The correct statement about drowning is laryngospasm following submersion in water rescue breathing difficult.
what is drowning?
When the mouth and nose are submerged in liquid, it results in asphyxia known as drowning.
Laryngospasm, a reflex contraction of the vocal cords, is a common symptom of dry drowning. It prevents water from entering the lungs but can also impair proper air intake through the windpipe. If untreated, laryngospasm, which can happen minutes to hours after the first water inhalation, might be fatal.
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the nurse is assisting with the insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (pac) for a client at 32-weeks gestation who has severe preeclampsia with pulmonary edema. as the pac enters the right ventricle, what is the priority nursing assessment?
The priority nursing assessment for the patient in the question above is monitoring for premature ventricular contractions.
During and following the insertion of a PAC, the patient's ECG activity should be monitored to notice any occurrence of ventricular ectopy. Ventricular ectopy is a type of abnormal heart rhythm generally caused by the electric signals in the heart starting in a different place and traveling in a different way through the heart.
Premature ventricular contractions are the extra heartbeat that begins in the ventricle. It's a type of ventricular ectopy. While generally not life-threatening, for people with heart disease, PVC can lead to a weakened heart muscle.
The question above doesn't seem to be complete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
The nurse is assisting with the insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC) for a client at 32 weeks gestation who has severe preeclampsia with pulmonary edema. As the PAC enters the right ventricle, what is the priority nursing assessment?
A. Monitor for premature ventricular contractions.
B. Note any complaint of sudden chest pain.
C. Assess fetal response to the procedure.
D. Observe for maternal blood pressure change.
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The clinician is seeing a toddler for a follow-up visit. The chart indicates that the previous examiner noted an innocent murmur. You should suspect a possible pathological murmur if the examination reveals the following
A. Murmur is grade I-II/IV
B, Murmur changes with the toddler's position. C. Murmur is musical in quality. D. Murmur is diastolic.
The clinician should suspect a possible pathological murmur in the toddler, as his/her previous examiner noted an innocent murmur, if the examination reveals the murmur is diastolic. Hence, the correct answer is D.
Pathological murmurs have a sound level of 3rd grade or above, a diastolic murmur, or an increase in severity as the patient stands. All children who have any of these symptoms should see a pediatric cardiologist. Heart murmurs are noises produced by choppy and rapid blood flow through the heart, such as swishing and whooshing. A stethoscope can be used to listen to the heart murmur. When the heart valves close, a typical heartbeat generates two noises that sound like "lubb-dupp" that often written as "lub-DUP".
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progression allows for improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness while avoiding stagnation in training
Progression allows for improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness while avoiding stagnation in training is: one of six FITT-VP principles. The principles consist of frequency, intensity, time, type, volume, and progression.
What are FITT-VP principles?FITT-VP is an evidence-based recommendation used as a guide for the workout plan. These principles stand for:
Frequency. The best frequency of doing a cardiorespiratory exercise is 3 to 5 days.Intensity. The recommended intensity is based on the age, oxygen uptake reserve, and perceived exertion charts.Time. It is best to do the exercise for approximately 30 minutes 5 days a week. Type. The type of exercise is up to the client.Volume. This exercise can be used to estimate total energy expenditure using METs.Progression. It depends on the client’s health, fitness, and the goals of the program. It allows improvements while avoiding stagnation.Learn more FITT-VP principle here https://brainly.com/question/27962157
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The use of chemical substances to kill pathogenic organisms without injury the host. Or the use of chemical substances to treat various aspects of disease - i.e., aspirin for headache and inflammation, drugs to regulate heart function and agents to rid the body of malignant cells.
Chemotheraphy can be defined as the use of chemical agents to eliminate pathogenic organisms while causing no harm to the host.
Alternatively, chemotheraphy can be defined also as the use of chemical substances to cure various aspects of disease, such as aspirin for headaches and inflammation, drugs to control cardiac function, and agents to clear the body of malignant cells.
Understanding ChemotheraphyChemotherapy refers to the use of chemicals in the treatment of infectious illnesses or cancer to remove neoplastic cells or pathogenic organisms. The principle underlying chemotherapy is selective toxicity. A chemotherapeutic drug, according to the selective toxicity principle, will inhibit a crucial function of neoplastic cells or invading organisms that varies qualitatively or quantitatively from the activities of host cells. Antimicrobial, antiparasitic, and antineoplastic drugs are examples of chemotherapeutic drugs.
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human analysts use their analytical alongside the power and speed of to produce timely, actionable, and accurate intelligence.
Human analysts use their analytical acumen alongside the power and speed of machine to produce timely, actionable, and accurate intelligence.
At the middle of the cyber intelligence framework, human analysts use their analytical acumen along the computational strength and velocity of machines—computer systems capable of automate tactics and, increasingly, to examine via synthetic intelligence—to supply timely, actionable, and correct intelligence, relying on the work.
Assists in each location of our lives, whether or not we are seeking to examine our emails, get using directions, get tune or film recommendations. In this article, I'll display you examples how synthetic intelligence is utilized in every day sports such as: Social media. Digital Assistants.
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a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb
22.7 the weight of the child in kg. when a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb.
A material is injected into a muscle during an intramuscular injection, often known as IM. It is one of various strategies for administering drugs via parenteral infusion in medicine. The shoulder, hip, and thigh are only three examples of potential sites for intramuscular injection. Before administering an injection on themselves, those who must do so should acquaint themselves with the procedure and get help from their doctor. Medical personnel known as medical assistant support doctors in hospitals and clinics. It usually takes between nine months and two years for the majority of aspirants to become medical assistants, while the precise length of time might vary. Graduating from high school, enrolling in medical assistant training, and earning certifications are all necessary stages to become a medical assistant.
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a woman has just given birth to a healthy term newborn. upon assessing the umbilical cord, the nurse would identify what findings as normal? select all that apply.
Answer: The nurse would identify one vein and two arteries as normal
Explanation:
A one-minute examination of the placenta performed in the delivery room provides information that may be important to the care of both mother and infant. The findings of this assessment should be documented in the delivery records.
During the examination, the size, shape, consistency, and completeness of the placenta should be determined, and the presence of accessory lobes, placental infarcts, hemorrhage, tumors, and nodules should be noted.
The umbilical cord should be assessed for length, insertion, number of vessels, thromboses, knots, and the presence of Wharton's jelly. The color, luster, and odor of the fetal membranes should be evaluated, and the membranes should be examined for the presence of large (velamentous) vessels.
Tissue may be retained because of the abnormal location of the placenta or because of placenta accreta, placenta increta, or placenta percreta. Numerous common and uncommon findings of the placenta, umbilical cord, and membranes are associated with abnormal fetal development and perinatal morbidity. The placenta should be submitted for pathologic evaluation if an abnormality is detected or certain indications are present.
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TRUE/FALSE. per the world health organization, neurocognitive disorder due to alzheimer's disease affect approximately
According to the World Health Organization, about people have neurocognitive disorders caused by Alzheimer's disease.
Alzheimer's disease is a brain ailment that gradually impairs thinking and memory abilities as well as the capacity to do even the most basic tasks. The majority of Alzheimer's patients have their initial symptoms later in life. Experts estimate that more than 6 million Americans, the majority of whom are 65 or older, may have dementia brought on by Alzheimer's disease. These estimates differ. Alzheimer's disease is the most frequent form of dementia in older persons and is currently the seventh greatest cause of death in the United States.
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Alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, and a wide variety of other chemical agents that alter perceptions and moods are called.
Psychoactive drugs include alcohol, cocaine, marijuana, and a wide range of other chemical compounds that affect perceptions and moods.
What are psychoactive drugs?Psychoactive drugs can be defined as compounds that, when consumed or supplied to the body, alter mental processes such as mood, perception, cognition, consciousness, and emotions. Psychoactive drugs are actually part of a larger class of psychoactive substances that also includes alcohol and caffeine. The psychoactive drug affects three brain neurotransmitters that are dopamine, serotonin, and noradrenaline or norepinephrine. When the substance reaches the brain, synaptic vesicles in neurons release the neurotransmitters. As a result, neurotransmitter activity increases.
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which of the following is the recommended aerobic exercise intensity for an individual with chronic kidney disease?
An individual with chronic renal disease should engage in aerobic activity at a moderate intensity. If the Kidney disease called nephrosis is not inflamed.
Kidney disease, also known as renal disease or nephropathy, is the damage to or illness of a kidney. Nephritis is an inflammatory Kidney disease that comes in a variety of forms depending on where the inflammation occurs. Blood tests are able to identify inflammation. Kidney illness called nephrosis is not inflamed. enduring condition. Toxic chronic disease should not be confused with it. A chronic condition is a sickness that develops over time or a human health condition that is persistent or has other long-lasting impacts due to chronic disease.
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False positives for the presence of nitrites can happen if the specimen is ________ for too long.
Answer:
at room temperature
Explanation:
Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following, EXCEPT:- infant mortality.- stillbirth.- increased risk for hypertension as an adult.- increased risk for cancer as an adult.- increased risk for diabetes as an adult.
Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following are - increased risk for cancer as an adult.
The common age at prognosis is 10 overall (a long time zero to 19), 6 years antique for children (elderly zero to 14), and 17 years antique for adolescents (elderly 15 to 19), at the same time as adults' common age for most cancers prognosis is 66. Childhood most cancers isn't one disease - there are extra than 12 fundamental forms of pediatric cancers and over a hundred subtypes.
Infants born with fetal increase restrict small for gestational age (FGR SGA) are at multiplied threat of short- and long-time period headaches and death. Conditions consisting of maternal hypertension, kidney disease, infections, malnutrition, smoking, and substance abuse boom the threat of getting an FGR SGA infant.
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prescription medications are designed to induce a specific effect on a neurotransmitter. many of the effects of legal and illegal drugs are due to their action on neurotransmitters. match the drug with the primary neurotransmitter it affects.
The correctly matched answers are
A) ecstasy with 2
B) cocaine with 1
C) heroin with 4
D) Alcohol with 3
Serotonin and norepinephrine are released by MDMA more so than dopamine. Mood, sleep, pain, appetite, and other behaviours are significantly regulated by the neurotransmitter serotonin. The effects of MDMA that allow people to feel happier are probably due to the extra serotonin release.
Dopamine builds up at the junction of VTA cells and NAc cells as a result of cocaine use, resulting in euphoric feelings and NAc cell activity that make the brain more sensitive to more drug exposure.
Heroin strongly stimulates dopamine neurons, whereas serotonin neurons are only stimulated at higher doses. In just a few seconds, nicotine activates dopamine neurons, but it has little impact on serotonin neurons.
Alcohol increases GABA receptor activity, which slows down brain activity. It is hypothesised that this is the reason why it immediately reduces anxiety, and overdosing can result in coma. But if alcohol is constantly available, the brain's receptors adjust by producing fewer GABA receptors.
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Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT
O pressure changes in the thorax
O urinary output
O venous valves
O activity of skeletal muscles
Factors that aid venous return include pressure changes in the thorax, venous valves, and activity of the skeletal muscles except urinary output. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is Venous return?
Venous return is the rate of back flow of blood to the heart. It normally limits the cardiac output. Superposition of the cardiac function curve and venous return curve is used in hemodynamic model. The main driver force in venous return is the blood flowing back to the heart which is driven by the pressure difference between the mean systemic filling pressure and right atrial pressure (RAP).
Venous return can be facilitated by a number of different factors, such as inspiration, increased total blood volume, the cardiac suction effect, the presence of venous valves and the skeletal muscle pump.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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match the key terms guarantor, statute of limitations, statement, and open-book account with their definitions.
A guarantor is someone who is accountable for the patient's finances. Statue of Limitations that establishes a deadline for when a collection action on a past-due account may be properly brought Patient bill statement. An account that is open to sporadic modifications is known as a "open-book account."
A statute of limitations is a legislation that establishes the maximum amount of time that parties to a dispute have from the date of an alleged offence, whether civil or criminal, to begin legal actions. Depending on the jurisdiction and the type of violation, the statute's time frame may differ for a victim to file a lawsuit against the alleged wrongdoer. The fundamentals of open-book accounting are expanded upon in closed-book accounting.
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which of the following explains why treatment of symptomatic tetanus requires an antitoxin and an antibiotic?
When tetanus bacteria release tetanus toxin, it's critical to neutralise the toxin and eradicate the bacteria that are making it.
The bacteria Clostridium tetanus is what causes tetanus, which is an illness. These bacteria create a poison when they enter the body, which produces painful muscle contractions. Tetanus is often known as "lockjaw." It frequently causes the muscles in the neck and jaw to lock, making it difficult to open the mouth or swallow. The obligately anaerobic bacillus Clostridium tetani is gramme positive in young cultures but may exhibit varied staining in older cultures or tissue samples. 25 The organism's entire genome has been sequenced, and its products have recently been evaluated against those of other clostridia.
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Help me out, I’m busy doing a bunch of things and I can’t do this one
The majority of epileptics lead active lives. However, for other people, the chance of an early death is higher.
What is Epilepsy ?A condition where the brain's nerve cell activity is messed up, leading to seizures.
A genetic condition or an acquired brain lesion, such as a trauma or stroke, may cause epilepsy.
A person has strange behavior, symptoms, and sensations during a seizure, which can occasionally cause unconsciousness. Between seizures, there are not many symptoms.Medications are typically used to treat epilepsy, though occasionally surgery, gadgets, or dietary changes are also used.We are aware that the risk of epilepsy-related death can be decreased by maintaining the best seizure control and living safely.To know more about Epilepsy please click here ; https://brainly.com/question/28131457
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FILL IN THE BLANK. codes for glossectomy procedures are assigned from the___heading of the cpt digestive system subsection.
Codes for glossectomy operations are allocated under the CPT digestive tract subsection's Tongue & Floor of Mouth category.
However, these codes must be recorded together along with CPT code 43020 (Esophagotomy, cervical method, with removal of foreign body) or CPT code 43045 when removing a foreign body (Esophagotomy, thoracic method, with removal of foreign body). The codes for combined adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy (42820-42821) reveal another coding trap that you must stay clear of. Use the combination tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy codes if the surgeon conducts an adenoidectomy and a tonsillectomy concurrently operations . When different endoscopic techniques are used to complete the same surgery, only the successful endoscopic operations should be reported. When urethral catheter is carried out independently of another operation, urethral catheter codes (51701-51702) are recorded.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. ___ age is an individual's adaptive capacities compared with those of other individuals of the same chronological age.
The ability to adjust to new situations in comparison to people of a similar chronological age is what is meant by psychological age. The study of the mind and behavior's is known as psychology.
Studying conscious and unconscious phenomena, such as thoughts and feelings, is part of psychological age. It is an academic field with a colossal extent that merges the social and natural sciences. psychological age work to comprehend the brain's emergent characteristics, which ties their field to neuroscience. Chronological age is the period of time from a person's birth to a specific date. Chronological quotation units include years, months, weeks, days, etc. Because biological age takes into account a variety of biological and physiological development factors, such as genetics, lifestyle, and nutrition, it differs from chronological age.
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a nurse is planning care for a client from Indonesia. What should the culturally competent nurse be aware of when completing the pain assessment?
Answer:
The nurse should identify first the language preference of the patient. Since Indonesian's primary language is not English, there could be a language barrier.
Explanation:
if an identical twin has schizophrenia, the co-twin's chances of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta.
If an identical twin has schizophrenia, chances the co-twin's of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta are then there's a 30-50% danger that the alternative dual may have it as well.
Identical twins much more likely to expand schizophrenia than non-equal. They determined that after evaluating equal dual research, that they'd a concordance fee of 40% whilst non-equal twins had 7.4%. equal twins, if a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative dual has a 1 in 2 danger of growing it, too.
This is proper even supposing they may be raised separately. In non-equal twins, who've distinctive genetic make-ups, while a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative simplest has a 1 in eight danger of growing the condition.
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two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: _________
The two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: falls and motor vehicle collisions.
What is Blunt trauma?The term "blunt trauma" refers to injuries to the body caused by a violent impact, a fall, or a physical assault with a dull instrument. It is sometimes referred to as "non-penetrating trauma" or "blunt force trauma." In contrast, penetrating trauma results in an open wound when an item or surface pierces the skin. Combinations of forces, including as acceleration and deceleration (the change in speed of a moving item), shearing (the sliding and stretching of organs and tissue in relation to one another), and crushing pressure can result in blunt trauma.Contusion, abrasion, laceration, and fracture are the four main subtypes of blunt trauma. A contusion, also referred to as a bruise, is an area of skin where tiny veins and capillaries have broken. Abrasions happen when the skin's layers have beenTo learn more about Blunt trauma refer to:
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