13. Find the smallest number which when divided by 21,28,36 and 44 leaves a
remainder of 3 in each case?

Answer: a = 52/7

Step-by-step explanation:

remove the parentheses, move the constant to the right, calculate, then divide both sides

Answer:

The answer is, a = 52/7, or a = 7.42 in decimal form

Follow the steps below for better explanation:

Answer: Please refer to:

- A force is a push or pull upon an object resulting from the object's interaction with another object. Whenever there is an interaction between two objects, there is a force upon each of the objects. ... Forces only exist as a result of an interaction.

- Force is a vector quantity, with both direction and magnitude. It is defined as Mass x Acceleration = Force.

   + The SI unit of force is the newton (N); defined as the unit of force which would give to a mass of one kilogram an acceleration of 1 meter per second squared.

-   two effects of force​:

  +  It can change the state of movement of the body on which force is applied, i.e. it can move a stationary object or stop a moving object.

  +  It can change the shape and size of an object.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not sure but hope it helps.

the average time of each runner is 12.36

Answer:

12.36 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

Total time = 49.44 seconds

Students = 4

Average = 49.44/4 = 12.36 seconds

Answered by GAUTHMATH

Step-by-step explanation:

Ru Tu yulyryosuyyyhlsgjpcbmb kvjvlcykxnlvdlbvhck

chgkbhlxyovk m.

chchhlzixhvkh

We can conclude that if (c, f(c)) is a point of inflection of the graph of f and f'' exists in an open interval that contains c, then f''(c)=0.

The process of finding derivatives of a function is called differentiation in calculus. A derivative is the rate of change of a function with respect to another quantity.

We can prove this statement using the First Derivative Test and Fermat's Theorem.

First, we know from the First Derivative Test that at a point of inflection, the first derivative of the function (in this case, f') must equal 0. Therefore, at the point (c, f(c)), f'(c) = 0.

Next, we can apply Fermat's Theorem. This theorem states that if a function f has a local maximum or minimum at c, then f'(c) = 0. Since the point (c, f(c)) is a point of inflection, we can apply Fermat's Theorem to say that f'(c) = 0.

Now, since f'' exists in an open interval that contains c, we can use the fact that if f'(c) = 0, then f''(c) = 0.

Therefore, we can conclude that if (c, f(c)) is a point of inflection of the graph of f and f'' exists in an open interval that contains c, then f''(c)=0.

To learn more about the differentiation of an equations visit:

https://brainly.com/question/25731911.

#SPJ2

what

Step-by-step explanation:

pretty sure its 25 percent

Answer:

25%

Step-by-step explanation:

if you take half of 50 it is 25 so all of it is used or 25%

Hope this helps <3 Comment if you want more thanks and be sure to give brainliest (4 left) <3

[tex]\huge\text{Hey there!}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{\dfrac{9}{10}+\dfrac{7}{15}}[/tex]

[tex]\large\textsf{FIRST: FIND the LCD (Lowest Common Denominator) then solve}\\\large\textsf{from there!}[/tex]

[tex]\large\textsf{If you have calculated it correctly, you should have came up with \underline{\bf 30}}\\\large\textsf{as your LCD (Lowest Common Denominator).}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{= \dfrac{9\times3}{10\times3}+ \dfrac{7\times2}{15\times2}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{9\times3=\bf 27}\\\mathsf{10\times3=\bf 30}\\\\\mathsf{7\times2=\bf 14}\\\mathsf{15\times2=\bf 30}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{= \dfrac{27}{30}+\dfrac{14}{30}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{= \dfrac{27+14}{30}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{27+ 14=\bf 41}\\\\\mathsf{30+0=\bf 30}[/tex]

[tex]\mathsf{= \dfrac{41}{30}}\large\textsf{ which you could convert to }\mathsf{1 \dfrac{11}{30}}[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{\boxed{\large\textsf{ANSWER: }\bf \dfrac{41}{30} \large\textsf{ or }\mathsf{\bf 1 \dfrac{11}{30}\large\textsf{ because they both equal the same thing}}}}}\huge\checkmark[/tex]

[tex]\large\text{Good luck on your assignment and enjoy your day!}[/tex]

~[tex]\frak{Amphitrite1040:)}[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

2/5x-8/5y+x+½y

2/5(1)-8/5(-6)+1+½(-6)

2/5+48/5+1-3

10-2

8

Answer:

i dont know lol

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

.

The number of planes that can be drawn that pass through point A is 1.

A perpendicular line creates an angle of 90° with a line or a plane. If a line exists to be drawn from a point to a line or a plane it can only be one. In this case, a line exists to be drawn through a point A to a plane P. If the line stands to be perpendicular, then it exists only one.

Therefore, the correct answer is option D. 1.

To learn more about points on a plane refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/10680920

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Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the the identities of the survey takers were kept secret, it would be anonymous. If it wasn't anonymous, then people would know who took the survey.

Since the survey results were released online for analyses, it is not confidential. If it were to be confidential, then the survey distributors would have kept the results to themseles.

Answer:

Hello,

Answer

[tex]\sigma=457,95...[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

p(z<a)=0.9

p(z<1.29)=0.9015

p(z<1.28)=0.8997

using linear interpolation: with 4 decimals

p(z<1.282)<0.9

[tex]\dfrac{1628-1500}{\sigma} =1.282\\\\\sigma =\dfrac{1628-1500}{1.282}\\\\\sigma=457,95...\\[/tex]

HOPE SO IT HELPS YOU

Answer:

Isosceles.

Step-by-step explanation:

It's an isosceles triangle because 2 sides  are congruent ( 2 are 23 yds long).

Answer:

what this makes bi sense haha

Step-by-step explanation:

but ok

Answer:

Since [tex]n(1-p) = 3.72 < 10[/tex], the normal curve cannot be used as an approximation to the binomial probability.

100% probability that greater than 26 out of 124 software users will call technical support.

Step-by-step explanation:

Test if the normal curve can be used as an approximation to the binomial probability by verifying the necessary conditions.

It is needed that:

[tex]np \geq 10[/tex] and [tex]n(1-p) \geq 10[/tex]

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that [tex]\mu = E(X)[/tex], [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}[/tex].

Out of 124 software users

This means that [tex]n = 124[/tex]

Assume the probability that a given software user will call technical support is 97%.

This means that [tex]p = 0.97[/tex]

Conditions:

[tex]np = 124*0.97 = 120.28 \geq 10[/tex]

[tex]n(1-p) = 124*0.03 = 3.72 < 10[/tex]

Since [tex]n(1-p) = 3.72 < 10[/tex], the normal curve cannot be used as an approximation to the binomial probability.

Consider the probability that greater than 26 out of 124 software users will call technical support.

The lowest possible probability of those is 27, so, if it is 0, since it is considerably below the mean, 100% probability of being greater. We have that:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 27) = C_{124,27}.(0.97)^{27}.(0.03)^{97} = 0[/tex]

1 - 0 = 1

100% probability that greater than 26 out of 124 software users will call technical support.

Answer:

answer is 0.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

15 more were sold on friday then thursday

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17 don't play any

Step-by-step explanation:

12+9+8+4=33

33-50=17

Step-by-step explanation:

KI=yf/p+n + yr/u

(p+n) KI - yrp/u -yrn/u = yf

pKI - yrp/u = yf - nKI + yrn/u

p(KI - yr/u) = yf - nKI + yrn/u

p = (1/KI-yr/u)(yf-nKI+yrn/u)

Answer:

https://linksharing.samsungcloud.com/ul5cX9oOmhzt

Answer:

8:6

or

4:3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

new length=15+x

width=19+x

then area=(15+x)×(19+x)=285+15x+19x+x²=x²+34x+285 ft²

original area=15×19=285 ft²

then 285+98=x²+34x+285

or

x²+34x-98=0

x²+34x+17²=98+17²

(x+17)²=98+289=387

x+17=√387=3√43

x=3√43-17 ft

I think its C: 2 hours. sry if its wrong

Answer:

I don't know ans OK bro because I can't understand your language what are you writing

Answer:

it is important because the number of people who are infected by the disease is rising

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

6×1 = 6

7×10 = 70

14×100 = 1400

6+70+1400 = 1476

Answer:

1,476

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps you out! (please give me brainliest)

Hi there!  

»»————-　★　————-««

I believe your answer is:  

(6, -4)

[tex]x = 6[/tex]

»»————-　★　————-««  

Here’s why:  

⸻⸻⸻⸻

⸻⸻⸻⸻

[tex]\rightarrow 6x + 7(-4) =4x + 4(-4)\\\\\rightarrow 6x - 28 = 4x - 16\\\\\rightarrow 6x - 28 + 28 = 4x - 16 + 28\\\\\rightarrow 6x = 4x + 12\\\\\rightarrow 6x - 4x = 4x - 4x + 12\\\\\rightarrow 2x = 12\\\\\rightarrow \frac{2x=12}{2}\\\\\rightarrow \boxed{x = 6}[/tex]

⸻⸻⸻⸻

The '6' would replace the question mark.

»»————-　★　————-««  

Hope this helps you. I apologize if it’s incorrect.  

The answer is the first choice. If every 2 cm. is 4 cm., that means that the dimensions' values are doubled. Then, you can just double the dimensions. Preferably, in my opinion, this is the easier way to go. By your preference, though, you can do it the longer way as well.

There are 4 2s in the number 8.

There are 3 2s in the number 6.

If each of the 2s are 4s,

So, therefore,

Transforming the 2s to 4s,

4x4=16 cm.

3x4=12 cm.

So, this means that the final answer is the first choice. I hoped that this helped  answer your question. Enjoy your day, and take care!

Answer:

`Length=16 feet, width=12 feet

Image result for how to  use scale model step by step'

Divide the real life dimension of either length or width by that of the model. So the real life object had a length of 32m, and the model had a length of 8, then do 8(4). This is equal to 32, then divide by 2.

Hope this helps love <3

Answer:

30 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the Tan formula.