Which pair of magnets has the strongest attraction between them?

Answer:

66,7 seconds

Explanation:

the formula for height/distance is : S=v.t

Answer:

1 cal/s =4.184w

p=50 cal/s =2093w

v=12v

P = V*I

I =P/V

I = 17.43 A

P =1²*R

R = P/I²

Answer:

[tex]m=42\ fringes[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Wavelength [tex]\lambda=400nm[/tex]

Length of cell arm [tex]h=3.70cm[/tex]

Refraction of air at  at 1.00 atm pressure [tex]n=1.00028.[/tex]

Generally the equation for Number of shifts is mathematically given by

[tex]m=N-N_o[/tex]

Since

[tex]N_0=\frac{2t}{\lambda_0}[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]m=\frac{2t}{\lambda_0/n}-\frac{2t}{\lambda_0}[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{2t}{\lambda_0} n-1[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{2(3.7*10^{-2})}{400*10^{-9}}*(1.00028-1)[/tex]

[tex]m=51.8[/tex]

[tex]m=42\ fringes[/tex]

Answer:

B- the melting of polar ice caps

Explanation:

As the world's temperature increases, polar ice caps will no longer be able to remain solid.

Answer:

ans: 2250 meters

Explanation:

initial velocity (U)= 15 m/s

final velocity (V) = 0m/s , since need to come in rest

total time taken (T) = 5 min= 300 seconds

total distance covered (S)= UT + 1/2 aT^2 ,

a= acceleration

S= 15 × 300 + 0.5 ×(0 - 15) × 300

since a = (V - U)/ T

S = 4500 - 2250

S= 2250 m

Answer:

E.l soni.do es un.a sensac.ión, en el órg.ano del oído, prod.ucida por el movimie/nto ondu>latorio de un m/edio elástico (normal/mente el aire), debi.do a ra.pidísimos ca/mbios de pre.sión, generado/s por el movimiento vibrat.orio d.e un cuerpo sonoro. ... /El ruido se consid/era a to/do sonid.o / o no de.seado.

Explanation:

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

it is in the body system

Answer:

it would show clearly because it is a metal piece in the body.

Answer:

Sorry I don't know the answer

Answer:

564

Explanation:

Answer:

a) F = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2B^2lv}{16p}[/tex]  

b) attached below

c) 0.037 m/s

Explanation:

a) Determine the magnetic "drag" force acting  at the moment

speed = v

first step: determine current in the loop

I = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2}{16pl} B lv[/tex]   ----- ( 1 )

given that the current will induce force on the three sides of the loop found in the magnetic field

forces on vertical sides = + opposite

we will cancel out

hence equation 1 becomes

F = [tex]\frac{\pi d^2B^2lv}{16p}[/tex]   ( according to Lenz law we can say that the direction of force is upwards and this force will slow down the decrease in flux )

b) Determine the formula for Vt

attached below

c) Find Vt

given :

B = 0.80 T

density of copper = 8.9 * 10^3 kg/m^3

resistivity of copper = 1.68 * 10^-8 Ωm

∴ Vt = 16 ( 8.9 * 10^3 kg/m^3 ) ( 1.68 * 10^-8 Ωm ) ( 9.8 m/s^2 ) / ( 0.08 T)^2

       = 0.037 m/s

Explanation:

Movement:refers to the changing in the lights whether it be a change in intensity, color or direction of origin.

Answer:

the man has returned from his trip

Answer:

just did by typing this lol

Answer:

The ROYGBIV

Explanation:

R - red

O - orange

Y - yellow

G - green

B - blue

I - indigo

V - violet

Let v be the dog's initial velocity. Then

(13.5 m/s)^2 - v ^2 = 2 (1.50 m/s^2) (49.3 m)

==>   v ^2 = (13.5 m/s)^2 - 2 (1.50 m/s^2) (49.3 m)

==>   v = √((13.5 m/s)^2 - 2 (1.50 m/s^2) (49.3 m))

==>   v ≈ 5.86 m/s

From the water whole water cycle starts again.

Newton's third law states that for every action (force) in nature there is an equal and opposite reaction. If object A exerts a force on object B, object B also exerts an equal and opposite force on object A. In other words, forces result from interactions.

Hope it helps

Answer:

Newton's third law state that every action there is equal but opposite reactions

hope this will help you more

Answer:

(c) at rest

Explanation:

Given

See attachment for the distance time graph

Required

What does the graph illustrate?

From the graph, we can see that the line of distance is a horizontal line.

This suggests that a time increases, the distance remains unchanged

When distance remains unchanged over time, then it means the object is at rest.

Hence, (c) is correct

Answer:

the maximum vertical height the person in the cart can reach is 18.42 m

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the person in cart, m₁ = 45 kg

mass of the cart, m₂ = 43 kg

acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s²

final speed of the cart before it goes up the hill, v = 19 m/s

Apply the principle of conservation of energy;

[tex]mgh_{max} = \frac{1}{2}mv^2_{max}\\\\ gh_{max} = \frac{1}{2}v^2_{max}\\\\h_{max} = \frac{v^2_{max}}{2g} \\\\h_{max} =\frac{(19)^2}{2\times 9.8} \\\\h_{max} = 18.42 \ m[/tex]

Therefore, the maximum vertical height the person in the cart can reach is 18.42 m

Answer: A nucleus that absorbs at [tex]11.45\delta[/tex] is less shielded and a nucleus that absorbs at [tex]4.13\delta[/tex] will require a stronger applied field

Explanation:

While interpreting the data in NMR, the positions of signals are studied.

The nucleus/ protons having a higher value of [tex]\delta[/tex] are said to be less shielded. They are said to be upfield.

The nucleus/protons having a lower value of [tex]\delta[/tex] are said to be more shielded. They are said to be downfield.

So, a nucleus that absorbs at [tex]11.45\delta[/tex] is less shielded by the nucleus that absorbs at [tex]4.13\delta[/tex]

Also, the less shielded nucleus/protons will require a weak applied field to come into resonance than the more shielded nucleus/protons

So, a nucleus that absorbs at [tex]4.13\delta[/tex] will require a stronger applied field to come into resonance than the nucleus that absorbs at [tex]11.45\delta[/tex]

Answer:

C. 6.9 watts

Explanation:

Power = work/time

if work = force×distance...

Then... power= (force×distance)/time

Power = (20×12)/35

= 6.9 watts

Answer:

The period the field must be reduced to zero is 9.81 x 10⁻⁵ s

Explanation:

Given;

initial value of the magnetic field, B₁ = 0.276 T

number of turns of the solenoid, N = 517 turns

diameter of the solenoid, d = 10.5 cm = 0.105 m

induced emf, = 12.6 kV = 12,600 V

when the field becomes zero, then the final magnetic field value, B₂ = 0

The induced emf is given by Faraday's law;

[tex]emf = -\frac{NA\Delta B}{t} \\\\emf = -\frac{NA (B_2 -B_1)}{t} \\\\t = -\frac{NA (B_2 -B_1)}{emf}\\\\t = \frac{NA (B_1 -B_2)}{emf}\\\\where;\\\\t \ is \ the \ time \ when \ B = 0 \ \ (i.e\ B_2 = 0)\\\\A \ is \ the \ area \ of \ the \ coil\\\\A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} = \frac{\pi (0.105)^2}{4} = 0.00866 \ m^2\\\\t= \frac{(517) \times (0.00866)\times (0.276 -0)}{12,600}\\\\t = 9.81 \times 10^{-5} \ s[/tex]

Therefore, the period the field must be reduced to zero is 9.81 x 10⁻⁵ s

Answer:

To find out the number of atoms: MULTIPLY all the SUBSCRIPTS in the molecule by the COEFFICIENT. (This will give you the number of atoms of each element.)

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:before the phase change the substance is a particle.

Answer:

a. 1.56 × 10¹⁸ electrons per second

b. The electrons in wire 3 flow into the junction.

Explanation:

Here is the complete question

Three wires meet at a junction. Wire 1 has a current of 0.40 A into the junction. The current of wire 2 is 0.65 A out of the junction. (a) How many electrons per second move past a point in wire 3? (b) In which direction do the electrons move in wire 3 -- into or out of the junction?

Solution

(a) How many electrons per second move past a point in wire 3?

Using Kirchhoff's current law, at the junction, i₁ + i₂ + i₃ = 0 where i₁ = current in wire 1 = 0.40 A, i₂ = current in wire 2 = 0.65 A and  i₃ = = current in wire 3,

So, i₃ = -(i₁ + i₂)

taking current flowing into the junction as positive and those leaving as negative, i₁ = + 0.40 A and i₂ = -0.65 A

So, i₃ = -(i₁ + i₂)

i₃ = -(0.40 A + (-0.65 A))

i₃ = -(0.40 A - 0.65 A)

i₃ = -(-0.25 A)

i₃ = 0.25 A

Since i₃ = 0.25 C/s and we have e = 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C per electron, then the number of electrons flowing in wire 3 per second is i₃/e = 0.25 C/s ÷ 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C per electron = 0.1561  × 10¹⁹ electrons per second = 1.561  × 10¹⁸ electrons per second ≅ 1.56 × 10¹⁸ electrons per second

(b) In which direction do the electrons move -- into or out of the junction?

Given that i₃ = + 0.25 A and that positive flows into the junction, thus, the electrons in wire 3 flow into the junction.

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

Assume that the energy lost was entirely due to friction and that the total length of the PVC pipe is 1 meter. Use this length to compute the average force of friction (for this calculation, you may neglect uncertainties).

Mass of the ball :  16.3 g

Predicted range :  0.3503 m

Actual range : 1.09 m

Solution :

Given that :

The predicted range is 0.3503 m

Time of the fall is :

[tex]$t=\sqrt{\frac{2H}{g}}$[/tex]

[tex]v_1t= 0.35[/tex]  ...........(i)

[tex]v_0t= 1.09[/tex]  ...........(ii)

Dividing the equation (ii) by (i)

[tex]$\frac{v_0t}{v_1t}=\frac{1.09}{035} = 3.11$[/tex]

∴ [tex]v_0=3.11 \ v_1[/tex]

Now loss of energy  = change in the kinetic energy

[tex]$W=\frac{1}{2} m [v_0^2-v_1^2]$[/tex]

[tex]$W=\frac{1}{2} \times (16.3 \times 10^{-3}) \times [v_0^2-\left(\frac{v_0}{3.11}\right)^2]$[/tex]

[tex]$W=7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

If f is average friction force, then

(f)(L) = W

(f) (1) = [tex]$7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

(f)  = [tex]$7.307\times 10^{-3} \ v_0^2$[/tex]

The Average force of friction is ( F )  = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Given data:

Predicted range ( v₁t ) = 0.3503 m

Actual range ( v₀t ) = 1.09 m

mass = 16.3 g

First step : Determine the value of  V₀

[tex]t = \sqrt{\frac{2H}{g} }[/tex]    ,    v₁t  =  0.3503 ,    ( v₀t ) = 1.09 m

To obtain the value of  V₀  

Divide ( v₀t ) by ( v₁t )  =  1.09 / 0.3503 = 3.11 v₁

∴ V₀ = 3.11 v₁

Next step : Determine the average force of friction ( f )

given that loss of energy results in a change in kinetic energy

W = [tex]\frac{1}{2} m ( vo^{2} - v1^{2} )[/tex]

    = 1/2 * 16.3 * 10⁻³ * [ v₀² - [tex](\frac{v_{0} }{3.11} )^{2}[/tex] ]

∴ W = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Average force of friction = W / Actual length

                                         = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀² / 1  

∴ Average force of friction ( F )  = 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Hence we can conclude that the average force of friction is 7.307 * 10⁻³ v₀²

Learn more about average force of friction : https://brainly.com/question/16207943

Your question has some missing data below are the missing data related to your question

Mass of the ball :  16.3 g

Predicted range :  0.3503 m

Actual range : 1.09 m

Answer:

the answer is option B because opposit sides of the magnets attract each other

Answer:

For (a): The chemical shift is [tex]2.08\delta[/tex]

For (b): The chemical shift is [tex]9.85\delta[/tex]

For (c): The chemical shift is [tex]7.5\delta[/tex]

Explanation:

To calculate the chemical shift, we use the equation:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{\text{Peak position (in Hz)}}{\text{Spectrometer frequency (in MHz)}}[/tex]

Given value of spectrometer frequency = 200 MHz

Given peak position = 416 Hz

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{416Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=2.08\delta[/tex]

Given peak position = [tex]1.97\times 10^3 Hz[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{1.97\times 10^3Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=9.85\delta[/tex]

Given peak position = [tex]1.50\times 10^3 Hz[/tex]

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=\frac{1.50\times 10^3Hz}{200MHz}\\\\\text{Chemical shift in ppm}=7.5\delta[/tex]