A lamp has the shape of a parabola when viewed from the side. The lamp is centimeters wide and centimeters deep. How far is the light source from the bottom of the lamp if the light source is placed at the focus

Answer:

129900

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of the particle, m = 1 g = 1*10^-3 kg

Speed of the particle, u = ½c

Speed of light, c = 3*10^8

To solve this, we will use the formula

p = ymu, where

y = √[1 - (u²/c²)]

Let's solve for y, first. We have

y = √[1 - (1.5*10^8²/3*10^8²)]

y = √(1 - ½²)

y = √(1 - ¼)

y = √0.75

y = 0.8660, using our newly gotten y, we use it to solve the final equation

p = ymu

p = 0.866 * 1*10^-3 * 1.5*10^8

p = 129900 kgm/s

thus, we have found that the momentum of the particle is 129900 kgm/s

Answer:

The projectile strikes the tower at a height of 354.824 meters.

Explanation:

The projectile experiments a parabolic motion, which consist of a horizontal motion at constant speed and a vertical uniformly accelerated motion due to gravity. The equations of motion are, respectively:

Horizontal motion

[tex]x = x_{o}+v_{o}\cdot t \cdot \cos \theta[/tex]

Vertical motion

[tex]y = y_{o} + v_{o}\cdot t \cdot \sin \theta +\frac{1}{2} \cdot g \cdot t^{2}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]x_{o}[/tex], [tex]x[/tex] - Initial and current horizontal position, measured in meters.

[tex]y_{o}[/tex], [tex]y[/tex] - Initial and current vertical position, measured in meters.

[tex]v_{o}[/tex] - Initial speed, measured in meters per second.

[tex]g[/tex] - Gravitational acceleration, measured in meters per square second.

[tex]t[/tex] - Time, measured in seconds.

The time spent for the projectile to strike the tower is obtained from first equation:

[tex]t = \frac{x-x_{o}}{v_{o}\cdot \cos \theta}[/tex]

If [tex]x = 600\,m[/tex], [tex]x_{o} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]v_{o} = 120\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex] and [tex]\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}[/tex], then:

[tex]t = \frac{600\,m-0\,m}{\left(120\,\frac{m}{s} \right)\cdot \cos \frac{\pi}{4} }[/tex]

[tex]t \approx 7.071\,s[/tex]

Now, the height at which the projectile strikes the tower is: ([tex]y_{o} = 0\,m[/tex], [tex]t \approx 7.071\,s[/tex], [tex]v_{o} = 120\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex] and [tex]g = -9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex])

[tex]y = 0\,m + \left(120\,\frac{m}{s} \right)\cdot (7.071\,s)\cdot \sin \frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(-9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right) \cdot (7.071\,s)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]y \approx 354.824\,m[/tex]

The projectile strikes the tower at a height of 354.824 meters.

Answer:

ΔL = 0.66 m

Explanation:

The change in length on an object due to rise in temperature is given by the following equation of linear thermal expansion:

ΔL = αLΔT

where,

ΔL = Change in Length of the bridge = ?

α = Coefficient of linear thermal expansion = 11 x 10⁻⁶ °C⁻¹

L = Original Length of the Bridge = 1000 m

ΔT = Change in Temperature =  Final Temperature - Initial Temperature

ΔT = 40°C - (-20°C) = 60°C

Therefore,

ΔL = (11 x 10⁻⁶ °C⁻¹)(1000 m)(60°C)

ΔL = 0.66 m

Answer:

Option (c)

Explanation:

In a Series circuit, as the components are connected end-to-end ,the current can flow through only one path from start to finish.

(C.) is the only correct statement in the list of choices.

In a series circuit, the current can flow through only one path from start to finish.

Answer:

Hey there!

This can be a confusing topic, so it's totally fine if you get confused...

First, Seismic Attenuation is how seismic waves lose energy as they expand and spread.

Secondly, when distance increases, amplitude decreases. This is because the distance (spherical spreading would mean radius) is inversely proportional to amplitude.

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer:

N2 = ¼N1

Explanation:

First of all, let's define the terms;

N1 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius R

N2 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius 2R

Q = the charge enclosed at the centre of concentric spheres

ε_o = a constant known as "permittivity of the free space"

E1 = Electric field in the sphere of radius R.

E2 = Electric field in the sphere of radius 2R.

A1 = Area of sphere of radius R.

A2 = Area of sphere of radius 2R

Now, from Gauss's law, the electric flux through the sphere of radius R is given by;

Φ = Q/ε_o

We also know that;

Φ = EA

Thus;

E1 × A1 = Q/ε_o

E1 = Q/(ε_o × A1)

Where A1 = 4πR²

E1 = Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Similarly, for the sphere of radius 2R,we have;

E2 = Q/(ε_o × 4π(2R)²)

Factorizing out to get;

E2 = ¼Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Comparing E2 with E1, we arrive at;

E2 = ¼E1

Now, due to the number of lines is proportional to the electric field in the each spheres, we can now write;

N2 = ¼N1

Answer:

Time taken for 1 swing = 3.81 second

Explanation:

Given:

Time taken for 1 swing = 2.20 Sec

Find:

Time taken for 1 swing , when triple the length(T2)

Computation:

Time taken for 1 swing = 2π[√l/g]

2.20 = 2π[√l/g].......Eq1

Time taken for 1 swing , when triple the length (3L)

Time taken for 1 swing = 2π[√3l/g].......Eq2

Squaring and dividing the eq(1) by (2)

4.84 / T2² = 1 / 3

T2 = 3.81 second

Time taken for 1 swing = 3.81 second

Answer:

Explanation:

Current produced by the solar cells of the pocket calculator is expressed using the formula I = Q/t where;

Q is the charge (in Columbs)

t is the time (in seconds)

Given parameters

Q = 4.2C

t = 2.7 hrs

t = 2.7*60*60

t = 9720 seconds

Required

Current produced by the solar cell I

Substituting the given values into the formula;

I = 4.2/9720

I = 0.000432A

I = 0.432mA

Hence, the current in milliamperes produced by the solar cells of a pocket calculator is 0.432mA

Answer:

There is no induced current on the coil.

Explanation:

Current is induced in a coil or a circuit, when there is a break of flux linkage. A break in flux linkage is caused by a changing magnetic field, and must be achieved by a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. Holding the magnet above the center of the coil will cause no changing magnetic filed since there is no relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Answer:

y is doubled

Explanation:

If x is halved, that means the value is doubled. Here is an exmaple:

y=1/2. If the denominater is doubled, y would equal y=1/1. So, the value of y has doubled from 0.5 to 1. Therefore, if the denominator is halved, the solution will be doubled.

Answer:

1. Elastic collision

2. Inelastic collision    

Explanation:

Elastic collision: collision is said to be elastic if total kinetic energy is not conserved and if there is a rebound after collision

the collision is described by the equation bellow

[tex]m1U1+ m2U2= m1V1+m2V2[/tex]

Inelastic collision: this type of collision occurs when the total kinetic energy of a body is conserved or when the bodies sticks together and move with a common velocity

the collision is described by the equation bellow

[tex]m1U1+ m2U2= V(m1+m2)[/tex]

Answer:

(a) nearsighted

(b) diverging

(c) the lens strength in diopters is 1.33 D, and considering the convention for divergent lenses normally prescribed as: -1 33 D

Explanation:

(a) The person is nearsighted because he/she cannot see objects at distances larger than 75 cm.

(b) the type of correcting lens has to be such that it counteracts the excessive converging power of the eye of the person, so the lens has to be diverging (which by the way carries by convention a negative focal length)

(c) the absolute value of the focal length (f) is given by the formula:

[tex]f=\frac{1}{d} =\frac{1}{0.75} = 1.33\,D[/tex]

So it would normally be written with a negative signs in front indicating a divergent lens.

Answer:

v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

Explanation:

We know that the force on the loop is F = BIL where B = magnetic field strength, I = current and L = length of side of loop. Now the current in the loop I = ε/R where ε = induced e.m.f in the loop = BLv₀ where v₀ = velocity of loop and r = resistance of loop

F = BIL = B(BLv₀)L/R = B²L²v₀/R  

Since F = ma where a = acceleration of loop and m = mass of loop

a = F/m = B²L²v₀/mR

Using v = u + at where u = initial velocity of loop = v₀, t = time after t = 0 and v = velocity of loop after time t = 0

Substituting the value of a and u into v, we have

v = v₀ + B²L²v₀t/mR

= v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

So the velocity of the loop after time t is v = v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

The expression for the loop's velocity as a function of time as it enters the magnetic field is v = v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR).

As we know that

Force on the loop

F = BIL

here

B = magnetic field strength,

I = current

and L = length of side of loop.

Now

the current in the loop I = ε/R

where

ε = induced e.m.f in the loop = BLv₀

where v₀ = velocity of loop

and r = resistance of loop

So,

F = BIL = B(BLv₀)L/R = B²L²v₀/R  

Also, F = ma where a = acceleration of loop and m = mass of loop

Now

a = F/m = B²L²v₀/mR

We have to use

v = u + at

where

u = initial velocity of loop = v₀,

t = time after t = 0

and v = velocity of loop after time t = 0

So, it be like

v = v₀ + B²L²v₀t/mR

= v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

Learn more about velocity here: https://brainly.com/question/332163

Answer:

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The radius is  [tex]r = 1.4 \ mm = 1.4 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

     The  current is  [tex]I = 4.5 \ A[/tex]

Generally the electric field is mathematically represented as

         [tex]E = \frac{J}{\sigma }[/tex]

Where [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the conductivity of  aluminum with value [tex]\sigma = 3.5 *10^{7} \ s/m[/tex]

J is the current density which mathematically represented as  

      [tex]J = \frac{I}{A}[/tex]

Here A is the cross-sectional area which is mathematically represented as  

       [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 3.142 * (1.4*10^{-3})^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 6.158*10^{-6} \ m^2[/tex]

So

    [tex]J = \frac{ 4.5 }{6.158*10^{-6}}[/tex]

    [tex]J = 730757 A/m^2[/tex]

So

       [tex]E = \frac{ 730757}{3.5*10^{7} }[/tex]

       [tex]E = 0.021 \ N/C[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that

Effort = 40N

Load = 16ON

M.A = load/effort

M.A= 160N/40N

M.A = 4

Velocity ratio = V.R =radius of the wheel/radius of the axel

= 25cm/5cm

= 5

Efficiency = mechanical advantage/velocity ratio × 100/1

= 4/5 × 100/1

= 0.8×100/1

= 80%

Hence, the mechanical advantage of the machine is 4 while the efficiency is 80%.

Answer:

21.8°

Explanation:

Let's call θ the angle between BC and the horizontal.

Draw a free body diagram for each block.

There are 4 forces acting on block D:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N₁ pushing perpendicular to AB,

Friction force N₁μ pushing parallel up AB,

and tension force T pushing parallel up AB.

There are 4 forces acting on block E:

Weight force P pulling down,

Normal force N₂ pushing perpendicular to BC,

Friction force N₂μ pushing parallel to BC,

and tension force T pulling parallel to BC.

Sum of forces on D in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N₁ − P sin θ = 0

N₁ = P sin θ

Sum of forces on D in the parallel direction:

∑F = ma

T + N₁μ − P cos θ = 0

T = P cos θ − N₁μ

T = P cos θ − P sin θ μ

T = P (cos θ − sin θ μ)

Sum of forces on E in the perpendicular direction:

∑F = ma

N₂ − P cos θ = 0

N₂ = P cos θ

Sum of forces on E in the parallel direction:

∑F = ma

N₂μ + P sin θ − T = 0

T = N₂μ + P sin θ

T = P cos θ μ + P sin θ

T = P (cos θ μ + sin θ)

Set equal:

P (cos θ − sin θ μ) = P (cos θ μ + sin θ)

cos θ − sin θ μ = cos θ μ + sin θ

1 − tan θ μ = μ + tan θ

1 − μ = tan θ μ + tan θ

1 − μ = tan θ (μ + 1)

tan θ = (1 − μ) / (1 + μ)

Plug in values:

tan θ = (1 − 0.4) / (1 + 0.4)

θ = 23.2°

∠BCA = 45°, so the angle of AC relative to the horizontal is 45° − 23.2° = 21.8°.

Answer:

λ = 667.85 nm

Explanation:

Let f be the frequency detected by the observer

Let v be the speed at which the observer is moving.

Now, when the direction at which the observer is moving is away from the source, we have the frequency as;

f = f_o√((1 - β)/(1 + β))

From wave equations, we know that the wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency. Thus, wavelength is now;

λ = λ_o√((1 + β)/(1 - β))

Where, β = Hr/c

H is hubbles constant which has a value of 0.0218 m/s • ly

c is speed of light = 3 × 10^(8) m/s

r is given as 2.40 x 10^(8) ly

Thus,

β = (0.0218 × 2.4 x 10^(8))/(3 × 10^(8))

β = 0.01744

Since we are given λ_o = 656.3 nm

Then;

λ = 656.3√((1 + 0.01744)/(1 - 0.01744))

λ = 667.85 nm

Answer:Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. It is able to convert light or electrical energy into focused high energy beam to treat some sickness and diseases.

Explanation:

Answer:

Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

Answer:

-z axis

Explanation:

According to the left hand rule for an electron in a magnetic field, hold the thumb of the left hand at a right angle to the rest of the fingers, and the rest of the fingers parallel to one another. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the electron. In this case, the left hand will be held out with the thumb pointing to the right (+x axis), and the palm facing your body (-y axis). The magnetic field indicated by the other fingers will point down in the the -z axis.

Answer:

t = 23.6 min

Explanation:

First we need to find the mass of air in the room:

m = ρV

where,

m = mass of air in the room = ?

ρ = density of air at room temperature = 1.2041 kg/m³

V = Volume of room = 16 m x 16.5 m x 12.3 m = 3247.2 m³

Therefore,

m = (1.2041 kg/m³)(3247.2 m³)

m = 3909.95 kg

Now, we find the amount of energy consumed to heat the room:

E = m C ΔT

where,

E = Energy consumed = ?

C = Specific Heat of air at room temperature = 1 KJ/kg.⁰C

ΔT = Change in temperature = 21 °C - 13.5 °C = 7.5 °C

Therefore,

E = (3909.95 kg)(1 KJ/kg.°C)(7.5 °C)

E = 29324.62 KJ

Now, the time period can be calculated as:

P = E/t

t = E/P

where,

t = Time needed = ?

P = Power of heater = 20.7 KW

Therefore,

t = 29324.62 KJ/20.7 KW

t = (1416.65 s)(1 min/60 s)

t = 23.6 min

Answer:

Explanation:

Let B= bead

Q = rod

the electric field at the glass bead pocation is

(Gauss theorem)

E = Q / (2 π d L εo)

the force is

F = q E = q Q / (2 π d L εo)

then

Q = 2 π d L εo F / q

Q = 2*3.14*4x10^-2*10^-1*8.85x10^-12*910x10^-4 / 5x10^-9 = 2.87x10^-8 C = 40.5 nC

Answer:

180 J

Explanation:

Mechanical energy = kinetic energy + potential energy

ME = KE + PE

ME = ½ mv² + mgh

ME = ½ (0.430 kg) (25.3 m/s)² + (0.430 kg) (9.8 m/s²) (10.0 m)

ME = 180 J

Mechanical energy is conserved, so it is 180 J at all points of the trajectory.

The baseball's mechanical energy when it is at a height of 8.0m is 180 J.

The mechanical energy is the sum of kinetic energy and the potential energy of an object at any instant of time. Mechanical energy is always conserved.

Mechanical energy = kinetic energy + potential energy

Given is the mass of baseball m= 0.430 kg, height h =10m, speed v= 25.3m/s.

ME = KE + PE

ME = ½ mv² + mgh

Substitute the values, we get

ME = ½ (0.430 kg) (25.3 m/s)² + (0.430 kg) (9.8 m/s²) (10.0 m)

ME = 180 J

Thus, the baseball's mechanical energy when it is at a height of 8.0m is 180 J.

Learn more about mechanical energy.

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Answer:

The hoop

Explanation:

Because it has a smaller calculated inertia of 2/3mr² compares to the disc

Answer:

 v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Explanation:

This is an exercise of conservation of the momentum, for this we must define a system formed by the two balls, so that the forces during the collision have internal and the momentum is conserved

initial. Before the crash

      p₀ = m v₁₀

final. After the crash

      [tex]p_{f}[/tex] = m [tex]v_{1f}[/tex] + m v_{2f}

Recall that velocities are a vector so it has x and y components

       p₀ = p_{f}

we write this equation for each axis

X axis

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1fx} + m v_{2fx}

Y Axis  

       0 = -m v_{1fy} + m v_{2fy}

the exercise tells us the initial velocity v₁₀ = 1.83 m / s, the final velocity v_{2f} = 1.15, let's use trigonometry to find its components

      sin 23.3 = v_{2fy} / v_{2f}

      cos 23.3 = v_{2fx} / v_{2f}

      v_{2fy} = v_{2f} sin 23.3

      v_{2fx} = v_{2f} cos 23.3

we substitute in the momentum conservation equation

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1f} cos θ + m v_{2f} cos 23.3

       0 = - m v_{1f} sin θ + m v_{2f} sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.15 cos 23.3

       0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 1.15 sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.0562

        0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 0.4549

     v_{1f} sin θ = 0.4549

     v_{1f}  cos θ = -0.7738

we divide these two equations

      tan θ = - 0.5878

      θ = tan-1 (-0.5878)

       θ = -30.45º

we substitute in one of the two and find the final velocity of the incident ball

        v_{1f} cos (-30.45) = - 0.7738

        v_{1f} = -0.7738 / cos 30.45

        v_{1f} = -0.8976 m / s

the component and this speed is

       v_{1fy} = v1f sin θ

       v_{1fy} = 0.8976 sin (30.45)

       v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Answer:

Explanation:

grating element or slit width a = 1 x 10⁻² / 5000

= 2 x 10⁻⁶ m

angular width of first order spectral line of wavelength λ

= λ / a

for blue line angular width

= 434 x 10⁻⁹ / 2 x 10⁻⁶ radian

= 217 x 10⁻³ radian

for red line angular width

= 656 x 10⁻⁹ / 2 x 10⁻⁶ radian

= 328 x 10⁻³ radian

difference of their angular width

= 328 x 10⁻³  - 217 x 10⁻³

= 111 x 10⁻³ radian

Ans .

Answer

76200meters

Explanation:

we know that 1km=1000meters

to convert km into meters we we divide km by meters

=76.2/1000

=76200meters

Answer:

a) 0.988 m/s

b) 199512 Pa

c) 57.52 s

Explanation:

given that

A

A1 v1 = A2 v2

d1² v1 = d2² v2

v2 = [d1/d2]² v1

v2 = (1.2/5.4)² * 20

v2 = 0.049 * 20

v2 = 0.988 m/s

B

P + 1/2 ρ v² = K.

[p2 - p1] = 1/2 ρ [v1² - v2²]

[p2 - p1] = 1/2 * 1000 [20² - 0.988²]

[p2 - p1] = 500 * (400 - 0.976)

[p2 - p1] = 500 * 399

[p2 - p1] = 199512 Pa

C

Flow rate = AV = π [d²/ 4 ] * v

= π [0.012² / 4 ] * 20 = 0.00226 m³ /s

= π [0.054² / 4 ] * 0.988 = 0.00226 m³ /s

130 liters = 0.13 m³

t = 0.13/ 0.00226 = 57.52 s

Answer:

The discharge rate is [tex]Q = 0.0192 \ m^3 /s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  diameter is  [tex]d = 60 \ mm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

    The  head is  [tex]h = 6 \ m[/tex]

     The  coefficient of contraction is  [tex]Cc = 0.68[/tex]

     The  coefficient of  velocity is  [tex]Cv = 0.92[/tex]

The radius is mathematically evaluated as

         [tex]r = \frac{d}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]r = \frac{ 0.06 }{2}[/tex]

        [tex]r = 0.03 \ m[/tex]

The  area is mathematically represented as

      [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]A = 3.142 * (0.03)^2[/tex]

      [tex]A = 0.00283 \ m^2[/tex]

 The  discharge rate is mathematically represented as

        [tex]Q = Cv *Cc * A * \sqrt{ 2 * g * h}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]Q = 0.68 * 0.92* 0.00283 * \sqrt{ 2 * 9.8 * 6}[/tex]

       [tex]Q = 0.0192 \ m^3 /s[/tex]

Answer:

B = 1.33 10⁻⁸ T , the magnetic field must be in the y + direction

Explanation:

In an electromagnetic wave the electric and magnetic fields are in phase

         c = E / B

         B = E / c

let's calculate

          B = 4.00 / 3 10⁸

          B = 1.33 10⁻⁸ T

To determine the direction we use that the electric and magnetic fields and the speed of the wave are perpendicular.

 If the wave advances in the + Z direction and the electric field is in the + x direction, the magnetic field must be in the y + direction

Answer:

2500 kg/m³

Explanation:

P = P

ρgh = ρgh

ρh = ρh

(1000 kg/m³) (8.9 cm) = ρ (3.5 cm)

ρ ≈ 2500 kg/m³