which of the following is caused by a persistence of the omphalomesenteric duct beyond fetal development

Answers

Answer 1

Numerous anatomical patterns, such as omphalomesenteric cysts, omphalomesenteric fistulas that drain through the umbilicus, and fibrous bands from the diverticulum to the umbilicus that predispose to bowel obstruction, may develop as a result of the omphalomesenteric duct continuing to function after fetal development.

What is persistent omphalomesenteric duct?

An omphalomesenteric cyst is a cystic lesion of the umbilical cord that develops when a section of the duct that is coated with gastrointestinal-derived epithelium persists and enlarges. The omphalomesenteric duct connects the yolk sac with the embryonic intestine during the third week of early development.

What is persistent omphalomesenteric duct?

The omphalomesenteric duct is an embryonic structure that connects the major yolk sac to the embryonic midgut. It typically takes the form of a thin fibrous band before dissolving and being naturally absorbed between the fifth and tenth week of gestation.

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Related Questions

During her hospitalization for pneumonia, the provider orders arterial blood gases for Mona Hernandez. What is the best explanation for why this is ordered?

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Patient has shallow, ineffective breathing. Mona Hernandez's laboratory work indicates an elevated white blood cell count with a left shift in the differential.

a committee investigating the impacts of health care reform on the organization is an example of a(n)

Answers

One formal group is a committee looking into how the health care reform would affect the company.

A formal group is what?

A formal group is one that has been formed to carry out beneficial work for the company. A division, department, work group, or committee are examples of formal groups. It might be either permanent or passing.

What financial effects will the new health care reform law have?

A number of payment and delivery system modifications will be made as a result of the health reform legislation introduced in March 2010 in an effort to significantly slow the development of health care costs. Most analyses of the new reform bill have primarily considered its effects on the government budget.

How have the most recent health care reforms altered business procedures?

Recent health care reforms have significantly altered market processes by enhancing market approval restrictions, enhancing post-market surveillance, and utilizing comparative effectiveness research.

With the intention of "improving the quality and affordability of health insurance, lowering the uninsured rate by expanding public and private," the health care reform was put into effect.

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Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure?
a) Increased red blood cell count
b) Decreased serum potassium level
c) Increased serum calcium level
d) Increased serum creatinine level

Answers

The nurse expect to find increased serum creatinine level when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure.

Why is serum creatinine level determined in renal failure?BUN, creatinine, potassium, magnesium, and phosphorus levels are elevated in renal failure, according to laboratory blood testing. The calcium level is low. Hematocrit, RBC count, and hemoglobin are all lowered.It's not uncommon to measure the creatinine levels during a 24-hour period. One requires to gather all of their pee during that time and present it to your physician. The amount of creatinine in your urine will be measured by the lab, and the levels in your blood will be contrasted. This demonstrates to your doctor the amount of waste being eliminated from your body as well as the health of your kidneys.What is renal failure ?Renal failure results from the kidneys' inability to remove waste from the bloodstream.Your kidneys are one of your body's two blood filters. If they weren't working properly, your blood would be contaminated and infected with hazardous substances, which might make you feel sick or even kill you.The malfunction of your body's blood filter is referred to in medicine as renal failure; the prefix "reno-" stands for kidney.

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True or false? the lungs have an efficient blood supply to take away the oxygenated blood and maintain the concentration gradient.

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It’s true :)))))))))))

A nurse is preparing to administer dabigatran to a client who has atrial fibrillation. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is which of the following?
a. to convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
b. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream
c. to slow the response of the ventricles to the fast atrial impulses
d. to reduce the risk of stroke in clients who have atrial fibrillation.

Answers

The purpose of dagigatran is to dissolve clots in the bloodstream

B. to dissolve clots in the bloodstream

What is dabigatran?

Dabigatran, or Pradaxa , is an anticoagulant used to treat and prevent stroke and blood clots to prevent  in people with atrial fibrillation. Specifically it is used to prevent blood clots following hip. It is used  to warfarin and does not require monitoring by blood tests. It is taken by mouth.

Common side effects is bleeding and gastritis. Other side effects may include bleeding around the allergic reaction and spine such as anaphylaxis. In cases of severe bleeding, it can be reversed with the antidote, idarucizumab. Use is not recommended breastfeeding or during pregnancy. Compared to warfarin it has fewer interactions with other medications. It is a direct thrombin inhibitor.

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Which statement is true about people with bulimia nervosa?

a) they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging
b) they show signs of extreme weight loss
c) they live in a state of semistarvation
d) they experience bone loss and amenorrhea

Answers

The statement that is true about people with bulimia nervosa is that they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging.

So option A is correct.

What is bulimia nervosa?

Bulimia nervosa is described as an emotional disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an obsessive desire to lose weight, in which bouts of extreme overeating are followed by fasting or self-induced vomiting or purging.

So from the description of bulimia nervosa, we can conclude from the options given that the correct statement is Option A ( they display episodes of binge eating followed by purging).

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A nurse is caring for a client in crisis who has endured a physical assault. The nurse would expect to see which behavior associate with the integration phase of crisis?

Answers

The nurse would expect to see multiple types of behavior. Depending on their circumstances, each person deals with trauma in a unique way.

What integration phase of a crisis?

The acute phase's nightmares and feelings of shock, guilt, dread, shame, impotence, wrath, despair, and fear of being touched may resurface. Many survivors during this stage believe that their emotions indicate major mental disorders or that they are going insane.

During the integration period, the patient may experience depression or anxiety, or they may want to communicate. The nightmares and emotions.

Therefore, the nurse would expect to see a variety of behaviors. Each person responds to trauma in a different way depending on their circumstances.

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a client with an inoperable cancwe of the head of the pancreas involving the common l=bile duct

Answers

A T-tube drains by gravity into small collection bag; the right side lying or semi-Fowler position enhances gravity drainage.

What is common bile duct?

It is tube that carries bile from liver and gallbladder, through the pancreas, and into the small intestine.

The common bile duct starts where ducts from the liver and gallbladder join and ends at the small intestine.

What is semi- fowler position?

The semi-Fowler position, defined as body position at 30° head-of-bed elevation, has been shown to be beneficial in increasing intra-abdominal pressure

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What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in sleep? a. It induces REM sleep every 90 minutes. b. It causes the pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin. c. It causes the pituitary gland to increase the release of human growth hormone. d. It causes the pituitary gland to decrease the release of human growth hormone. e. It causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin.

Answers

Suprachiasmatic nucleus causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin in sleep.

What is Suprachiasmatic nucleus?

By controlling daily oscillations of the internal milieu and synchronizing them to the varying cycles of day and night and of body state, the small suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in the daily programming of organismic activities.

When exposed to light, SCN neurons have a prolonged response, which persists even after the light source has been offset. Previous light exposures had little impact on these slow responses. Neurons also react quickly and excitatorily while ON and frequently when OFF, which can be either excitatory or inhibitory.

Therefore, Option E is correct.

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In research on burnout, ____________ is the development of a cynical and callous feeling toward others.sociopathologyreduced personal accomplishmentemotional exhaustiondepersonalization

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In research on burnout, depersonalization is the development of a cynical and callous feeling toward others.

What is depersonalization ?Depersonalization is only a sign of an underlying illness when feelings become excessive, consume one's life, and interfere with daily activities. Depersonalization might be normal. Persistently having the impression that one is looking in on oneself from outside of their body or that their surroundings aren't genuine.A temporary depersonalization or derealization experience is something that many people at some point go through. However, when these symptoms continue or never completely go away and interfere with your ability to function, depersonalization-derealization disorder results.The severity of depersonalization-derealization disorder can affect relationships, employment, and other daily activities. Talk therapy is the major form of treatment for depersonalization-derealization condition, while occasionally medicines are also utilized.

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areas with little access to healthy foods are called: group of answer choices nutrition outlets safe food havens fresh food oasis food deserts

Answers

Areas with little access to healthy foods are known as food deserts

nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indiates understanding of isolation guidelines?

Answers

"I will wear a cover gown when caring for a client who has herpes simplex" statement by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of isolation guidelines.

Lack of social interaction is referred to as isolation and can cause loneliness. It is a state of social isolation that can be brought on by things like lack of mobility, unemployment, or health problems. Isolation might include spending a lot of time alone at home, not having access to resources or participating in the community, and having little to no contact with friends, family, and acquaintances.

Any of these things may make it difficult to create and maintain social networks, which can result in isolation and loneliness.

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Which is a factor that acts as a barrier to making healthy decisions about relationships and sexual health?

a lack of knowledge
many structured activities
having a lot of information
no need for parental consent to receive some medical services

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

stay up on your health mind body and soul. self love read research

Answer: A

Explanation:

1. Which of the following is the FIFTH step of CPR?

Call 9-1-1
Check for breathing
Open the victim's airway
Provide mouth-to-mouth breathing
2. Which of the following are the common causes of choking?

Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating slowly, laughing while eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing after eating, and drinking alcohol before or during meals
Not chewing food properly, eating too quickly, laughing while eating, and not drinking before or during meals
3. Which of the following is the correct order when you witness a victim needing CPR?

Check the scene, check the victim, call 911, and start compressions immediately
Check the scene, call 911, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the scene, check the victim, and start compressions immediately
Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately
4. What is the main function of the circulatory system?

Carbon dioxide leaving the body
Moving blood between the heart and lungs
Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood
Filtering the air as it enters the body
5. Which of the following is the 4th leading cause of injury related deaths?

Car accident
Plane crash
Choking
Falling
6. Which of the following is the SIXTH step of using an AED?

Press the shock button
Attach the AED pads
Open the victim's shirt and wipe the chest dry
Tell everyone to "stand clear"
7. To administer back blows, what position should the person be in?

Bent forward at the waist
Standing straight up
Bent forward at the knees
Laying down
8. Which part of your hand should be used to administer back blows?

Fist
Heel
Palm
Wrist
9. At what rate per minute should compressions be administered?

100
150
200
250
10. Which of the following makes up 1 CPR Cycle?

30 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
100 chest compressions and 6 rescue breaths
11. Which of the following is the lower respiratory system responsible for?

Secreting a mucus that filters, warms, and cleanses the air
Heart getting blood out to every cell in the body
Getting oxygen to the cells of the body
Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood
12. When using an AED, after the shock is delivered when should CPR resume?

Wait 30 seconds
Wait 1 minutes
Immediately
Do not continue CPR
13. Which of the following are considered to be signs of a heart attack?

Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the jaw, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the abdomen, and chest pain
Shortness of breath, pain in the legs, pain in the abdomen, and pain when swallowing
14. When possible, what is the preferred method of CPR?

Compression-only
Single-person
Two-person
Rescue-breath-only
15. Compression-only CPR should only be used on which of the following types of victims?

Under the age of 8
Victims you witness collapse
Victims you do not witness collapse
Collapsed from choking

Answers

This prompt has to do with the biological systems related to Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

1) The FIFTH step of CPR is: Open the victim's airway (Option 3)

2) The common causes of choking are: "eating too quickly" and "laughing while eating" (Option B and C)

3) The correct order when you witness a person who needs CPR is "Call 911, check the victim, check the scene, and start compressions immediately" (Option D)

4) The main function of the circulatory system is: "Gas exchange when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)

5) The 4th leading cause of injury-related deaths is falling (Option D)

6) The SIXTH step of using an AED is: "Tell everyone to "stand clear" (Option D)

7) To administer back blows, the position the person should  be in is:  " Standing straight up" (Option B)

8) The part of your hand should be used to administer back blows is: "palm" (Option C)

9) The rate per minute at which compressions be administered is: 100 compressions minute (Option A)

10)  One CPR cycle is given as "30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths" (Option B)

11) The lower respiratory system is responsible for "Gas exchange that occurs when oxygen enters the blood" (Option C)

12) When using an AED, after the shock is delivered CPR resume immediately (Option C)

13) The option that is considered to be signs of a heart attack are: "Shortness of breath, pain in the arm, pain in the jaw, and chest pain" (Option A)

14) When possible, the preferred method of CPR is: "Compression-only" (Option A)

15) Compression-only CPR should only be used on: "Victims you witness collapse" (Option B)

What is Cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure that combines chest compressions with artificial ventilation in an attempt to manually preserve intact cognitive abilities until further measures are taken to restore sudden blood circulation and breathing in a person who has gone into cardiac arrest.

CPR, especially if given soon after a cardiac arrest, has been shown to increase or triple a person's chances of survival. Approximately 90% of persons who have an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest die.

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depending upon the site use, what times of year should one consider if only two fertilizer applications are to be made annually.

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Depending upon the site use, late summer, late fall, mid to late spring times of year should one consider if only one fertilizer application is to be made annually.

What do you understand by fertilizers?

Any substance, whether of natural or synthetic origin, applied to soil or plant tissues to provide plant nutrients is referred to as a fertilizer. It's possible to distinguish fertilizers from liming agents or other non-nutrient soil additives. There are numerous natural and man-made sources of fertilizer. Fertilization for the majority of contemporary agricultural techniques concentrates on the three macronutrients nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K), with sporadic additions of supplements for micronutrients such rock dust. Farmers can use a variety of methods to apply these fertilizers, including dry, pelletized, or liquid application processes, as well as heavy machinery or hand tools.

Thus from above conclusion we can say that depending upon the site use, late summer, late fall, mid to late spring times of year should one consider if only one fertilizer application is to be made annually.

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The best way for a person to get all the essential nutrients and keep energy intake low is to:
A. use the principle of the discretionary calorie allowance to plan their diet.
B. none of the above
C. choose foods with high nutrient density in each food group. D. follow the principle of moderation in dietary intake.

Answers

By following the mentioned points, a person can get all the essential nutrients and keep energy intake low.

What is calorie?

The amount of energy in an item of food or drink is measured in calories. When we eat and drink more calories than we use up, our bodies store the excess as body fat. If this continues, over time we may put on weight.

What is high nutrient density?

Nutrient dense foods are rich in vitamins, minerals and other nutrients important for health, without too much saturated fat, added sugars and sodium.

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what does the advent of behavioral modernity refer to

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Answer: The biological transition is when hominids became hominins.

Explanation: A period when early anatomically modern humans became fully human in symbolic thought and elaboration in cultural creativity.

The advent of behavioral modernity refer to biological transition.

What do you mean by biological transition?

The biological transition include the intrauterine and neonatal periods; puberty, including both adrenarche and gonadarche; pregnancy and the postpartum period; and the perimenopausal and menopausal periods.

The stages are shock, anger, acceptance and commitment. People's initial reaction to the change will likely be shock or denial as they refuse to accept that change is happening. Once the reality sinks in and people accept the change is happening, they tend to react negatively.

Transitions signal relationships between ideas—relationships such as: “Another example coming up—stay alert!” or “Here's an exception to my previous statement” or “Although this idea appears to be true, here's the real story.”

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why do people drink alcohol?how do they become alcoholic

Answers

The reason why people become alcoholics is that they are simply addicted to the taste. Drinking alcohol can also be a coping mechanism for some people. They may be depressed or have low self-esteem and drinking is a way to escape reality.

Put the Following Steps of a Lifeguard Rotation in the Proper Order

Answers

The steps for a Lifeguard Rotation in the Proper Order are:

Incoming Lifeguard (LG1) performs a proactive scan confirming all is clear before taking over the position.LG1 reports to outgoing lifeguard that all is clear before taking over the position.Equipment is exchanged as lifeguards change position.Once the position change is complete, both lifeguards scan the zone.Outgoing lifeguard performs a proactive bottom scan confirming all clear before moving to the next station.What are the steps for a Lifeguard Rotation?

When there is a Lifeguard Rotation to happen, the incoming lifeguard performs a proactive scan to familiarize themselves with the zone and then confirm that all is clear before they take over the position.

Then the incoming guard will report that all is clear (if it is clear) and then takes over position while the equipment between the lifeguards is exchanged.

Once the incoming lifeguard is positioned, then the two lifeguards carry out another scan. Finally, as the outgoing lifeguard leaves, they will perform a bottom scan to ensure that all is clear and then they move to another station.

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A busy schedule can be a barrier to eating healthier foods.

Answers

Answer:

There are a few ways to manage this.

1. Meal prepping: By planning out your meals for the week, you can save time by having pre-made meals and snacks available. This will also help you to plan for healthier options.

2. Planning ahead: Try to plan your meals for the week and make a grocery list before you go to the store. This will help you to stick to healthy items and keep unhealthy snacks out of your grocery cart.

3. Stock up on healthy snacks: If you have healthy snacks like cut-up vegetables, nuts, and fruit readily available, you can grab them quickly when you’re in a hurry.

4. Bring lunch: If you know you won’t have time to make a healthy lunch, prepare it the night before and bring it. This will ensure you eat a healthy meal and do not resort to fast food.

5. Eat out smarter: If you find yourself eating out, opt for healthier options such as salads and grilled proteins.

Explanation:

The nurse is providing education on the prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to clients. The nurse understands which client is at the highest risk of contracting an STI?
a. A 30-year-old client who consumes alcohol multiple times per week, uses cocaine, and has a history of prostitution.
b. A 20-year-old client who reports having protected sexual intercourse with three others, male and female, over the past five years.
c. A 25-year-old client who refused to receive the human papillomavirus vaccine and whose parents both have HIV.
d. A 17-year-old client who is in a monogamous relationship with a 25-year-old partner and engages in unprotected sex.

Answers

The nurse is educated regarding the transmission of STIs, and she knows that her 30-year-old client consumes alcohol multiple times per week, uses cocaine, and has a history of prostitution. Option A is the correct answer as this person has a high risk of an STI.

What is the STI and what are its consequences?

STIs can infect people who have a genetic history of any STD (sexually transmitted disease) or are in an unprotected physical relationship. Here, the 30-year-old client has a history of prostitution that shows he is at high risk for STIs. The 17-year-old client is monogamous, and nothing is mentioned about the chance of an STI, so this person has a low chance. A 25-year-old client has HIV parents, but it is not clear that both parents are HIV positive, and further, this client has not been in any unsafe physical relationships, so he cannot be infected.

Hence, the answer is option A, which is the 30-year-old client with a history of prostitution.

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Approximately how many sexually active teens will contract a STI before graduating from high school
One out of every three
One out of every five
One out of every seven
One out of every ten
O
5 points

Answers

Answer:

Approximately one out of every three sexually active teens will contract an STI before graduating from high school.

Explanation:

.

a two-factor study with two levels of factor a and three levels of factor b uses a separate group of n

Answers

The effect of one independent variable depends on the level of the second independent variable. A two-factor study with two-factor A levels and three-factor B levels uses a separate group of n = 5 participants for each treatment condition.

There is always the possibility of two main effects and one interaction. You can always compare the means of each main effect and interaction. There are key effects or interactions when the appropriate agents are different. They can have different df values, but they all have the same denominator.

The sampled population must be normally or nearly normally distributed. The samples must be independent. The variances of the populations must be equal. If the p-value is less than your significance level you can reject the null hypothesis. The difference between the two variances is statistically significant.

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A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections anterior and posterior sections left and right sections frontal and sagittal sections.

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A medical student makes a transverse cut of a cadaver's leg. The two resulting sections could be referred to as the superior and inferior sections.

A cadaver, also called a corpse, is a deceased person's body that is used by medical professionals, students, and other researchers to study anatomy, locate illness areas, ascertain the causes of death, and provide tissue for repairing defects in living people. In order to further their studies, medical school students study and dissect corpses. Archaeologists and art students are among the other people who study cadavers.

When referring to body components that are at one end of the body, the terms superior and inferior sections (cranial and caudal) are employed. The head (cranial) is where superior structures are located, while the feet are where inferior (caudal) structures are located. makes a distinction between the superior (upper) and inferior sections (lower) parts of the body. plane of sagittal. horizontal line that separates the body's right and left sides.

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dietary recommendations for individuals trying to gain weight as muscle include which of the following?

Answers

Individuals must choose nutrient rich foods if they are trying to gain weight as muscle.

What should be the dietary recommendations for muscle weight gain?

It's crucial to keep in mind that weight-gain diets do not call for eating processed foods, foods loaded in fat or sugar, or items like wings, hamburgers, chips, or soda.

The dietary recommendations should be-

Increase the consumption of meats, poultry, and fish (sources of high quality protein), 1% milk instead of 2%, and whole grain foods (pasta, rice, potatoes), to other food exchanges, add fruit (apricots and pineapples are examples of good snacks), fresh vegetables (broccoli and cauliflower), milk is a calorie-dense healthy beverage, and saturated fats should be limited but not entirely avoided. eat three meals that are balanced and two to three snacks each day.

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if a person has schizophrenia, their identical twin's chances of being similarly afflicted are about in 10 if the twins did not share a placenta.

Answers

You have a 10% probability of developing schizophrenia if your sister or brother does. You have a 50% chance of developing schizophrenia if your identical twin does

A 10% probability of developing schizophrenia if your sister or brother does.

Can a twin have schizophrenia in both minds?

According to the twin studies, there is a 30–50% risk that the other identical twin will also have schizophrenia if one twin has it. There is a 15% possibility that the second twin will also have schizophrenia if a fraternal twin does.Can a twin have schizophrenia in both minds?According to the twin studies, there is a 30–50% risk that the other identical twin will also have schizophrenia if one twin has it. 15% of fraternal twins will develop schizophrenia.

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Which of the following viral illnesses has become less frequent in the United States because of immunization?
Multiple Choice
hepatitis C
mono
measles
HSV type 1

Answers

Measles is a kind of viral illnesses which has become less frequent in the United States because of immunization.

What do you mean by Immunization ?

A procedure via which a person receives immunization protection against a disease. This phrase is frequently used synonymously with the words vaccination or inoculation.

Millions of lives are saved annually thanks to vaccination, which is a success story in global health and development. In order to create immunity, vaccines act in conjunction with your body's natural defenses. Your immune system reacts when you receive a vaccination.

Immunizations prevent death. The best approach to prevent you or your child from contracting certain illnesses that can spread to other people is to use them (infectious diseases). And these illnesses frequently have no available medical remedies.

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Measuring cerebral blood volume is a method used to infer the existence of neurogenesis in humans. Cerebral blood volume in the subiculum significantly increases following an exercise intervention.a. True b. False

Answers

It is true that ceasuring cerebral blood volume is a method used to infer the existence of neurogenesis in humans and cerebral blood volume in the subiculum significantly increases following an exercise intervention.

Neurogenesis is that the formation of neurons First State novo—the hallmark of a developing brain. there's substantial hippocampal growth in adult humans, however humans seem distinctive among mammals therein there's no detectable neural structure growth however continuous addition of recent neurons within the striate body.

The subiculum is a important structure positioned between the hippocampus correct and entorhinal and different cortices, in addition as a spread of neural structure structures. it's an under-investigated region that plays a key role within the mediation of hippocampal-cortical interaction.

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Telemedicine videoconference tapes are

Answers

Telemedicine videoconference tapes are covered by HIPAA Security Rule if they are not erased after the physician's report is signed.

What is telemedicine?

Using electronic information and technology, including as computers, cameras, videoconferencing, satellites, wireless communications, and the Internet, to provide healthcare remotely. also known as telemedicine.

Examples of telemedicine include the digital transmission of medical imaging, remote medical diagnosis and evaluations, and video consultations with professionals.

Telemedicine can improve the effectiveness of healthcare delivery, cut costs associated with patient care or patient transportation, and possibly help patients avoid the hospital. In fact, a research found that the cost of telemedicine care was 19 percent lower than that of inpatient care.

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which statement about the prevalence rate of asd is true?

Answers

Answer:

People with ASD often have problems with social communication and interaction, and restricted or repetitive behaviors or interests. People with ASD may also have different ways of learning, moving, or paying attention. It is important to note that some people without ASD might also have some of these

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