what type of simple machine is shown in the diagram?write the length and height of slope in it. Please help ASAP!!!​

Answer with Explanation:

Let me answer this in a simple way, since the density of stone is greater than that of water, the stone sinks as the weight of the stone is greater than the weight of water displaced by it. But the ship is designed in such a way that the relative density of the ship always becomes less than that of water. Therefore, the weight of the water displaced becomes equal to the total weight of the ship and thus it floats.

There are many other ways to explain this but this should give you the general idea.

The hydro power plant consists of a (artificial) dam that builds gravitational potential energy, P.E. from natural flowing water sources, by locating the dam along the water path. The stored potential energy, P. is converted into kinetic energy, K.E. as the water falls from the dam, down to the turbines, located at a much lower level according to the following principle of conservation of energy equation;

Total Mechanical Energy, M.E. = The potential energy of the water, P.E. + The kinetic energy of the water, K.E. = Constant

M.E. = P.E. + K.E. = Constant

Where;

P.E. = m·g·h

K.E. = (1/2)·m·v²

m = Mass

g = The acceleration due to gravity

h = The height of the dam

v = The velocity

The charts can be explained as follows;

Given that the potential energy P.E. = m·g·h, we have that the potential energy is directly proportional to the height of the dam, and therefore, at mid height, the potential energy would be half the maximum value, and we have;

At mid height, P.E. = (1/2)·[tex]\mathbf{P.E._{max}}[/tex]

At the top of the dam, the (vertical) velocity of the water = 0, therefore, the kinetic energy = 0

Therefore, at the top of the dam, we get;

M.E. = [tex]P.E._{max}[/tex] + 0 =

M.E. = [tex]\mathbf{P.E._{max}}[/tex]

Similarly, at the bottom of the dam, the height, h = 0, therefore, being proportional to the height, P.E. = 0, and the velocity is maximum, and at the bottom, we have;

M.E. = 0 + [tex]K.E._{max}[/tex]

The first chart, water is halfway down the dam

At the halfway down therefore, we have;

P.E. = (1/2)·[tex]\mathbf{P.E._{max}}[/tex]

M.E. = [tex]P.E._{max}[/tex] = (1/2)·

∴ K.E. = [tex]P.E._{max}[/tex] - (1/2)·

Therefore the first chart, water is halfway down the dam;

Halfway, K.E. = (1/2)·[tex]\mathbf{P.E._{max}}[/tex] = P.E.

∴ K.E. = P.E.  as shown on the chart

The second chart, water has reached the turbine

Water reaches the turbine at the bottom, and as explained above, we get;

M.E. = 0 + [tex]K.E._{max}[/tex]

∴ M.E.≈ [tex]K.E._{max}[/tex]

Therefore, when water has reached the turbine at the bottom of the dam, the kinetic energy is approximately proportional to the total mechanical energy as shown in the chart

The third chart, water is at the top of the dam

Here as shown above, we have;

The total mechanical energy, M.E. ≈ [tex]\mathbf{P.E._{max}}[/tex] as shown on the chart

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Answer:

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Answer:

Explanation:

We first need to convert the 40 km/h to m/s. Going by the fact that 40 has only 1 significant figure in it, 40 km/h = 10 m/s. The rest of the values are in their proper labels. We will use the equation:

[tex]v^2=v_0^2+2a[/tex]Δx where the final velocity is 0 because the car is coming to a stop at the end; the initial velocity is 10 m/s, the acceleration (or, rather, deceleration) is -.5 m/s/s, and our unknown which is displacement. Filling in:

[tex]0=(10)^2+2(-.5)[/tex]Δx and solving for Δx:

Δx = [tex]\frac{-100}{2(-.5)}[/tex] which ends up being simply that

Δx = 100 m

Option ( iv ) is the correct answer.

A vector quantity the physical quantity that has both direction as well as magnitude.

Answer:

Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons.

When moving right across a period, the valence electrons of the main group elements increase by one.

When moving down a group, the valence electrons of the main group elements increase by one.

Elements in the same period have the same number of valence electrons.

Elements in the same period of the periodic table have valence electrons in the same energy levels.

When elements are in the same period on the periodic table, it means that they have the same number of shells.

The energy level of valence electrons in a atom depends on how far it is from the nucleus. This means that:

For instance, Boron, Carbon and Nitrogen will have valence electrons in the same energy levels.

In conclusion, elements in the same period will have valence electrons in the same energy levels.

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Answer:

True

Explanation:

The bigger an object is, the more force you must apply to move the object. Think about it like moving a mouse compared to moving an elephant. You can't move the elephant by yourself, because you don't have enough strength or force to move it. But, you can easily pick up a mouse, because it requires less force, or strength. Hope this helped :)

Answer:

I don't know

Explanation:

sorry but I will help u next time kk

Answer:

0.80 m

Explanation:

Neglecting friction, the total mechanical energy of the pendulum is constant.

E = K + U where K = kinetic energy and U = potential energy.

At its release point of 0.80 m, the pendulum bob has a mechanical energy which is equal to its potential energy, since, its initial kinetic energy is zero. By the time the bob swings to the other end, it has a mechanical energy equal to it initial potential energy since total energy is conserved.

Neglecting friction, the pendulum bob would swing back to its original height of 0.80 m since the total mechanical energy is conserved and at its highest point, it is purely potential energy.

So, the height the pendulum bob swings to after release from a height of 0.80 m neglecting fiction is 0.80 m.

Answer:

False -> negative charge

Answer:

false

Explanation: electrons are negative charges

protons are positive charges

Lithium element contains one electron therefore valence electron will be one.  

The highest level of energy is due to valence electrons which are available to the atom.

The calcium has 2 valence electrons which has electrons with high energy.

These energy will be used by the electron during the chemical reaction, and they will either lose or gain valence electron.

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Answer:

calcium

Explanation:

2 electron

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Explanation:

Magnetic lines of force are closed curves. C) Outside the magnet their direction is from north pole to south pole and inside the magnet these are from south to north pole.

Answer: i think c

Explanation:QA: “What is ordinary glass made of ?”

Glass is mostly silica, or silicon dioxide, present as quartz in many types of sand. Pure silica forms a highly transparent glass, but has a very high melting or softening temperature, around 1700°C. Even at such high temperatures it is highly viscous and difficult to work. Its use is largely confined to applications requiring high transparency to ultra-violet and infra-red radiation, stability at elevated temperatures or low thermal expansion coefficient.

“Ordinary glass” windows and drinking vessels are typically made from soda-lime glass, containing silica with around 25% sodium, calcium and other oxides, which together reduce the softening temperature to roughly 500–600°C

Doppler frequency, the other car hear before they pass each other is 668.68 Hz.

Frequency is the number of occurrences of a repeating event per unit of time.

The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of a wave in relation to an observer who is moving relative to the wave source.

According to the Doppler Effect, the frequency observed is

  [tex]fo=fs\frac{v+v_{o} }{v-v_{s} }[/tex]

[tex]f_{o}=595\frac{343+20 }{343-20 }\\f_{o} = 668.68 Hz[/tex]

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We know

[tex]\boxed{\sf Spring\:constant(K)=\dfrac{F}{x}}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto K=\dfrac{1}{0.5}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto K=2N/m[/tex]

Radiation is energy that comes from a source and travels through space at the speed of light. This energy has an electric field and a magnetic field associated with it, and has wave-like properties. You could also call radiation “electromagnetic waves”.

cdc

[tex]\boxed{\sf W=Fscos\Theta}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto W=150(50)cos 60[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto W=7500\times \dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto W=3750J[/tex]

Answer:

A simple machine uses a single applied force to do work against a single load force

Ignoring the friction losses. The work done on the load is equal to the work done with the applied energy. The machine can increase the amount of output power, with a corresponding drop in the distance transported by the load.

Answer:D.Keeping track of the exact amount of wind on each plant

Answer:

a). Silver, Ag

b). Iron, Fe

c). Copper, Cu

d). Aluminium, Al

e). Gold, Au

Answer:

But negative acceleration means that the rate of change of velocity is negative or velocity decreases. Example: (1) When we apply brakes in a moving car, then negative acceleration acts on it and the car stops. (2) When we throw a ball upwards, then also negative acceleration acts on it.

Explanation:

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MATHEMATICALLY A NEGATIVE ACCELERATION MEANS YOU WILL SUBTRACT FROM THE CURRENT VALUE OF THE VELOCITY.

Answer:

1) The kinetic energy of the object after it drops for 2.0 seconds is approximately 384.9 Joules

2) The potential energy of the object after it drops for 2.0 seconds is approximately 204 J

Explanation:

1) The given mass of the object, m = 2.0 kg

The height from which the object is dropped, h = 30 m

The kinetic energy of the object after it drops for 2.0 seconds = Required

Kinetic energy, K.E. = (1/2)·m·v²

Where;

v = The velocity of the object

The kinematic equation for finding the velocity of the object is presented as follows;

v = u + g·t

Where;

u = The initial velocity of the object = 0

g = The acceleration due to gravity of the object ≈ 9.81 m/s²

t = The time of motion of the object = 2.0 seconds

∴ The velocity after 2 seconds, v ≈ 0 + 9.81 m/s² × 2 s = 19.62 m/s

The kinetic energy, K.E. after 2 seconds as the object drops is given as follows;

[tex]K.E._{(after \ two \ seconds)}[/tex] = (1/2) × 2.0 kg × (19.62 m/s)² = 384.9444 J ≈ 384.9 J

2) The total energy, M.E. of the object at the top, h = 30 m, u = 0, is given as follows;

The total mechanical energy, M.E. = P.E. + K.E.

M.E. = m·g·h + (1/2)·m·u²

∴ M.E. = 2.0 kg × 9.81 m/s² × 30 m + 0 = 588.6 J

M.E. = 588.6 J

Given that the total mechanical energy, M.E., is constant, we have;

At 2.0 seconds, M.E. = 588.6 J , K.E. ≈ 384.9 J, P.E. = M.E. - K.E.

∴ P.E. = 588.9 J - 384.9 J ≈ 204 J

The potential energy after it drops 2.0 seconds, P.E. ≈ 204 J

Answer:

D. water

Explanation:

sugar ( glucose ) and oxygen are bi-products

Answer:

(d) water

Explanation:

water is required for photosynthesis to take place .

sugar , oxygen , ATP are not required to take place in photosynthesis.

Answer:

good

Explanation:

Answer:

fine

Explanation:

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Answer:

Snth = u + a/2 ( 2n - 1)

Explanation:

Do you need explanation based on graph, integration or other method?

Answer:

Explanation:

There is no pressure of your feet on the scales, and no pressure of the floor on the scales, so the scales will read zero*. Hence, your weight, in a freely falling lift is zero

7351.35Hz

f0= v-Vo/v-Vs × FSA

= 340-0 /340+30 ×8000

= 340/370× 8000

= 7351.35hz

Answer:

cần cung cấp 70 độ vì nước sôi ở 100°C

Explanation:

Answer:

any person who opens the door he applies pulling force

Answer:

If effort distance was 4 times, efficiency would be 100%.

Since it takes 5 times for effort distance, efficiency drops to output/input

output is 1*F

input is (1/4*F)*5

so: F/1/5*F/4 = 4F/5F = .8 or 80%

The efficiency of the lever is 80%.

To calculate the efficiency of the lever, we can use the formula for mechanical advantage and efficiency.

Mechanical Advantage (MA) is the ratio of the load (L) to the effort (E) in a lever system:

MA = Load / Effort

Given that the load is four times the effort applied:

Load = 4 * Effort

Also, the effort distance (dEffort) is five times the load distance (dLoad):

dEffort = 5 * dLoad

Now, we can write the formula for efficiency (η) of a lever system:

Efficiency (η) = (Mechanical Advantage / Ideal Mechanical Advantage) * 100%

The Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA) is the ratio of the effort distance to the load distance:

IMA = dEffort / dLoad

Substitute the given values into the IMA equation:

IMA = (5 * dLoad) / dLoad

IMA = 5

Now, we can calculate the Mechanical Advantage (MA) using the relationship between the load and effort:

MA = Load / Effort

MA = (4 * Effort) / Effort

MA = 4

Finally, we can calculate the efficiency (η):

Efficiency (η) = (Mechanical Advantage / Ideal Mechanical Advantage) * 100%

η = (4 / 5) * 100%

η = 0.8 * 100%

η = 80%

The efficiency of the lever is 80%.

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