important because individuals with hemiplegia often have difficulty swallowing, which can lead to malnutrition and other complications. The nurse can assess the client's swallowing function by performing a swallowing evaluation, which typically involves observing the client while they eat and drink to identify any problems with swallowing. Based on the results of the evaluation, the nurse can recommend appropriate interventions to improve the client's swallowing function and ensure that they are able to eat and drink safely and optimally.
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Explanation:
When lifting or moving any patient, the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her:
Select one:
a. arms.
b. legs.
c. back.
d. hips.
When lifting or moving any patient, the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her legs. Thus, the correct option is B.
What measures should be taken by the EMT?EMT is the Emergency medical technician. It is also known as an ambulance technician, it is a health professional which provides emergency medical services to the patients such as basic first-aid treatment as needed.
The roles of EMT include response appropriately to the emergency calls, assess a person's condition and know how to provide proper medical care to the patient, put together an initial plan of care to quickly stabilize an individual in the distress.
The best way to lift or move any patient, includes the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her legs.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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a pediatric client with a ventricular septal defect repair is placed on a maintenance dose of digoxin. the safe dose is 0.03 mg/kg/day, and the client's weight is 7.2 kg. the primary health care provider (phcp) prescribes the digoxin to be given twice daily. how much digoxin would the nurse administer to the client at each dose?
The digoxin that the nurse administers to the patient at each dose is 28.8 mcg.
Digoxin is in a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Their function is to slow the heart rate and improve the filling of the ventricles with blood. Digoxin belongs to a class of drugs called digitalis glycosides. Used to improve heart strength and efficiency or to control heart rate and rhythm.
This improves circulation and reduces swelling in the hands and ankles of patients with heart problems. Digoxin is used to treat heart failure, usually with other drugs. It is also used to treat certain types of arrhythmias. Treatment for heart failure helps maintain walking ability and improve heart strength.
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a patient presents to your dental office the day after her dental appointment complaining of swelling and itching on the right side of her face. you should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms are related to dental anesthesia. group of answer choices true false
You should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms related to dental anesthesia is False.
The reason local anesthetic concentrations are higher than injectables is to facilitate the diffusion of local anesthetic through mucous membranes. Neither local nor injectable anesthetics used in dentistry are natural vasoconstrictors.
Cetakaine Spray is the only FDA-approved local anesthetic for gag reflex inhibition. The dosage is one spray per second. The toxicity of local anesthetics usually occurs as a result of treatment error. Circumstances leading to toxicity include accidental intravenous or arterial injections and overdose of ingestion or topical formulations containing local anesthetics.
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In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, which of the following is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey?
A. Initiation of pulse oximetry.
B. Complete set of vital signs.
C. Client’s allergy history.
D. Brief neurologic assessment.
In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, the following which is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey is brief neurologic assessment and is therefore denoted as option D.
What is a Trauma?This is referred to as an incident that causes physical, emotional, spiritual, or psychological harm to an individual.
This could cause different types of negative effect which is why a brief neurologic assessment which helps to determine the level of consciousness is needed as part of the primary survey and is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice in this scenario.
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morphine is ordered to infuse at 3mg/hr. the medication is prepared with 60mg of morphine in 250ml of fluid. at what rate should your pump be set
12.5 ml/hr is the right answer. The dosage of morphine to be infused is 3 mg/hr. 250 cc of liquid and 60 milligrammes of morphine are used to produce the medicine. 12.5 ml per hour should be the setting for your pump.
[tex]X mL/hr = 250mL/60 mg x 3 mg/hr= 12.5 ml/hr[/tex]
If you only need to calculate the infusion rate, or the amount of medication to be infused every hour, divide the total volume in mL by the total number of hours the drug is to be infused over to get the rate in mL per hour. For intravenous delivery, it's crucial to administer morphine gradually over a period of 4 to 5 minutes while the patient is lying down. In adults and adolescents older than 12 years old, appropriate starting doses of morphine for continuous intravenous infusion are 1-2 mg per hour.
So, we can conclude that the correct response is 12.5 ml/hr. Your pump's setting should be 12.5 ml per hour.
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