What factors influence the remedies available to a seller when the buyer breaches a contract?
...
Choose 3 answers.
the seller may resell the goods and sue to recover damages.
the seller may sue to obtain specific performance.
the seller may cancel the contract.
the seller may withholding delivery of the goods.

Answers

Answer 1

the remedies available to a seller when the buyer breaches a contract, In the given choice there are 1,3,4 ansewers influence the remedies.

A contract is breached when one party rejects or fails to follow its terms. If the seller breaches the purchase agreement, the buyer may take any of the following actions, EXCEPT sue the broker for non-performance.

What legal options does the buyer have if the seller breaks the terms of the contract?

The buyer has two options: (a) use the warranty breachas justification for cancelling or reducing the amount owed to him; or (b) sue the seller for damages resulting from the warranty violation. He has the right to renounce the contract and make the seller liable for any losses. It is common to use the phrase "damages for anticipatory breach" to describe this.

Brokers and salespeople are unable to properly comprehend the situation or goals of the individuals they are bringing together. As a result, the broker is not at fault if a contract fails. The broker is also not at fault if a buyer is unable to get clear title or a seller is abruptly transferred.

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Related Questions

which of the following most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?

Answers

Insurance brokers most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state.

The word "insurance broker" became a regulated term under the Insurance Brokers (Registration) Act 1977, which was intended to prohibit enterprises claiming to be brokers but really working as agents for one or more preferred insurance companies.

Following the repeal of the 1977 Act, the word has no legal definition. From 14 January 2005 until 31 March 2013, the sale of general insurance was regulated by the Financial Services Authority, and from 1 April 2013, it has been regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority. Anyone or any business that has been authorized by the Authority can now call themselves an insurance broker.

The question is incomplete, complete question "Which of the following would most likely NOT be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?

A. insurance brokers

B. resident producers

C. insurance consultants

D. nonresident producers"

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If you are making a left turn from a two way street into a one way street you must start the turn from the _____ abc hit may turn into any lane that is safely open

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If you are turning left from a two-way street onto a one-way street, you should complete the turn into the left lane .

Once you have turned onto the one-way street, you may turn into any lane that is safely open and appropriate for your destination. It is important to check for other vehicles, pedestrians, and bicyclists before making the turn and to signal your intention to turn in advance.

If there is a center left turn lane, use it. turning left onto a two-way street from a one-way street. Starting in the far-left lane, make the turn. End the turn in the left lane closest to the middle of the street moving in the direction of your vehicle to lower the likelihood of a collision.

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the supreme court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in .

Answers

The Supreme Court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in Dred Scott v. Sandford case.

The Dred Scott v. Sandford case was heard by the United States Supreme Court on March 6, 1857, and ruled on March 6, 1857. This ruling was delivered by the United States Supreme Court’s Chief Justice Roger B. Taney. The case was between a slave named Dred Scott and his master’s widow, who was then residing in Missouri. Scott’s master had moved to Illinois and the Wisconsin territory, both of which were free territories. Dred Scott argued that he and his family should be freed since they had lived in free territory. Taney dismissed this argument and stated that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights.

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there are two things you want to remember about bureaucrats. choose the two items that craig mentioned

Answers

Two things to remember about bureaucrats are a clear hierarchy and specialization.

A bureaucracy is a sizable administrative organization that manages a government's or society's daily operations. In America, there are three levels of government bureaucracy: federal, state, and local.

A distinct hierarchy, specialization, a division of labor, and a set of formal rules, or standard operating procedures, are the four main characteristics of bureaucracies. There is a distinct hierarchy among bureaucrats, and they specialize, so keep that in mind.

For a bureaucracy to succeed, it needs to be independent, impersonal, and impartial. Employee relationships must be professional, according to Weber. The structure of the impersonal bureaucratic environment encourages making decisions based only on facts and careful consideration.

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fill in the blank. expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to and the interest rate to .

Answers

Expansionary fiscal policy will cause gross domestic product to increase and the interest rate to rise.

Expansionary fiscal policy involves increasing government spending and/or reducing taxes, which increases aggregate demand in the economy. This increased demand can lead to higher economic growth and an increase in gross domestic product (GDP).

However, an increase in demand can also lead to higher inflation, which can cause the central bank to raise interest rates in order to cool down the economy and control inflation. As interest rates rise, this can reduce investment and consumption, which can partially offset the positive effects of expansionary fiscal policy on GDP growth.

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the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.True or false

Answers

In the United States, the answer is partially true. In most states, there are laws restricting the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. However, these laws can vary from state to state, and not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18.

It is important to note that these laws are intended to improve road safety, as the use of wireless devices while driving can significantly increase the risk of accidents. Driver distraction is one of the leading causes of traffic accidents, and the use of wireless devices can increase distraction and the likelihood of accidents.

In summary, in the United States, many laws restrict the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. While not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18, many laws are designed to improve traffic safety and reduce the risk of accidents caused by driver distraction.

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It is true that the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.

According to the law it is illegal for anyone under the age of 18 to use any type of wireless device while driving. This also includes talking on the phone, texting, or surfing the internet. Some states have laws that specifically prohibit texting while driving regardless of age. It would be an only exception in case it is an emergency situation, such as calling 911. If anyone use any type of  wireless device while driving, sometimes it may lead to dangerous situations like accidents where they put themselves and others also in danger.

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You are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for the following types of vehicles that are stationary on the roadway:

Answers

For all emergency(such as police, fire, and ambulance) and public safety vehicles with lights flashing on them that are stationary on the roadway, everyone are required to slow down and move over.

We need to move over and provide way for vehicles that are used for public and work for their safety as the people in these vehicles may be providing a service or responding to an emergency situation, and they need to be able to do their job without the risk of being hit by a passing vehicle. Whenever we see one of such vehicles on road you should slow down and move over (if possible) to give them more space and to reduce the risk of an accident. It is an important safety measure that helps protect those working on or near the road.

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According to the laws of most of the states in the USA, drivers are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for all emergency and public safety vehicles with lights flashing.

When you see an emergency vehicle, such as an ambulance, fire truck, or police car, on the side of the road with lights flashing, you must change lanes if it is safe to do so. You should slow down and drive with extra caution when passing by, even if you can't move over to another lane. When driving, keep an eye out for flashing lights in the distance, especially on freeways and busy roads. When you see the flashing lights, look for the type of vehicle and carefully merge into another lane, leaving plenty of space for the emergency vehicle to pass by. This will assist them in arriving at their destination quickly and safely.

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fill in the blank. the risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack

Answers

The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a firearm.

The risk of a car bomb attack is very low, but it is still possible. It is important to be aware of the potential threat and take appropriate safety measures, such as installing protective barriers and surveillance systems.

Additionally, bank staff should be trained to be aware of suspicious activity and report it to the authorities. Finally, individuals should also take safety precautions such as parking in well-lit areas, avoiding leaving valuables in plain sight, and being aware of their surroundings.

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The complete question is:

Fill in the blank.

The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a ________.

______: When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.

Answers

Innovation : When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.

Those who pursue illegal activity while holding onto their dream of success, such as those who engage in illegal drug dealing to make money, are pursuing the "American Dream" in this way. Dr. Melton also made the argument that some people leave society and end up as drug addicts or drifters after realizing they cannot achieve the "American Dream," which can result in abnormal behavior.

Innovation: The acceptance of cultural goals by an individual or group but rejection of the accepted, established methods for achieving those goals. Families involved in organized crime are one example. They adhere to the "American Dream," but they go beyond the law to achieve their objectives.

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how long can bankruptcy information be reported by a consumer reporting agency

Answers

Bankruptcy information can remain on a consumer credit report for up to 10 years from the date of filing.

During this period, the information can be reported by the three major consumer credit reporting agencies: Experian, TransUnion, and Equifax. After 10 years, the bankruptcy information should be removed from a consumer's credit report. It is important to remember that filing for bankruptcy can have a significant impact on a person's credit score. Having a bankruptcy listed on your credit report can make it more difficult to obtain new credit, such as a loan or credit card. This can also make it more expensive to borrow money, as lenders may charge higher interest rates to compensate for the higher risk associated with borrowers with bankruptcy.

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valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F

Answers

The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).

The correct answer is true.

The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.

Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.

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Question 1
Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of the population has blood type AB. Suppose a random sample of 50 U.S. residents and 40 Australians is obtained. Consider the random variables described below:
X: the number of US residents (out of 50) with blood type AB.
Y: the number of Australians (out of 40) with blood type AB.
Z: the total number of individuals (out of 90) with blood type AB.
Which of the following is true about the random variables X, Y, and Z? Check all that apply.
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 30 and p = 0.015
Z is a binomial random variable with n = 90 and p = 0.055
Question 2
In Texas, 30% of parolees from prison return to prison within 3 years. Suppose 15 prisoners are released from a Texas prison on parole. Assume that whether or not one prisoner returns to prison is independent of whether any of the others return to prison. Let the random variable X be the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years. What are the values of the parameters for the binomial random variable X?
n =
p =

Answers

X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04, Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015.
The value of n is 15 and p is  0.30 of the parameters for the binomial random variable X

1. X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04

Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015

Z is not a binomial random variable, as it represents the total number of individuals with blood type AB, which is not a fixed number of trials with a constant probability of success.

2. The binomial distribution models the number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has the same probability of success. In this case, X represents the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years, where each parolee is either a success (returns to prison) or a failure (does not return to prison). Since each prisoner's return to prison is independent of the other prisoners' returns, we can model X as a binomial random variable with n = 15 (the number of trials) and p = 0.3 (the probability of success, or the proportion of parolees who return to prison within 3 years).

Therefore, final answer for question 1 is n = 40 and p =0.015 and for question 2 is n = 15 and p = 0.30.

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. The ______ test is used if the classification involves either a suspect class or a fundamental constitutional right.
A. minimum rationality
B. quasi-strict scrutiny
C. rational basis
D. prior restraints
E. strict scrutiny

Answers

More context please then I can help

Under common law, which of the following was true in regard to arson?a. Negligence was sufficient to establish arsonb. Criminal intent was not necessaryc. The requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completelyd. You could commit arson

Answers

Under common law, criminal intent was not necessary in regard to arson. Arson is the criminal act of intentionally and requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completely under common law. Arson was established if the damage or destruction of the property was caused by fire.

Additionally, common law arson was a crime that required actual, malicious intent to set fire to a structure or property. A person could not be convicted of unlawfully setting fire to buildings or other property. Criminal intent was not necessary under the common law of arson. Criminal intent was the foundation for the most serious charges in most criminal cases under the common law, but arson was an exception.

Negligence was insufficient to establish arson under the common law of arson. The arson if they didn't intend to start a fire or cause harm. Common law is a body of law that has been established through legal decisions made by judges over the centuries. The doctrine of precedent is used in common law. The doctrine of precedent, also known as stare decisis, requires that lower courts must follow the decisions of higher courts that have dealt with similar cases in the past.

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QUESTION 2 "So, the Advocate Dali Mpofu is correct, we can afford free education for all South African children. But where I come from, I do not jubilate at free education, I want to revisit the curriculum; I want to know which publishing companies benefit from the education of our children, where they come from and what their philosophy of education is". Moss Mashamaite (2014). (a) Discuss the above extract with reference to Freire's views on education. (6)​

Answers

According to the above extract Freire's views on education can be summed up as-

For Freire, education is never neutral. All education is political – either educating to support and maintain the status quo or helping to critique and change reality. Problem-posing education does not and cannot serve the interests of the oppressor.

Education mean today?

Education is defined as a cycle of learning that helps a person acquire and understand more complex stuff. According to the training they have received, the knowledge that has been had about a person provides an example of thought and behavior.

The  renowned definition of education?

Education is an intentional process with certain goals in mind, such as information transmission or the development of abilities and moral character. The growth of comprehension, reason, compassion, and honesty are only a few examples of these objectives.

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What are the guiding principles for first responders' to take when arriving at a potential crime scene?

Answers

Secure the area remove the people tape the scene look for survivors remain calm call the core or

a capacitor is made of three parallel conducting plates of area and non-zero but negligible thickness, with the two outer plates on the left and the right connected together by a conducting wire. the outer plates are separated by a distance . the distance from the middle plate to the left plate is . the distance from the inner plate to the right plate is . you may assume all three plates are very thin compared to the distances and . neglect edge effects.

Answers

A capacitor is formed by three parallel conducting plates of area, separated by a distance and .

The two outer plates are connected together by a conducting wire, and the distance from the middle plate to the left plate is , and from the inner plate to the right plate is . The plates are very thin compared to the distances, so edge effects can be neglected.

The area of the plates is a key component of the capacitor, as it determines how much charge can be stored. The separation of the plates is also important, as it is related to the capacitance.

The distance from the middle plate to the left plate, and from the inner plate to the right plate are important, as they are related to the electric field between the plates.

The thinness of the plates allows us to ignore edge effects. All of these factors together determine the capacitance of the capacitor.

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a ____ is an order requiring that an official bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.

Answers

An "order to show cause" is an order issued by a court or judge requiring an official (such as a jailer) to bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.

This order can be used when a prisoner requests to be released on bail, when a prisoner seeks a writ of habeas corpus, or when a prisoner claims to be wrongly imprisoned. An order to show cause must provide the judge with sufficient evidence that there is a legal basis to continue to hold the prisoner in jail. If the official fails to show cause, the court may order the prisoner's release.

In order for an order to show cause to be issued, the court must have a legal basis for requiring the official to bring the prisoner in for a hearing. This can include evidence that the prisoner poses a danger to the public, that the prisoner may be a flight risk, or that the official has failed to follow proper procedure in the case. When the court reviews the order to show cause, it will determine if the evidence provided by the official is sufficient to continue the prisoner's detention. If the court finds that the evidence is not sufficient, the prisoner must be released.

The order to show cause is an important tool in ensuring that prisoners are not held unlawfully and that they are treated fairly. It can also be used to ensure that officials are properly carrying out their duties, and that they are adhering to the law when it comes to detaining prisoners. By issuing an order to show cause, the court can ensure that the official has the necessary evidence to detain the prisoner and that the prisoner has the right to a fair hearing.

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In some cases, the sale of a property triggers payment in full of a deferred tax or special assessment. If this is the case, the tax may be paid by
all of these.

Answers

If a property sale triggers payment of a deferred tax or special assessment, the responsibility for paying the tax usually falls on the seller.

This is because the tax or assessment is typically attached to the property and not the owner. As such, when the property changes hands, the new owner inherits any existing tax liability.

The payment of the deferred tax or special assessment may be made directly by the seller, or the payment may be deducted from the sale proceeds before the seller receives their payment. This deduction is typically made at closing, where the seller's proceeds are calculated and paid out.

It is important for both buyers and sellers to be aware of any outstanding tax or assessment liabilities attached to a property before entering into a transaction. Failing to account for these liabilities can result in unexpected costs and delays in closing the deal.

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When talking to his investment clients, broker Adam often refers to tax shelters. This term typically means?

Answers

Explanation:

The term "tax shelter" typically refers to a legal method of reducing taxable income and, therefore, the amount of tax owed. Tax shelters can take many different forms, including investment opportunities such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), 401(k) plans, and annuities, as well as certain types of business expenses or deductions.

The Art Forger Who Tricked the Nazis
Where did the trial take place? What was the defendant accused of?
What was strange about his defense?
How did Han van Meegeren manage to forge the works of art so well? What did he do to make them look authentic?
How could forensic testing have changed this case?
What ultimately happened to van Meegeren?
Money to Run, But No Skills to Hide
How did Schrenker try to fake his own death? How did he get caught?
Why is creating a new state ID harder to do these days?
Why is it so difficult to fake a passport? What is the easiest way for criminals to obtain a passport?
Why does Mr. Abagnale claim it is easy to get a fraudulent passport? What steps does someone have to take to make this happen?
Why was Mr. Abagnale arrested? What happened to him after his arrest?

Answers

1. It took place in Dutch. He was accused of forging art.
2. He didn't argue his innocence, instead he admitted to the crime.
3. He had studied about the Old Masters. He mixed his own paints, using only the pigments and oils in use during the time of each artist.
4. They would've been able to prove the paintings were forged with resin.
5. He was left off scott free at first, but eventually sold the art to the Nazis and was arrested by the allies and finally
sent to jail for a year.

Money to Run, But No Skills to Hide
1. He crashed his plane and made a fake call for help. He emailed a friend.
2. Because of the extra security feature.
3. It is not an easy thing to master with all of the security features. To steal a valid one.
4. He belleves that all you need
is the death record of a child from a courthouse to get a birth certificate. A birth certificate and some white-out on an apartment lease gets vou a drivers lIcense
and then a driver's license gets you a passport.
5. He hated what he was doing and got lonely. He finally went to jail for everything.

true/false. When at the zero bound, one of the policy alternatives that we discussed would be for the Fed to lower or eliminate the reserve requirement ratio

Answers

One of the policy options we explored was for the Fed to reduce or remove the reserve requirement ratio when it reached the zero bound. True.

The notion that interest rates cannot be decreased farther than zero is known as the "Zero Lower Limit." Historically, central banks have utilised monetary policy to influence the economy's interest rate in order to achieve its budgetary goal (s).

In fact, the Fed used a variety of other tactics to overcome the ZLB restriction after the crisis, including large-scale asset purchases (quantitative easing) and providing market participants with advance information on the direction of interest rates. The ZLB issue was not entirely solved by these policy improvements.

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true/false. prosecuting attorneys exercise discretion when determining whether or not to bring charges against the arrestee.

Answers

True. Prosecuting attorneys are responsible for deciding whether to bring criminal charges against an individual who has been arrested.

This decision is made based on various factors, such as the strength of the evidence, the seriousness of the offense, and the interests of justice. Prosecutors have discretion in determining whether or not to bring charges, and their decision can have significant consequences for the individual facing the charges. In some cases, prosecutors may decide not to bring charges if they feel that the evidence is weak or if the offense is minor. However, in other cases, they may pursue charges aggressively, seeking the maximum possible penalty for the alleged offense.

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true/false. small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most.

Answers

The given statement "small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most." is false as have limited jurisdiction to hear civil cases between private litigants.

Small-claims courts only have limited authority to hear civil disputes involving private parties. Small claims courts may also perform other judicial duties and may go by different names in different jurisdictions. The maximum amount of money that a small-claims court can award in judgments is typically in the tens of thousands of dollars or pounds. The plaintiff typically forfeits any right to seek an amount greater than the court can grant by filing a lawsuit in small claims court. Reducing a claim to meet the requirements of this venue may or may not be permitted by the plaintiff.

Small-claims courts typically have jurisdiction over private disputes involving small sums of money. The routine collection of small debts forms a large portion of the cases brought to small-claims courts, as well as evictions and other disputes between landlords and tenants, unless the jurisdiction is already covered by a tenancy board.

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fill in the blank. the___perspective of the criminal justice system holds that criminals choose to commit crimes and must be punished harshly for their actions.

Answers

The Crime control perspective of the criminal justice system holds that criminals choose to commit crimes and must be punished harshly for their actions.

Criminal justice referred to all methods that individuals could use to exact retribution for the harm committed by a crime. The idea of criminal justice has since developed.

With a focus on the complexities and connections between crime and justice, Criminal Justice: The System in Perspective offers a novel perspective on the criminal justice system. Recent studies, current events, and the criminal court system are the main topics of criminal justice.

According to the due process model, every person should have access to a just and equitable criminal justice system that respects their constitutional rights.

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What did the 13th 14th and 15th amendments do during reconstruction?

Answers

The Reconstruction Amendments, sometimes known as the 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments to the Constitution, played a significant role in granting African Americans citizenship rights and protections.

Slavery was officially abolished by the 13th Amendment. African Americans were made equal citizens of the United States via the 14th Amendment.

The Dred Scott v. Sanford ruling, in which Chief Justice Roger B. Taney of the Supreme Court stated that black Americans were not citizens and as a result had "no rights which the white man was bound to respect," was reversed by this amendment.

Black American men now have the right to vote thanks to the 15th Amendment. Northern African Americans were steadfast supporters of these amendments, pushing for equality on behalf of both themselves and their recently freed colleagues.

Democrats in Pennsylvania's neighboring state of New Jersey resisted ratification, despite the fact that Pennsylvania was one of the first states to do so in February 1865.

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____: the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.

Answers

A political realignment is the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.

In American politics, the term "realignment" refers to the process in which a party's electoral support base undergoes a fundamental shift, resulting in long-term changes in the balance of power between the two major political parties. The electoral realignment can be attributed to a variety of factors, including demographic shifts, significant events or policy decisions, changes in political culture, and changes in party organizations' strategies.

A realignment occurs when a political party undergoes a major shift ins its political ideology and agenda, resulting in significant changes in its base of support. This shift may result in the creation of a new electoral majority, or it may result in a significant weakening or even the complete collapse of a party's former electoral coalition. As a result, the opposing party may rise to power, and a new era of political dominance may emerge.

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T/F. A consequentialist approach to judging sexual morality will ask whether one is using anyone or whether the sexual relation is an open one.

Answers

True. A consequentialist approach to judging sexual morality would focus on the consequences of the sexual acts rather than the acts themselves.

In this approach, the moral value of sexual activity is judged based on the outcomes or consequences it produces. For instance, a consequentialist approach would consider whether the sexual relationship is consensual and respectful, whether it is harming anyone, and whether it is leading to positive or negative outcomes for those involved. Therefore, consequentialism would ask whether one is using anyone in a sexual relationship or whether the relationship is open since these factors would impact the overall consequences of the sexual act.

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The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state
infringement in the _________ case.
a. Schenk v. United States
b. McCulloch v. Maryland
c. Gibbons v. Ogden
d. Gitlow v. New York

Answers

The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state infringement in the d. Gitlow v. New York case.

What is Gitlow v. New York case?

Gitlow v. New York is a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case, decided on June 8, 1925, which upheld the constitutionality of the Espionage Act of 1917, which made it illegal to advocate the overthrow of the United States government by force or violence.

The majority of the justices ruled that the First Amendment didn't prohibit states from suppressing or punishing speech that posed a serious danger to national security, even if it didn't immediately incite an illegal act.

What is the Fourteenth Amendment?

The Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution was passed by Congress on June 13, 1866, and ratified by the states on July 9, 1868. It granted citizenship to all individuals born or naturalized in the United States and prohibited states from denying any person "life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.

The correct option is option d.

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De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are treated as less equal than others. Examples of public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are
a. affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).
b. the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de jure), and the Brown decision (de facto).
c. the Supreme Court's busing decisions (de jure), and affirmative action decisions (de facto).
d. None of these answers is correct.
e. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto).

Answers

Option A, that is affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto).

WHAT'S AFFIRMATIVE ACTION

Affirmative action is a public policy that was put in place to correct de jure discrimination that African Americans faced.

This policy was designed to increase the representation of historically marginalized groups in education, employment, and other sectors where they had been previously excluded. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 is a law that was put in place to address de facto discrimination in the form of voter suppression.

The act was passed to ensure that every citizen of the United States could vote without facing any discrimination. Together, affirmative action and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 are important policies designed to address both de jure and de facto discrimination.

Learn more about affirmative action at

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