Type your answers into the boxes.
Without using a calculator, work out the following:

√121  = 11     √900  =      ∛125  =      ∛729 = 

Answer:

0.1143 = 11.43% probability that all but one of them are using Chrome as their browser

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they use Chrome, or they do not. The probability of a person using Chrome is independent of any other person, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Chrome: 52.57%

This means that [tex]p = 0.5257[/tex]

Sample of 6 people

This means that [tex]n = 6[/tex]

What is the probability that all but one of them are using Chrome as their browser?

5 using Chrome, so:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = C_{6,5}.(0.5257)^{5}.(1-0.5257)^{1} = 0.1143[/tex]

0.1143 = 11.43% probability that all but one of them are using Chrome as their browser

Answer:

yes , This is an example of the associative property.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

16 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

4 + 4 + 3 + 5 = 16

The = sign means that B (which is 4 cm) is equal to D (which had no number)

And because it says that B = D (with the squiggly line (or a tilde)) And the L's (which means that the letters represent an angle) All you have to do is add the numbers together, and you get 16.

Sorry if I explained it badly, you at least got the answer.

(And also, if I'm wrong, please tell me.)

Answer:

P = 32 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Im just putting the right answer up so you don't accidentally put in the wrong one.

Step-by-step explanation:

here is the answer to your question

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (c)  2^r = a

Step-by-step explanation:

The relationship between log forms and exponential forms is ...

  [tex]\log_2(a)=r\ \Leftrightarrow\ 2^r=a[/tex]

__

Additional comment

I find this easier to remember if I think of a logarithm as being an exponent.

Here, the log is r, so that is the exponent of the base, 2.

This equivalence can also help you remember that the rules of logarithms are very similar to the rules of exponents.

Answer: Choice C)  [tex]2^r = a[/tex]

This is the same as writing 2^r = a

==========================================================

Explanation:

Assuming that '2' is the base of the log, then we'd go from [tex]\log_2(a) = r[/tex] to [tex]2^r = a[/tex]

In either equation, the 2 is a base of some kind. It's the base of the log and it's the base of the exponent.

The purpose of logs is to invert exponential operations and help isolate the exponent. A useful phrase to help remember this may be: "if the exponent is in the trees, then we need to log it down".

The general rule is that [tex]\log_b(y) = x[/tex] converts to [tex]y = b^x[/tex] and vice versa.

Incurring a budget surplus and allowing that surplus to accumulate as idle Treasury balances. Then the correct option is B.

A span of transitory negative growth marked by a drop in Income in four quarters.

The negative effects of a recession would be reduced by the fiscal policy decision will be

Incurring a budget surplus and allowing that surplus to accumulate as idle Treasury balances

Then the correct option is B.

More about the Recession link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/18075358

#SPJ1

Answer:

y = (-x)^3 - 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok, for the function:

y = x^3

When x = 0, we have:

y = 0^3  = 0

So the original graph passes through the point (0, 0)

If we look at the given graph, we can see that the y-intercept (the value of y when x = 0) is:

y = -4

So, this is the graph of y = x^3 moved down 4 units.

You can also see that the graph goes downward as x increases (and up as x decreases) while for the function:

y = x^3

as x increases, we should see that y also increases.

Then we have a reflection across the x-axis.

Ok, now let's describe a vertical shift.

For a general function f(x), a vertical shift of N units is written as:

g(x) = f(x) + N

if N is positive, the shift is upwards

if N is negative, the shift is downwards.

And for a function f(x), a reflection across the x-axis is written as:

g(x) = - f(x)

Here we first apply the reflection across the x-axis, so we get:

g(x) = -f(x)

now we apply the shift 4 units downwards

g(x) = - f(x) - 4

replacing f(x) by our function, x^3

we get:

g(x) = -x^3 - 4

And because of the odd power, we can write:

-x^3 = (-x)^3

Then the function is:

g(x) = (-x)^3 - 4

The correct option is the last one.

y = (-x)^3 - 4

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

3+7+5

PLEASE BRAINLIESTTTTTTTTT

Answer:

mean life = 8264.5 s

Step-by-step explanation:

k = - 0.000121

The relation is given by

[tex]m = mo e^{kt}[/tex]

Now, the mean life is the life time for which the sample retains.

The mean life is the reciprocal of the decay constant.  

The relation between the mean life and the decay constant is

[tex]\tau =\frac{1}{k}\\\\\tau = \frac{1}{0.000121} = 8264.5 seconds[/tex]

Answer:

f(-1) = 1

f(0) = 20

f(2) = 38

Step-by-step explanation:

f(-1) = 9×-1 + 10 = -9 + 10 = 1

f(0) = 9×0 + 20 = 0 + 20 = 20

f(2) = 9×2 + 20 = 18 + 20 = 38

we needed to use the second definition for f(0), because that is the same as saying x=0.

and that is in the domain of the second function definition ( x>=0).

Answer:

It would be 6300000. I can't write this in standard form.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6.3 x 10^6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  1/ 233856 chance changed to 233856  x 2 = 467712

= 1 / 467712 chance as there are 2 drawings

Workings;

1 and 65 = 64

1 and 65 - 1 ball drawn = 63

1 and 60 -1 = 58

1/64 x 1/63 x 1/58 = 233856

1/4032 x 1/58 and to make these the same we 4038/58 =  69.62

then convert properly = 1/4032  x 69.62/4032 4032 x 4032 = 69.62/16257024 then 16257024/69.62 =233510.83

= 233511 chance if rounding before

1/ (233511 x 2) = 1/467022

Then one part is our actual probability

P) = 1/233856

But as they specified a special drawing

you need to repeat this as 64 x 63 x 58 x 2 as the last one cannot be in 1 drawing it has to be in 2nd drawing

233856  x 2 = 467712

= 1 / 467712 chance not rounding down before hand.

Answer:

Ask me

Step-by-step explanation:

Tell me dear ask..

Answer:

x < -10

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Equality Properties

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

Identify

x/-2 > 5

Step 2: Solve for x

[tex]\large {\mathsf {\red{\underbrace {\overbrace{\blue{ {\pink}{Answєr}}}}}}} \: [/tex]

x > - 10

[tex] \large \mathtt \green{Step-by-step \: explanation : }[/tex]

[tex] \small \sf \frac{x}{ - 2} > 5 \\ [/tex]

Solve for x

[tex] \small \sf \frac{x}{ - 2} > 5 \\ [/tex]

common denominator is 2

[tex]\small \sf ➪ \frac{2x}{ - 2} >2 \times 5 \\ [/tex]

[tex]\small \sf ➪ \frac{ \cancel{2}x}{ - \cancel{ 2}} >2 \times 5 \\ [/tex]

➪ - x > 2 × 5

➪ - x > 10

multiply by - 1

➪ - x × - 1 > 10 × - 1

x > - 10

Solution :

Given :

[tex]f(x) = \left\{\begin{matrix}\frac{1}{450}(x^2-x) & \text{if } 6 < x < 12 \\ 0 & \text{otherwise}\end{matrix}\right.[/tex]

1. Cumulative distribution function

[tex]$P(X \leq x) = \int_{- \infty}^x f(x) \ dx$[/tex]

              [tex]$=\int_{- \infty}^6 f(x) dx + \int_{6}^x f(x) dx $[/tex]

             [tex]$=0+\int_6^x \frac{1}{450}(x^2-x) \ dx$[/tex]

             [tex]$=\frac{1}{450} \int_6^x (x^2-x) \ dx$[/tex]

             [tex]$=\frac{1}{450}\left[\frac{x^3}{3}-\frac{x^2}{2}\right]_6^x$[/tex]

             [tex]$=\frac{1}{450}\left[ \left( \frac{x^3}{3} - \frac{x^2}{2}\left) - \left( \frac{6^3}{3} - \frac{6^2}{2} \right) \right] $[/tex]

            [tex]$=\frac{1}{450}\left[\frac{x^3}{3} - \frac{x^2}{2} - 54 \right]$[/tex]

2.  Mean [tex]$E(x) = \int_{- \infty}^{\infty} \ x \ f(x) \ dx$[/tex]

                       [tex]$=\int_{6}^{12}x . \left( \frac{1}{450} \ (x^2-x)\right)\ dx$[/tex]

                     [tex]$=\frac{1}{450} \int_6^{12} \ (x^3 - x^2) \ dx$[/tex]

                     [tex]$=\frac{1}{450} \left[\frac{x^4}{4} - \frac{x^3}{3} \right]_6^{12} \ dx$[/tex]

                     [tex]$=\frac{1}{450} \left[ \left(\frac{(12)^4}{4} - \frac{(12)^3}{3} \right) - \left(\frac{(6)^4}{4} - \frac{(6)^3}{3} \right) $[/tex]

                     [tex]$=\frac{1}{450} [4608 - 252]$[/tex]

                    = 17.2857

Step-by-step explanation:

this is the answerI hope it helps

Answer:

100-70=30 so

55*0.3=16.5

Hope This Helps!!!

Answer:

Answer :

70% less than 55 is

16.5

Answer:

The answer is 32 divided by 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Because in each box there is 4. There are 8 ovals all together. So 8×4, you get 32 and divide it by the number of squares in an oval which is 4

Answer:

the answer is 32 divided by 4=8

Step-by-step explanation:

because when you look at the ovals there's eight ovals and in side there's four squares..

HOPE THIS HELPS!!!!!

Option C

SOLUTION:

We need to find the value of B - CF

First find the value CF:

[tex]CF=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}12&0&1.5\\1&-6&7\\\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-2&0\\0&8\\2&1\end{array}\right][/tex]

[tex]CF=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}12(-2)+0 *0+1.5*2&12*0+0.8+1.5*1\\1*(-2)+(-6)*0+7.2&1*0+(-6)*8+7.1\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

[tex]CF=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}-21&1.5\\12&-41\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

Now find value of B - CF:

[tex]B-CF=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}2&8\\6&3\\\end{array}\right] -\left[\begin{array}{ccc}-21&1.5\\12&-41\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

[tex]B-CF=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}23&6.5\\-6&44\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

∴ the value of B - CF is [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}23&6.5\\-6&44\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

I hope this helps....

Hi there!

[tex]\large\boxed{9(x - 1)^{2}}[/tex]

9x² - 18x + 9

We can begin by factoring out a 9 from each term:

9(x² - 2x + 1)

Now, find two terms that add up to -2 and equal 1 when multiplied. We get:

9(x - 1)(x - 1)

Or:

9(x - 1)²

Answer:

A. (-2, -5), (0, -7), (1, -4)

Step-by-step explanation:

The following transformation is applied:

[tex](x,y) \rightarrow (y + 2, -x - 4)[/tex]

To find the range:

We apply the transformation to the points in the domain. Thus:

[tex](1,-4) \rightarrow (-4 + 2, -1 - 4) = (-2, -5)[/tex]

[tex](3,-2) \rightarrow (-2 + 2, -3 - 4) = (0, -7)[/tex]

[tex](0,-1) \rightarrow (-1 + 2, 0 - 4) = (1, -4)[/tex]

Thus the correct answer is given by option a.

B. angle bisector.

i hope this helps

Answer:

(73.845 ; 76.155) ;

(41.633 ; 48.367) ;

1.273 ;

C. With 99% confidence, the mean width of all widgets is between 11.8 and 20.4. ;

1.717

Step-by-step explanation:

1.)

Given :

Mean, xbar = 75

Sample size, n = 24

Sample standard deviation, s = 3.3

α = 90%

Confidence interval = mean ± margin of error

Margin of Error = Tcritical * s/√n

Tcritical at 90% ; df = 24 - 1 = 23

Tcritical = 1.714

Margin of Error = 1.714 * 3.3/√24 = 1.155

Confidence interval = 75 ± 1.155

Confidence interval = (73.845 ; 76.155)

2.)

Given :

Mean, xbar = 45

Sample size, n = 37

Sample standard deviation, s = 10.1

α = 95%

Confidence interval = mean ± margin of error

Margin of Error = Tcritical * s/√n

Tcritical at 95% ; df = 37 - 1 = 36

Tcritical = 2.028

Margin of Error = 2.028 * 10.1/√37 = 3.367

Confidence interval = 45 ± 3.367

Confidence interval = (41.633 ; 48.367)

3.)

Given :

Mean, xbar = 37

Sample size, n = 30

Sample standard deviation, s = 4.1

α = 90%

Margin of Error = Tcritical * s/√n

Tcritical at 90% ; df = 30 - 1 = 29

Tcritical = 1.700

Margin of Error = 1.700 * 4.1/√30 = 1.273

5.)

Sample size, n = 23

Confidence level, = 90%

df = n - 1 ; 23 - 1 = 22

Tcritical(0.05, 22) = 1.717

Answer:

y/x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since x=cos(e) and y=sin(e) and tan(e)=sin(e)/cos(e), then tan(e)=y/x.

==========================================================

Explanation:

Let's find angle D. Recall that for any triangle, the interior or inside angles always add to 180 degrees.

A+D+C = 180

32+D+41 = 180

D+73 = 180

D = 180-73

D = 107

Now notice that triangle ADC is congruent to triangle ABC. We can use the SSS congruence theorem to prove this.

The identical triangles must have corresponding angles that are the same measure, meaning angle D = angle B = 107 degrees.

Side note: This quadrilateral is a kite because it has two pairs of adjacent congruent sides, but not all four sides are the same length (or else it would be a rhombus).

Answer:

£1054.729

Step-by-step explanation:

To find compound interest you need to use the equation 1000(1.027)^x.

To find the interest rate (1.027):

100 + 2.7 = 102.7

102.7 / 100 = 1.027

The value of x is the amount of months if no payment is made in this situation, so 2 would be the x value for this problem.

Hope this helps!  

Answer:

Andres

why?

Because he is median salary for cpa