A bowling ball is pushed with a force of 22.0 N and accelerates at 5.5 m/s2. What is the mass of the bowling ball?

Answer:

Yes but no

Explanation:

Here the kid cant say that he has created s magnetic field as iron fillings do not have magnetic properties

Answer:

The mass of platinum iridium rod whose diameter and height are equal an kept at international bureau of weight and measurement in Paris of France is called as one standard kg.

Answer:

1. The efficiency of the radiator is 90 %

2. The efficiency of the torch is 65 %

3. The efficiency of the car is 40 %

4. The efficiency of the energy saver is 70 %

5. The efficiency of the speaker is 50 %

Explanation:

Efficiency = (Useful energy out ÷ Total energy in) × 100 J

1. Useful energy = 900 J

The total energy in = 1000 J

The efficiency of the radiator = ((900 J)/(1,000 J)) × 100 % = 90 %

2. Useful energy = 65 J

The total energy in = 100 J

The efficiency of the torch = ((65 J)/(100 J)) × 100 % = 65 %

3. Useful energy = 4,000 J

The total energy in = 10,000 J

The efficiency of the car = ((4,000 J)/(10,000 J)) × 100 % = 40 %

4. Useful energy = 700 J

The total energy in = 1,000 J

The efficiency of the energy saver = ((700 J)/(1,000 J)) × 100 % = 70 %

5. Useful energy = 50 J

The total energy in = 100 J

The efficiency of the speaker = ((50 J)/(100 J)) × 100 % = 50 %

Answer:

given,

load = 400 N

effort = 100 N

load distance = 20 cm

we know that ,

E*Ed = L*Ld

=100 N* Ed = 400N * 20 cm

=100N * Ed = 8000N/cm

= Ed =( 8000N/cm ) / 100N

= Ed = 80 cm

b. soln.

given,

load = 600 N

load distance = 2 m

effort = 300 N

effort distance = ?

we know that ,

= E *Ed = L * Ld

= 300N * Ed = 600N * 2 m

= 300N * Ed = 1200N/m

=Ed =( 1200N/m ) / 300 N

= Ed = 4 m

C. soln.

given,

load = 600 N

load distance =20 cm

effort = 200 N

effort distance = ?

M.A = ?

V.R = ?

Efficiency = ?

we know that ,

= E *Ed = L *Ld

= 200N * Ed = 600 N * 20 cm

=200 N *Ed = 12000 N/cm

=Ed = ( 12000 N/cm) / 200 N

= Ed = 60 cm

Also,

M.A = load / effort

=600 N / 200 N

= 3

V.R = Ed/ Ld

= 60 cm / 20 cm

= 4

efficiency = ( M.A / V.R ) 100 %

= ( 3 / 4 ) 100%

= 75 %

d. soln.

given,

load = 600 N

load distance = 0.5 m

effort distance = 2.5 m

effort = ?

we know that ,

= E * Ed = L * Ld

= E * 2.5 m = 600 N * 0.5 m

= E * 2.5 m = 300 N / m

= E = ( 300 N / m ) / 2.5 m

= E = 120 N

Answer:

a. Energy lost, Q = 16,800 Joules.

b. Power = 28 J/s

c. Time, t = 2357.14 seconds

d. I assumed that the ice remained at a temperature of zero degrees Celsius (0°C). Also, I assumed that the heat is being lost at a constant rate.

Explanation:

Given the following data;

a. To find the energy lost by the water as it cools to 0 degree celsius;

Mathematically, heat capacity is given by the formula;

[tex] Q = mcdt [/tex]

Where;

dt = T2 - T1

dt = 20 - 0

dt = 20°C

We know that the specific heat capacity of water is equal to  4200 J/kg°C

Substituting the values into the formula, we have;

[tex] Q = 0.20 * 4200 * 20 [/tex]

Energy lost, Q = 16,800 Joules.

b. To find the average rate at which the water is losing energy in J/s by using the following formula;

[tex] Power = \frac {energy}{time} [/tex]

First of all, we would have to convert the value of time in minutes to seconds.

Conversion:

1 minute = 60 seconds

10 minutes = X seconds

Cross-multiplying, we have;

X = 60 * 10

X = 600 seconds

Substituting the values into the formula, we have;

[tex] Power = \frac {16800}{600} [/tex]

Power = 28 J/s

c. To estimate the time taken for the water at 0 degree celsius to turn completely into ice;

We know that the latent heat of fusion of water is equal to 3.3 * 10⁵ J/kg.

Mathematically, the latent heat of fusion is calculated by using the formula;

Energy, Q = ml = pt

Substituting the values into the formula, we have;

0.20 * 3.3 * 10⁵ = 28 * t

0.20 * 330000 = 28t

66000 = 28t

[tex] t = \frac {66000}{28} [/tex]

Time, t = 2357.14 seconds.

d. The assumption made is that, the ice remained at a temperature of zero degrees Celsius (0°C). Also, I assumed that the heat is being lost at a constant rate.

Answer:

The number of turns in the solenoid is 19506.

Explanation:

Length of solenoid, L = 0.28 m

Magnetic field, B = 7 T

Current, I = 80 A

Let the number of turns is N.

The formula used to find the magnetic field is

[tex]B = \frac{\mu 0N I}{L}\\\\7 = \frac{4 \times 3.14\times 10^{-7}\times N\times 80}{0.28}\\\\N = 19506[/tex]

Answer:

658.2 nm

Explanation:

Since the galaxy is moving at relavitistic speed, we use the equation for relativistic Doppler shift of light.

So, the wavelength of light observed on the Earth is λ

λ = λ'([tex]\sqrt{\frac{ 1 + \frac{v}{c} }{1 - \frac{v}{c} } }[/tex])

where  λ' = wavelength of light emitted by galaxy = 656 nm, v = speed of galaxy = 1000 km/s (positive since the galaxy is moving away from the Earth) and c = speed of light = 300000 km/s

So, substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

λ = λ'(√[{1 + (v/c)}/(1 - (v/c)]

λ = 656 nm(√[{1 + (1000 km/s/300000 km/s)}/(1 - (1000 km/s/300000 km/s)]

λ = 656 nm(√[{1 + 1/300}/(1 - 1/300]

λ = 656 nm(√[{(300 + 1)/300}/{(300 - 1)/300}]

λ = 656 nm(√[{(301)/300}/{(299)/300}]

λ = 656 nm(√[301/299])

λ = 656 nm(√1.0067)

λ = 656 nm × 1.0033

λ = 658.19 nm

λ ≅ 658.2 nm

So, the wavelength observed on Earth is 658.2 nm

here's the answer to your question

Answer:

136 m.

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Time (t) = 0.80 s

Speed of sound (v) = 340 m/s

Distance (x) =?

The distance of the player from the wall can be obtained as follow:

v = 2x / t

340 = 2x / 0.80

Cross multiply

2x = 340 × 0.80

2x = 272

Divide both side by 2

x = 272 / 2

x = 136 m

Thus, the distance of the player from the wall is 136 m

Answer:

235.6m/s

Explanation:

you have to use one of the kinematic formulas the best that suits the question given in this case you can use v=u+at.since the time, acceleration and initial velocity have been given in the question

v=116+(9.2)13^2

v=116+119.6

=235.6m/s

I hope this helps

Work = force x distance

Work = 5500 x 1.8

Work = 9900 N

The work measure of energy transfer that occurs when an object is moved over a distance by an external force at least part of which is applied in the direction of the displacement.

Work = force x distance

Work = 5500 x 1.8

Work = 9900 N

therefore, work does 9900 N

Work is force applied over distance. Examples of work include lifting an object against the Earth's gravitation, driving a car up a hill, and pulling down a captive helium balloon. Work is a mechanical manifestation of energy. The standard unit of work is the joule (J), equivalent to a newton - meter (N · m).

Work is defined as transferring energy into an object so that there is some displacement. Energy is defined as the ability to do work. Work done is always the same. Energy can be of different types such as kinetic and potential energy.

To learn more about work, refer

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Answer:

1.12 × 10⁴ m/s

Explanation:

The escape velocity of the object v = √(2GM/R) where G = gravitational constant = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg², M = mass of the Earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg and R = radius of the Earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m

Since v = √(2GM/R)

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

v = √(2GM/R)

v = √(2 × 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² × 6 × 10²⁴ kg/6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(13.34 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² × 6 × 10²⁴ kg/6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(80.04 × 10⁻¹¹ × 10²⁴Nm²/kg/6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(80.04 × 10¹³Nm²/kg ÷ 6.4 × 10⁶ m)

v = √(80.04 ÷ 6.4 × 10¹³ ÷ 10⁶Nm/kg)

v = √(12.50625 × 10⁷ Nm/kg)

v = √(125.0625 × 10⁶ Nm/kg)

v = 11.18 × 10³ m/s

v = 1.118 × 10 × 10³ m/s

v = 1.118 × 10⁴ m/s

v ≅ 1.12 × 10⁴ m/s

Answer:

smoke particles move in brownian motion (zig -zag motion ) .

Explanation:

this is because air molecules collide against smoke particles hence they attain kinetic energy which keeps them in continuous motion .

The motion of the smoke particles is Brownian motion that is the zigzag motion of the particles that particles move in a random direction.

In chemistry, the term "Brownian Movement" refers to the random zigzagging motion of a particle that is typically seen under a high power ultra-microscope. The term "Brownian movement" refers to the exact motion of pollen grains in water, as described by Robert Brown.

More crucially, Albert Einstein eventually clarified the Brownian movement in his study by claiming that water molecules were responsible for moving the pollen. This discovery provided compelling proof that atoms and molecules exist.

According to the question, the reason is that air molecules collide against smoke particles, hence the particles get kinetic energy which keeps them in continuous motion or in zigzag motion.

To get more information about Brownian Movement :

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Answer:

Velocity is the rate of change of position with respect to time, whereas acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Both are vector quantities (and so also have a specified direction), but the units of velocity are meters per second while the units of acceleration are meters per second squared.

Let F₁ and F₂ denote the two forces, and R the resultant force.

F₁ and F₂ point perpendicularly to one another, so their dot product is

F₁ • F₂ = 0

We're given that one of these vectors, say F₁, makes an angle with R of 30°, so that

F₁ • R = ||F₁|| ||R|| cos(30°)

But we also have

F₁ • R = F₁ • (F₁ + F₂) = (F₁ • F₁) + (F₁ • F₂) = F₁ • F₁ = ||F₁||²

So, knowing that ||R|| = 100 N, we get that

(100 N) ||F₁|| cos(30°) = ||F₁||²

(100 N) cos(30°) = ||F₁||

||F₁|| ≈ 86.6 N

(And the same would be true for F₂.)

Answer:

Obeying to weights & measurement regulations in both national and international metrology legislation, standards and test procedures is a requirement to participate in any market because it's aimed to safeguard the consumers and promote fair competition, which provides efficiency and saves unnecessary costs to U.S. businesses and stakeholders.

Explanation:

In the U.S., the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) has an Office of Weights and Measures (OWM) that represents the country in the International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML)

Answer:

displacement=specific distance

*Velocity=∆displacement/time

*acceleration=∆velocity/time

Answer:

3.14*1²

3.14 cm²

I hope this will help

Answer:

3.14 cm squared

Explanation:

I hope this will help.

Answer:

H + H ------> He + energy. He + He -----> H + H + He.

Explanation:

Hydrogen having one proton and no neutron fuse with hydrogen having one proton and one neutron forming helium atom with the release of photon. After that two helium atoms combine together forming two hydrogen atoms having one proton each whereas one helium atom having two protons and two neutrons present in their nucleus so the end product of this reaction is hydrogen atoms and helium.

Answer:

B

Explanation:

the Halogen families have 7 valence electrons

Answer:

Given information:-

[tex]\clubsuit[/tex]The displacement of the cyclist will be shortest distance from his initial to final positions which is nothing but diameter of the circle = 2r

We know that,

[tex] \underline{ \boxed{ \sf{Speed = \frac{Distance \: covered }{Time \: taken}}}}[/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \sf{\frac{636 \times 3.14 m}{90s}} \\ \\ \longrightarrow \sf22.18 m/s[/tex]

[tex]\sf{Velocity = \frac{Displacement }{ Time} }[/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \sf{ \frac{2 \times 636m}{90s} } \\ \\ \longrightarrow \sf{14.13 \: m/s}[/tex]

Thank You :)

Answer:

[tex]{ \bf{false}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Because it breaks the law of moments.

Answer:

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Answer:

Distancia, D = 170,000 metros

Explanation:

Dados los siguientes datos;

Para encontrar la distancia recorrida, en metros;

Matemáticamente, la distancia recorrida por un objeto se calcula mediante la fórmula;

Distancia = velocidad * tiempo

Sustituyendo los valores en la fórmula, tenemos;

Distancia = 85 * 2

Distancia = 170 kilómetros

A continuación, convertiríamos el valor en kilómetros a metros;

Conversión:

1 kilómetros = 1000 metros

170 kilómetros = D metros

Multiplicación cruzada, tenemos;

D = 170 * 1000

D = 170,000 metros

Por lo tanto, habría viajado 170,000 metros después de 2 horas.

Answer:

301.6 N

Explanation:

The length of the wire L₀ = 8 m and its diameter, d = 4 mm = 4 × 10⁻³ m. Since its temperature drops by  10°C, it will have a change in length ΔL = L₀αΔθ where α = linear expansivity of steel, a 12 × 10⁻⁶ /K, and Δθ = temperature change = -10°C = -10 K(negative since it is a drop)

So, the strain, ε = ΔL/L₀ = αΔθ = 12 × 10⁻⁶ /K × 10 K = 12 × 10⁻⁵

Now the Young's modulus of steel, Y = σ/ε where σ = stress = T/A where T = increase in tension in steel wire and A = cross-sectional area of wire = πd²/4 where d = diameter of wire = 4 × 10⁻³ m and ε = strain = 12 × 10⁻⁵

So, σ = Yε

Since Y = 2 × 10¹¹ N/m².

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

σ = Yε

σ = 2 × 10¹¹ N/m² × 12 × 10⁻⁵

σ = 24 × 10⁶ N/m²

Since σ = T/A

T = σA

T = σπd²/4

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

T = σπd²/4

T = 24 × 10⁶ N/m² × π × (4 × 10⁻³ m)²/4

T = 24 × 10⁶ N/m² × π × 16 × 10⁻⁶ m²/4

T = 24 × 10⁶ N/m² × π × 4 × 10⁻⁶ m²

T = 96 N × π

T = 301.59 N

T ≅ 301.6 N

So, the increase in tension in the steel wire is 301.6 N

Answer:

he will be in profit

Explanation:

Himalayan region are high above the sea level so the gravity will be less there compared to the Terai region

Terai lies way below he Himalayan region so the pull of gravity will be more compared to Himalayan region

that's why he will be in profit but not loss