At the arch's highest point, the ligamentum arteriosum attaches to the superior side of the arch. From the left pulmonary artery's root to the aorta's inferior arch surface, the ligamentum arteriosum travels.
Option C is accurate.
The aortic arch has which of the following branches?The brachiocephalic artery, rather than being a direct branch of the aorta, gives rise to the right subclavian artery (which branches from the arch of the aorta).
What exactly is the aorta's arched portion?By way of the brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid, and left subclavian artery, the aortic arch, a portion of the aorta, aids in supplying blood to the head and upper extremities.
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the theory of endosymbiosis and history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other plant species bacterial species other tree species
The theory of endosymbiosis and the history of life on earth allows one to predict that the gene sequences that are responsible for encoding functional, mitochondrial ribosomes in a particular tree likely share many similar nucleotides in the sequences from the ribosomal genes of other bacterial species (Option II).
What is the theory of endosymbiosis?The theory of endosymbiosis is a model to explain the origin of eukaryotic cells, which postulates that these types of organisms evolved as a consequence of symbiotic relationships between primitive bacterial cells that converted into mitochondria and chloroplasts in animals and plants.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the theory of endosymbiosis is based on the scientific idea that eukaryotic cells as observed in plants and animals generated due to symbiosis with primitive bacterial cells that entered into the cell and performed cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
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some substances are not normal components of urine because they are completely reabsorbed. choose the substances that satisfy this requirement under healthy conditions.
a. Filtered Plasma Proteins
b. Amino Acids
c. Glucose
d. Lactate
The substance that satisfies the requirement, under healthy conditions, is Amino Acids and glucose. The correct options are b and c.
What is urine?Urine is the wastewater that excretes from the body. Human pee is composed of 95 percent water. Minor amounts of urea (2%), creatinine (0.1%), uric acid (0.03%), chloride, sodium, potassium, sulfate, ammonium, and phosphate, as well as other ions and molecules, make up the remaining components. The filtrate contains components such as glucose, amino acids, Na+, and so on.
Therefore, the correct option is b. Amino Acids and c. Glucose.
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conjunctivitis can be caused by both bacteria and viruses. bacterial infections often present with a discharge, whereas a clear exudate is characteristic of infections. neonates can suffer from conjunctivitis following a birth if the mother has an active infection of either neisseria gonorrhoeae or .
The mother has an active infection of either neisseria gonorrhoeae or Gonococcal conjunctivitis tht is developed in newborn.
However, pregnant girls with gonorrhea can transmit the contamination to their infants all through vaginal delivery. This occurs due to the fact the toddler comes into touch with the mother's genital secretions. Symptoms in inflamed babies generally seem to 5 days after delivery. Conjunctivitis can end result from many causes, which include viruses, bacteria, allergens, touch lens use, chemicals, fungi, and sure diseases.
This is resulting from micro organism known as Neisseria gonorrhea. A new child infant can select out up this form of micro organism throughout vaginal beginning from an inflamed mother. This extreme form of conjunctivitis can be averted with using eye drops in newborns at beginning.
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Which of the following statements are true about an IV set up? a. Line markings indicate how much fluid has infused into the patient. b. The injection port provides needle-less entry into the IV tubing. c. The IV bag includes information about the type and volume of IV solution d. The slide clamp compresses the tubing to allow IV flow rate to be increased or decreased e. The line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0"
The correct statements about the IV set are:
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?
It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml. Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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The correct statements about the IV set are: option a, c and e.
Line markings indicate how much fluid has been infused into the patientThe IV bag includes information about the type and volume of the IV solutionThe line markings on all primary IV bags start with a "0".What is an infusion set?It is the fastest mode of transfer of fluids throughout the body from a sterile glass. It is not used in the transfer of blood and blood-related products.
Features of IV set:
Sharp spike for easy piercing with an antibacterial snap capSmooth roller clamp for regulating the flow rateThe Latex-free bulb at the distal end for intermittent medicationApproximately 20 drops/ml.Kink-resistant PVC tubingRotating lulerlockVented, Non-Vented and Micro-dripDEHP free materialHence, options a, c, and e are the correct statements
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Cells that have absorbed melanin to distribute pigmentation to other cells are located in what layer of the skin?.
Answer:
k
Explanation:
In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids?
lack of a tail
bipedal posture
eyes located on the front of the face
opposable thumbs
Hominin differ from all the other arthropods in the presence of bipedal posture. Thus, the correct option is B.
What are Hominins?Hominin is the group which consists of the modern humans, extinct human species and all our immediate ancestors including the members of the genera Homo, Australopithecus, Paranthropus and Ardipithecus.
Hominins differ from that of all the other arthropods in the presence of the bipedal posture. Bipedal posture is a mode of locomotion which is found in many of the primates and birds, in which only the hind limbs are used for the purpose of walking.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their A) transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out. B) transport out of the erythrocyte as a sodium ion moves in. C) active transport out of the erythrocyte. D) binding to DNA within the nucleus. E) binding to hemoglobin.
The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out option A is correct.
what are hydrogen ions?
A hydrogen ion is a positively charged molecule as a result of it loosing an electron. Which is also the nucleus of a hydrogen atom separated from its accompanying electron.
what is erythrocyte ?
literally it is referred to as Red blood cell, red blood corpuscles, haematids, erythroid cells etc. This is also type of blood cell that is made in the bone marrow and found in the blood. Erythrocytes contain a protein
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place each choice in its correct position on the typical multipolar neuron in the figure. place the anatomical names of neuron structures above the neuron. place the events that occur at the bracketed locations below the neuron.
Multipolar neurons are neurons from the central nervous system. They are composed of an ovoid cell body with several dendrites emerging from it, a long axon, and axon terminals. Graded potential occurs in the neuronal soma, while action potential occurs in the axon.
What is a multipolar neuron?
Neurons are formed in general by
A cellular body, soma,Dendrites, which are cytoplasmic extensions that receive stimuli from other cells, and An axon, which is a long formation capable of conducting the electrochemical signals.
Multipolar neurons are the ones that have a single axon and several dendrites.
Dendrites emerge from an ovoidal soma, and extend in different directions, creating a net and increasing the neuronal area to receive stimuli.
Axons are very large and covered by Schwann cells, facilitating impulse transmission.
These neurons are usually located in the central nervous system and integrate information coming from other nerve cells.
Every neuron forms connections with other neurons. These connections are known as synapsis.
As it happens in every synapsis between neurons when a presynaptic neuron sends information, a neurotransmitter is released.
Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that travel through the synaptic cleft to the junctional area of the other neuron and bind to its receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.
This binding produces a depolarization of the cell called an excitatory postsynaptic potential.
Graded potential initiates in the soma and dendrites.An action potential is initiated in the axon and spreads to the rest of the membrane depolarizing it.
In the image,
Anatomical names from the left to the right: dendrite, body cell, initial segment of the axon, axon, axon terminals.Events from the left to the right: graded potential, action potential.You can learn more about multipolar neurons at
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Give the number of protons electrons and neutrons in neutral atoms of each of the following isotopes.
Each of the above isotopes has, in turn, the following numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons:
a) : 5,5,5\s
b) : 80,80,119
c) : 29,29,34
d) : 6,6,7\s
e) : 34,34,43
It is referred to be an element if all of its atoms have a distinct number of neutrons despite having the same amount of protons.
Atomic number = amount of protons x number of electrons
Mass number minus proton count equals the amount of neutrons.
Number of protons, electrons, and neutrons calculation.
(a) Nuclear number is 5.
There are 5 protons.
There are five electrons.
Atomic weight is 10
Atomic number - proton count equals the amount of neutrons.
Neutron count is equal to 10 – 5 = 5.
(b) Atomic weight is 80.
80 is the proton count.
Electron count is 80.
Atomic weight is 199.
Atomic number - proton count equals the amount of neutrons.
Neutron count is equal to 199 − 80 = 119.
(c) Nuclear number is 29.
There are 29 protons.
There are 29 electrons.
Atomic weight: 63
the quantity of neutron.
(Give the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in neutral atoms of each of the following isotopes:
(a) 10,5 B
(b) 199,80 Hg
(c) 63,29 Cu
(d) 13,6 C
(e) 77,34 Se)
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three babies were recently mixed up in a hospital. based on the data in the table above, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type
Based on the data of blood types for both the couple and the babies, baby #3 with blood type AB belongs to Couple II with blood type A and B.
Why is Blood type important?Certain antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response that are considered foreign to the body. These antigens are found in blood types that determines its presence or absence.
In order for medical situations such as blood transfusion to successfully occur, blood type matching is needed. Blood type plays other important roles in genetics that include matching to identify parentage as is the case of the question where the baby with AB can only come from the parents with A and B blood type.
The full question is:
Three babies were mixed at the hospital. Given the data below, the couple with blood types a and b are the actual parents of the child with blood type?
COUPLE # I II IIIBlood type A&A A&B B&OBABY # 1 2 3Blood type B O ABLearn more on blood type here: https://brainly.com/question/15289194
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outline the process of transcription in the nucleus including the
Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three steps of transcription that are depicted here. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three stages of transcription.
What are the four steps in the transcription process?The process of copying DNA to create a complementary strand of RNA is called transcription. After that, RNA is translated to become proteins. Initiation, promoter removal, elongation, and termination are the four main phases of transcription.
In what transcription does the nucleus engage?Transcription takes place in the cell's nucleus since the genes are bound there, but the mRNA transcript needs to be delivered to the cytoplasm. In prokaryotes, which include bacteria and archaea, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell since these organisms lack organelles and membrane-bound nuclei.
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Which of the following are secondary sexual characteristics?
A
Growth of facial hairs in boys
B
Acnes in both boys and girls
C
Mammary glands in girls
D
All of the above
Characters with secondary sexual characteristics include those with facial hair, development of the breasts, chest hair beneath the arms, beards, and mustaches.
Which of these traits is secondary to sexuality?In humans, obvious secondary sex traits include pubic hair on both sexes, larger breasts and expanded hips in women, facial hair and Adam's apples on men.
What are the secondary sexual traits of men?Secondary characteristics of males include the ability to gain muscle mass more quickly than females, more body hair, pelvic build (lack of rounded hips), facial and chest hair, and increased body hair.
Girls' voices get harsh during puberty, whereas boys' voices go hoarse.
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which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants that will be true-breeding?
The boxes marked 1-4 correspond top plant that will be true breeding is 1 and 4 only. The correct option is A).
What is true breeding?True breeding is a sort of breeding in which the parents generate kids with the same phenotype. This signifies that both parents are homozygous for all of the traits.
Aberdeen Angus cattle are an example of real breeding. True-breeding plants have the same genetic make-up for the character(s) under investigation. Pure breeds exhibit no variation and pass down the same qualities for numerous generations after self-pollination.
Therefore, the correct option is A) 1 and 4 only.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
A) 1 and 4 only. B) 2 and 3 only. C) 1, 2, 3, and 4. D) 1 only.
What would happen to a cell that didn’t replicate its dna before cell division?
The cell will not proceed with the further processes.
What is equational division?
Chromosome replication and equal distribution between the two daughter cells occur during the cell division process known as mitosis. Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid. Thus, mitosis is also referred to as equational division.
Unequal division will result if the cell didn't replicate prior to actually cell division. As a result of the checkpoints, it won't move on to the next step. The checkpoint will later start the apoptosis process, which results in programmed cell death.
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energy yielding nutrients include
Energy yielding nutrients include fats, carbohydrates, and proteins as they provide energy to the body.
How does these three nutrients provide energy?Fats :
Lipids are another name for fats. Fat is the nutrient with the highest energy density or energy content, with 9 calories per gram of fat. The second most prevalent form of nutrient in food is fat. They give the body's cells the energy they need to function, and they also support strong immune systems and healthy skin and hair. For future usage, such as during pregnancy or when energy needs alter, fats are stored in fat cells. Foods like seeds, nuts, seafood, dairy products, and vegetable oils are sources of unsaturated fats.Carbohydrates:
The most prevalent form of nutrient in meals is carbohydrate. They are in charge of bringing sweetness to fruits and vegetables.Energy can be obtained from both simple and complex carbs, but only complex carbohydrates also include vitamins and minerals.Simple carbs consist of starch and sugar (glucose) (polysaccharides). Fruit sugars (fructose), milk sugars (lactose), and grain sugars are examples of complex carbohydrates (maltose and galactose). Another kind of carbohydrate is fiber. For those trying to reduce weight, a diet high in complex carbs and low in processed foods is advised.Proteins:
Protein is an excellent source of fuel for the body, and it can aid in muscle recovery and help you feel your best after working out.Thus, if you lead an extremely active lifestyle, protein can be highly advantageous.A macronutrient is referred to as protein. This indicates that it is a nutrient that the body need in significant amounts for energy and as a crucial component of any diet.Although it is most frequently found in animal products, plant-based sources like nuts and legumes also contain a significant amount of it. Everyone is aware that the body needs food for energy. But you might not be aware that a significant amount of the body's energy comes from protein.What is energy yielding nutrient?The nutrients in meals that the body really uses to produce energy are known as energy-yielding nutrients. The macronutrients are another name for them. Micronutrients and macronutrients are both types of nutrients. A lot of macronutrients are required, and the majority of them are energy-giving (fiber is sometimes considered a macronutrient but does not provide energy). Micronutrients are necessary in small amounts to ensure that various bodily functions run smoothly, but because they do not instantly convert to energy, they are not considered to be an energy-yielding nutrient.
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Write the correct answer on the line provided.
Carmella Espinoza underwent ________ for the treatment of spider veins
Carmella Espinoza underwent sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.
What are Spider veins?Spider veins are defined as tiny, red, purple and blue vessels which twist and turn that are easily visible even through the skin affecting capillaries which are the smallest blood vessels in the body that are red or blue, look like a spider web or a tree branch. These usually appear on the legs and face.
Several risks of spider veins which include:
HeredityOccupations which involve a lot of standing, for example, nurses, hair stylists, teachers, and factory workersObesityHormonal influences such as pregnancy, puberty, and menopause.The treatment which is required is sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.
Thus, Carmella Espinoza underwent sclerotherapy for the treatment of spider veins.
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agine that you have a sample of dna that contains a single, specific dna sequence. before you run your gel, you split your sample into two tubes. you run the dna from the first tube in lane two of your gel. you take the other tube and use an enzyme called a restriction enzyme that cuts the dna into two pieces at a specific point in the sequence. you then run this sample that was cut on the gel. which of the next three lanes (lane 3, 4, or 5) could be the same sample from lane two after it was cut into two pieces?
After being divided into two halves, the sample from lane two may still be present in lane 4, which is possible. Lane 2 is around 700 base pairs long, and lane 4 will add up to about 700 base pairs as well, despite the restriction enzyme that divides the DNA into two parts.
What is gel electrophoresis?
A laboratory technique called gel electrophoresis is used to divide combinations of DNA, RNA, or proteins based on their molecular sizes. In gel electrophoresis, the molecules that need to be separated are forced through a gel that has tiny holes by an electrical field.It involves an electrical field, specifically one that is applied such that the gel has a positive charge on one end and a negative charge on the other. Negatively charged molecules like DNA and RNA will be drawn to the positively charged end of the gel. However, because proteins lack a negative charge, they must first be combined with sodium dodecyl sulfate, a detergent, in order to separate them using this method. The proteins are given a linear structure and a negative charge during this process, enabling them to move toward the gel's positive end and be separated. Finally, after utilizing it to separate the DNA, RNA, or protein molecules, bands representing of different molecular sizePrinciple of gel electrophoresis:
Since DNA is negatively charged, it will move toward the positively charged electrode when an electric current is supplied to the gel. The DNA fragments are organized in size order because shorter DNA strands travel through the gel more quickly than longer ones.
Steps in gel electrophoresis:
Pouring the gel first, getting your samples ready, the gel must be loaded, run, stained, exposed to an electric field while doing so.Hence all about the gel electrophoresis.
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apa goal 2 effects of supplements on memory
apa goal 2 effects of supplements on memory is fish oil.
What are the goals?The goals or aim is to provided by the APA for the Psychology Major are Knowledge base, Scientific inquiry and critical thinking, Ethical and social responsibility in a diverse world, Communication, Professional development.
five comprehensive learning goals put forth by the APA for the Psychology are Publication of Student Research, Helping skills, Communication
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your question was incomplete, thus the complete question is
apa goal 2 effects of supplements on memory
1. fish oil
2. b vitamins
3. ginkgo biloba
4. excercise
5. coconut oul
1. What 3 codons oct as termination signals?
2. What codon means start?
Covalent modification generally turns off genes by attracting proteins that bind to methylated cytosines and block gene transcription.
a) DNA Methylation
b) miRNA
c) RNAi
d) tRNA
The correct option among the following was DNA Methylation.
define DNA Methylation ?
A biological process called DNA methylation involves the addition of methyl groups to the DNA molecule. Without altering the sequence, methylation can modify the activity of a DNA region. DNA methylation often suppresses gene transcription when it occurs at a gene promoter. DNA methylation plays an important role in a variety of critical processes in mammals, including ageing, cancer, X-chromosome inactivation, genomic imprinting, and transposable element suppression.
Adenine and cytosine are the two nucleobases on which natural, enzymatic DNA methylation occurs as of 2016. N6-methyladenine[1], 5-methylcytosine[2], and N4-methylcytosine are the modified bases. [3]
The DNA nucleotide cytosine is methylated to create 5-methylcytosine at position 5 on the pyrimidine ring. This is the same place that separates thymine from the homologous RNA base uracil, which has no methyl group. 5-Methylcytosine undergoes spontaneous deamination and is changed into thymine. A T:G mismatch emerges from this. If A is substituted for G, the original C:G pair becomes a T:A pair, thus altering a base and producing a mutation. Repair mechanisms then fix it back to the original C:G pair.
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concept map connective tissues
Connective tissues are tissues that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. All other types of tissues in the body are supported by connective tissues, which joins or divides them.
Like all tissue types, it is made up of cells encased in a space of liquid known as the extracellular matrix (ECM). In contrast to other types of tissue, connective tissue's cells are loosely rather than densely packed within the ECM.
Types of connective tissueTwo distinct forms of connective tissue are distinguished based on the cells present and the ECM structure.
Connective tissue proper; further broken down into loose and dense connective tissues.Specialised connective tissue; adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, blood, and reticular.learn more about connective tissues here;
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Part a. A plate inoculated with a sample volume of 10^-7 mL produced 170 colonies. What was the original concentration in the sample? Show work.Part b. After incubation, how many colonies should be on the 10^-8 mL plate from the dilution series in Part a? Show work.Part c. After incubation, how many colonies should be on the 10^-6 mL plate from the dilution series in Part a? Show work.
the serial dilution, solution for the original concentration in the sample is 170 colonies, solutions are A-10^-7 mL=1.7 x 10^9 cfu/mL
After incubation, 10^-8 mL x 1.7 x 10^9 cfu/mL= 17 colonies should be on the 10^-8 mL plate from the dilution series in Part a , c-10^-6 mL x 1.7 x 10^9 cfu/mL= 1700 colonies. Serial dilutions are created by repeating the same dilution step, with the previous dilution serving as the input to the next dilution in each step. The dilutions are a geometric series because the dilution-fold is the same in each step (constant ratio between any adjacent dilutions). A small amount of a well-mixed solution is transferred into a new container, and more water or other solvent * is added to dilute the original solution. The diluted sample is then used as the base solution for further dilution.
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which hormone aids in regulating intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption
Answer:
Parathyroid hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood, largely by increasing the levels when they are too low. It does this through its actions on the kidneys, bones and intestine: Bones – parathyroid hormone stimulates the release of calcium from large calcium stores in the bones into the bloodstream.
The hormone that aids in regulating intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption is Adrenal glucocorticoids. The correct option is a.
What are Adrenal glucocorticoids?The adrenal cortex creates steroid hormones known as glucocorticoids. They have pleiotropic actions and significantly support the preservation of homeostasis at rest and in response to stress.
By increasing or lowering protein metabolism, adrenal glucocorticoids assist in controlling intestinal calcium and phosphorus absorption.
Your adrenal glands create the glucocorticoid hormone cortisol, which is then released into the body. Hormones are substances that communicate with your organs, skin, muscles, and other tissues through your blood to coordinate various bodily functions. These signals advise your body on what to do and when.
Therefore, the correct option is a, Adrenal glucocorticoids.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
Adrenal glucocorticoids
Testosterone.
Melatonin.
Cortisol.
5
Use the model to answer the following question.
Which type of change caused the new combination of traits in Gametes B and C?
The new combination is an alteration in the number of sugars in DNA.
The new combination is an alteration in the chemical composition of a gene.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome composition due to crossing-over.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome number due to nondisjunction.
The new combination is a change in the chromosome composition due to crossing-over, which caused the new combination of traits in gametes B and C (Option C).
What is the process of recombination or crossing over?The process of recombination or crossing over refers to the change of genetic material between non-sister chromatids during prophase I, which increases the genetic variation of the resulting gametes.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of recombination or crossing over is able to increase the genetic variation of the germinal cells.
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Answer and match them
Answer:
Answered (?)
Explanation:
1. C
2. E (?)
3. F
4. D
5. B
6. A
I wasn't sure about E because for me I would say that means 'extinction' but that's not an answer, I tried my best and hope this helps!
If RNA polymerase malfunctions,
one of the subunits of rRNA will not be transcribed from DNA.
amino acids will not be joined to their tRNA.
mRNA cannot bind to rRNA.
an mRNA will not be formed.
mRNA cannot copy itself.
If RNA polymerase malfunctions, an mRNA will not be formed.
Functions of RNA polymeraseRNA polymerase is an enzyme that functions primarily during the transcription of genes. It ensures that DNA sequences are transcribed to RNA sequences by adding complementary bases to the primer.
During transcription, genetic information on a DNA is transcribed into genetic codes in a special type of RNA known as messenger RNA or simply mRNA.
The coding strand of the double helix DNA act as the template for the transcription while RNA polymerase adds complementary RNA bases to the DNA primer which must have bonded to the DNA initially.
Thus, without the RNA polymerase enzyme working as it should, the addition of bases to the primer will not happen, and this will prevent the formation of mRNA.
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A trait that is found in and shared by two or more species, but is not derived from a common ancestor is known as?.
Wherein a trait turned into present inside the ancestral species it is stated to be a homologous trait. If the trait became now not a gift within the ancestral species but appeared independently in the lineages, it is known as an analogous trait that arose thru evolutionary convergence.
A synapomorphy is a shared, derived person, common among an ancestor and its descendants. A man or woman, or trait, is something observable approximately the organism.
Tendencies that get up via convergent evolution are called analogous structures they're contrasted with homologous structures, which have a not unusual starting place. the alternative to convergent evolution is 'divergent evolution wherein related species evolve extraordinary traits.
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which bones unite to form the highlighted bone?
The highlighted bone is named the sternum. The sternum, which lies in the middle of the chest, is where the ribs connect to the body.
Which joint does the humerus's highlighted bone form?The humeral head's ball and glenoid's socket connect at the glenohumeral joint. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles' tendons make up the rotator cuff, which joins the humerus to the scapula. Muscle and bone are joined via tendon.
What develops in the indicated curvature?When a child is able to sit up on their own, the lumbar curvature that is highlighted begins to develop. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation. The structure in bold allows for head lateral rotation.
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During the cell cycle, the cell divides its nucleus and chromosomes during. The cytoplasm and cell membrane divide during. Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the phase and duplicate its chromosomes during the phase.
During the mitotic (M) phase, the cell divides its copied DNA and cytoplasm to make two new cells. M phase involves two distinct division-related processes: mitosis and cytokinesis.
The fluidy substance that fills a cell's inside is called cytoplasm. Salts, water, and numerous organic compounds make up its composition. Membranes surround some intracellular organelles, such as the nucleus and mitochondria, and keep them from coming into contact with the cytoplasm. One cell (the mother) splits into two genetically identical new cells (the daughters) during the process of mitosis, a kind of cell division. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
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The hip joint is a good example of a(n) _________
synovial joint.
The hip joint is a good example of a ball-and-socket joint.
What is a joint?A joint is a point where two bones come together to form a framework that allows movement. Ligaments are the tissues that connect bones. Tissue connects muscles to bones via tendons.
A joint is a connection that occurs between bones in the skeletal system. It is also known as an articulation or articular surface. The ability to move is provided by the joints. The degree and type of movement of a joint are determined by its type and characteristics. Structure and function can be used to classify joints.
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