What is the area of a circle with a radius of 6 inches?

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

NO is not parallel to ML.

Answer:

The shapes are the same, just one is sideways. They also have very similar measurements.

Step-by-step explanation:

Even so, when we check this we get:

(1 1/2 x 1 3/4) 7 = (3 x 1 3/4) 3 1/2

when simplified (solved) this is: 18 3/8 = 18 3/8

Answer:

=82%

Step-by-step explanation:

64:78*100=82%

Answer:

The radius of the cone is 6 feets.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

Volume of the cone is 376.8 cubic feet

Height of the cone is 10 ft

It is required to find the radius of this cone. The formula of the volume of a cone is given by :

[tex]V=\dfrac{1}{3}\pi r^2 h[/tex]

r is radius of cone

[tex]r=\sqrt{\dfrac{3V}{\pi h}} \\\\r=\sqrt{\dfrac{3\times 376.8}{3.14\times 10}} \\\\r=6\ ft[/tex]

So, the radius of the cone is 6 feets.

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

31.4

Step-by-step explanation:

im not good at math idk if i would trust my answer

but what i did was multiply 10 by pi

Answer:

The area of sector is [tex]25.12 miles^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Radius of circle = 4 miles

We are supposed to find the area of a sector bounded by a 180 arc

[tex]\theta = 180^{\circ}[/tex]

Area of sector =[tex]\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \pi r^2[/tex]

Area of sector = [tex]\frac{180^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 4^2[/tex]

Area of sector = [tex]25.12 miles^2[/tex]

Hence The area of sector is [tex]25.12 miles^2[/tex]

Answer:

2/36

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 36 possibilities when rolling a die

There are 2 that sum to 11

P (sum of 11) =  sum of 11/ total

                      =2/36

                        1/18

Answer:

[tex]P(X \geq 1)=1-P(X<1)= 1- P(X=0)[/tex]

[tex]P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.01)^0 (1-0.01)^{2-0}=0.9801[/tex]

And replacing we got:

[tex] P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.9801 = 0.0199[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable of interest "number of craked eggs", on this case we now that:

[tex]X \sim Binom(n=2, p=0.01)[/tex]

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

[tex]P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

[tex]nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}[/tex]

And we want to find this probability:

[tex]P(x \geq 1)=1-P(X<1)= 1- P(X=0)[/tex]

And we can find the probability:

[tex]P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.01)^0 (1-0.01)^{2-0}=0.9801[/tex]

And replacing we got:

[tex] P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.9801 = 0.0199[/tex]

Answer:

a=he went back home

b=speed=240km/h

Step-by-step explanation:

ps: wouldn't mind brainliest

Answer:

a) Jo moved 1 kn from her starting position at minute 10

b) 0.13 km/min

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the picture

Answer:

[tex]\frac{rise}{run} =\frac{4}{1} =4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\angle L=\angle S[/tex] using congruence rule

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: ΔSAL, SA = LA and AT is the bisector of [tex]\angle A[/tex]

To prove: [tex]\angle L=\angle S[/tex]

Proof:

Two triangles are congruent if they have same shape and same size.

Consider triangles ALT and AST

AL = AS

As AT bisects [tex]\angle A[/tex], [tex]\angle LAT=\angle SAT\\[/tex]

AT = AT (common side)

So, [tex]\Delta ALT\cong \Delta AST[/tex] ( by SAS congruence rule )

Here, SAS denotes side-angle-side

[tex]\angle L=\angle S[/tex] (using corresponding parts of congruent triangles)

Hence proved

Explanation:

First, we know that △ALT ≅ △AST, because of Side Angle Side Theorem. Next, we know that AL ≅ AS, because it's given.

Since A = A, we can remove A and it gives us m∠L = m∠S.

If you need to show work in math terms, your answer should look something like this:

1. △ ALT ≅ △AST - SAS

2. AL ≅ AS - Given

3. m∠ L ≅ m∠S

Hope this helped!

Answer:

D. 20,250 square yards

Step-by-step explanation:

Base + 4 triangles

(75×75) + 4(½×75×97.5)

5626 + 14625

20250 yd²

Answer:

16.0%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Between -2 and 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Its D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1) Negative (because y value decreases from left to right)

2) Undefined (a vertical line has undefined slope because it fails the vertical line test infinite times)

3) Positive (because y value increases from left to right)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

The x value is half of the y value on this chart.

Answer: [tex]-2x^3-14x^2+7x-4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](3x^3-2x^2+4x-8)-(5x^3+12x^2-3x-4)[/tex]

Distribute the negative sign.

[tex](3x^3-2x^2+4x-8)-5x^3-12x^2+3x+4[/tex]

Remove the other parentheses.

[tex]3x^3-2x^2+4x-8-5x^3-12x^2+3x+4[/tex]

Combine like terms.

[tex]-2x^3-14x^2+7x-4[/tex]

Answer:

CD

Step-by-step explanation:

If quadrilateral ABCD is the result of a reflection of quadrilateral LMNO over the line.

Then both the quadrilaterals are congruent.

To find the line segment in the image corresponds to NO in the pre-image, just check the order of the letters in the name of quadrilaterals.

Also, In reflection image and its pre-image are equidistant from the line of reflection

hence, CD is the line segment in the image corresponds to NO in the pre-image.

BRAINLIST THIS ANSWER

Answer:

The answer is A. 6 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a triangle is half the product of the height and base

Answer:

i used calculator and got 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(-1,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Found answer on brainly.

Answer:

(-1,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

In this problem, the signs are switched because there is a rule to 180 rotation that is (x,y) to (-x,-y).

(1,-2)×(-1x, -1y)= (-1,2) .

if both points were negative, the points would be positive. if they were positive, they would be negative.

The answer is B. Loan given for a short period of time that is not dependent on credit history

I just took the quiz and I am big brain.

A loan given for a short period of time that is not dependent on credit history is called a easy - access credit.

Credit is the ability to borrow money or access goods or services with the understanding that you'll pay later.

Given is the easy-access credit.

Easy access credit refers to very short-term and usually very high interest loans. It's a fancy way of saying payday loans, pawn shop transactions, or title loans.

Therefore, a loan given for a short period of time that is not dependent on credit history is called a easy - access credit.

To solve more questions on credits, visit the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/29632930

#SPJ2

Answer:

You will break even with the cost of your supplies equals your income how many cups of your hot chocolate and less you sell to break even

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

ln(216[tex]x^{4}[/tex] )

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the rules of logarithms

log x + log y = log(xy)

log [tex]x^{n}[/tex] ⇔ n log x

Given

3ln6 + 4lnx

= ln 6³ + ln[tex]x^{4}[/tex]

= ln (216[tex]x^{4}[/tex] )

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide both sides of the equation by c²

Answer:

-4096

Step-by-step explanation:

Pattern: *-2

2, -4, 8, -16, 32, -64, 128, -256, 512, -1024, 2048, -4096

Answer:

-4096

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

384 cubic meters

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of it as two rectangles on top of each other and then add the two volumes.

Volume is l*w*h

So for the bottom rectangle: (8) (12) (2) = 192 cubic meters

And for the top rectangle: (4)(6)(8) = 192 cubic meters

It is important to remember that for the top box you have to subtract the height of the bottom box which is why I used 4 for the height instead of 6.

Then you add them together.

192+192 = 384 cubic meters