A planar electromagnetic wave is propagating in the +x direction. At a certain point P and at a given instant, the electric field of the wave is given by = (0.082 V/m) . What is the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant? (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s)

Answer:

E. Coefficient of linear expansion

Answer:

Upper plate Q/3

Lower plate 2Q/3

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Answer: Only Tech B is correct.

Explanation:

First, tech A is wrong.

The circuits that can be compared with links in a chain are the series circuit, and it can be related to the links in a chain because if one of the elements breaks, the current can not flow furthermore (because the elements in the circuit are connected in series) while in a parallel circuit if one of the branches breaks, the current still can flow by other branches.

Also in a parallel circuit, the sum of the currents of each path is equal to the current that comes from the source, so Tech B is correct, the total current is equal to the sum of the currents flowing in each branch of the circuit.

Answer:

a

   [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

b

  [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 14 \ N/m[/tex]

     The  maximum extension of the spring is  [tex]A = 6.0 \ cm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

     The number of oscillation is  [tex]n = 30[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]t = 20 \ s[/tex]

Generally the the angular speed of this oscillations is mathematically represented as

           [tex]w = \frac{2 \pi}{T}[/tex]

where T is the period which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]T = \frac{t}{n}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]T = \frac{20}{30 }[/tex]

     [tex]T = 0.667 \ s[/tex]

Thus  

       [tex]w = \frac{2 * 3.142 }{ 0.667}[/tex]

       [tex]w = 9.421 \ rad/s[/tex]

this angular speed can also be represented mathematically as

       [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

=>   [tex]m =\frac{k }{w^2}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]m =\frac{ 15 }{(9.421)^2}[/tex]

      [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

In SHM (simple harmonic motion )the equation for velocity is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]v = - Awsin (wt)[/tex]

The  velocity is maximum when  [tex]wt = \(90^o) \ or \ 1.5708\ rad[/tex]

     [tex]v_{max} = - A* w[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= A* w[/tex]

=>    [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.06 * 9.421[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Answer:4 times more energy will be striking the childbearing

Explanation:

Because Volume is directly proportional to amplitude of sound. Energy is proportional to amplitude squared. If you triple the amplitude, you multiply the energy by 4

Answer:

3.9E-8

Explanation:

We know that

Mv²/r = Bqv

So

r= mv/Bq

But E is 1/2mv² which is 5.53eV

m²v² =2m x 5.53eV

mv = √( 2 x 9.1E-31)

So

r= √( 2 x9.1E-31 x 5.53)/ 7.83x10^-4 x1.6E-19

= 3.9x10-8cm

​

Explanation:

Answer:

c. 1.11 m/s down

Explanation:

Momentum is conserved.

m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂

Assuming the balloon and projectile are originally at rest:

(90 kg) (0 m/s) + (10 kg) (0 m/s) = (90 kg) v + (10 kg) (10 m/s)

0 kg m/s = (90 kg) v + 100 kg m/s

v = -1.11 m/s

Answer:

(a) 10 s

(b) 30 m/s

(c) 150 m

Explanation:

The motorist's position at time t is:

x = 15t

The officer's position at time t is:

x = ½ (3) t² = 1.5 t²

(a) When they have the same position, the time is:

15t = 1.5 t²

t = 0 or 10 s

(b) The officer's speed is:

v = 3t

v = 30 m/s

(c) The position is:

x = 15t = 150 m

Answer:

(A). 1620 watt.

(B).0.8885.

Explanation:

So, we are given the following data or parameters or information which is going to assist or help us in solving this particular Question or problem. So, we have;

Current = 9.35A, direct current at a potential difference of 195 V, frequency of the inverter = 60 Hz alternating current, alternating current with Vmax = 166V and Imax = 19.5A.

(A). The rms power is produced by the inverter = (19.5 /2 ) × 166 = 1620 watt(approximately).

(B). the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter.

P(in) = 195 × 9.35 = 1823.3 watt.

Thus, the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter = 1620/1823.3 = 0.88852324146441793 = 0.8885.

Answer:

The magnetic field is 0.0857 T.

Explanation:

The electrons orbit the magnetic field with a centripetal force equal to

F = [tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex]

also, the force on an electron in a magnetic field is gotten as

F = Bqv

equating this two equations give

[tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex] = Bqv

mv/r = Bq

where m is the mass of the electron = 9.11 x 10^-31 kg

v is the the linear speed of the electron

B is the magnetic field on the electron

r is the radius of the orbital movement

q is the charge on an electron = 1.602 x 10^-19 C

but, the linear speed v = ωr

where ω is the angular speed of the electron

substituting into equation above, we have

mωr/r = Bq

which reduces to

mω = Bq

finally, w know that the angular speed is related to the frequency of the electron by

ω = 2πf

we then finally have

2mπf = Bq

where f is the frequency emitted by the electron = 2.4 GHz = 2.4 x 10^9 Hz

substituting values into the equation, we have

2 x 9.11 x 10^-31 x 3.142 x 2.4 x 10^9 = B x 1.602 x 10^-19

B = (1.3734 x 10^-20)/(1.602 x 10^-19) = 0.0857 T

= 85.7 mT

Answer:

the net work is zero

Explanation:

Work is defined by the expression

        W = F. ds

Bold type indicates vectors

In this problem, the friction force does not decrease, therefore it will be zero.

Consequently for work on a closed path it is zero.

The work in going from the initial point (0, 0, 0) to the end of each segment is positive and when it returns from the point of origin the angle is 180º, therefore the work is negative, consequently the net work is zero

Explanation:

Pressure is the same for both plungers.

P = P

F / A = F / A

F / (¼ π d²) = F / (¼ π d²)

F / d² = F / d²

5 N / (0.05 m)² = F / (1 m)²

F = 2000 N

None of the options are correct.

Answer:

A) 0.4 mA

B) 0.03 mA

Explanation:

Given that

voltage source, V = 120 V

to solve this question, we would be using the very basic Ohms Law, that voltage is proportional to the current and the resistance passing through the circuit, if temperature is constant.

mathematically, Ohms Law, V = IR

V = Voltage

I = Current

R = Resistance

from question a, we were given 300kΩ, substituting this value of resistance in the equation, we have

120 = I * 300*10^3 Ω

making I the subject of the formula,

I = 120 / 300000

I = 0.0004 A

I = 0.4 mA

Question said, currents above 10 mA causes involuntary muscle contraction, this current is way below 10 mA, so nothing happens.

B, we have Resistance, R = 4000kΩ

Substituting like in part A, we have

120 = I * 4000*10^3 Ω

I = 120 / 4000000

I = 0.00003 A

I = 0.03 mA

This also means nothing happens, because 0.03 mA is very much lesser compared to in the 10 mA

The current through a person will be:

a) 0.4 mA

b) 0.03 mA

Given:

Voltage, V = 120 V

It states that the voltage or potential difference between two points is directly proportional to the current or electricity passing through the resistance, and directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.

Ohms Law, V = I*R

where,

V = Voltage

I = Current

R = Resistance

a)

Given: Resistance=  300kΩ

[tex]120 = I * 300*10^3 ohm\\\\I = 120 / 300000\\\\I = 0.0004 A[/tex]

Thus, current will be, I = 0.4 mA

b)

Given: R = 4000kΩ

[tex]120 = I * 4000*10^3 ohm\\\\I = 120 / 4000000\\\\I = 0.00003 A[/tex]

Thus, current will be, I = 0.03 mA

From calculations, we observe that nothing happens, because 0.03 mA is very much lesser compared to in the 10 mA.

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Answer:

a. The reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

b. The inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

Explanation:

PART A

Since the voltage across the inductor V₀ = I₀XL where V₀ = e.m.f of voltage source, I₀ = current amplitude and XL = reactance of the inductor,

XL = V₀/I₀

So, the reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

PART B

The inductance of the inductor is gotten from XL = 2πfL where f = frequency of voltage source and L = inductance of inductor

Since XL = V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

L = V₀/2πfI₀

So the inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

A) The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B) The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  

A) Expressing the Reactance of the inductor

Voltage across the Inductor = V₀ = I₀XL   ---- ( 1 )

Where :  V₀ = emf voltage ,  I₀ = current

from equation ( 1 )

∴ XL ( reactance ) = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B ) Expressing the Inductance of the Inductor

Inductance of an inductor is expressed as : XL = 2πfL

from part A

XL = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex] = 2πfL

∴ The inductance L of the Inductor expressed in terms of V₀, F and I₀

L = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  and The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  .

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Answer:

There is no induced current on the coil.

Explanation:

Current is induced in a coil or a circuit, when there is a break of flux linkage. A break in flux linkage is caused by a changing magnetic field, and must be achieved by a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. Holding the magnet above the center of the coil will cause no changing magnetic filed since there is no relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Answer:

The distance is [tex]D = 2.6 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The wavelength of the light is  [tex]\lambda = 476.1 \ nm = 476.1 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

      The  distance between the slit is  [tex]d = 0.29 \ mm = 0.29 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

       The  between the first and second dark fringes is  [tex]y = 4.2 \ mm = 4.2 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

Generally  fringe width is mathematically represented as

       [tex]y = \frac{\lambda * D }{d}[/tex]

Where D is the distance of the slit to the screen

   Hence

        [tex]D = \frac{y * d}{\lambda }[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]D = \frac{ 4.2 *10^{-3} * 0.29 *10^{-3}}{ 476.1 *10^{-9} }[/tex]

        [tex]D = 2.6 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

True or False

Explanation:

Because.....

easy 50% chance you are right

Answer:

We can think the water stream as a solid object that is fired.

The distance between the fireperson and the building is 50m. (i consider that the position of the fireperson is our position = 0)

The angle is 30 above the horizontal. (yo wrote 300, but this has no sense because 300° implies that he is pointing to the ground).

The initial speed of the stream is 40m/s.

First, using the fact that:

x = R*cos(θ)

y = R*sin(θ)

in this case R = 40m/s and θ = 30°

We can use the above relation to find the components of the velocity:

Vx = 40m/s*cos(30°) = 34.64m/s

Vy = 20m/s.

First step:

We want to find the time needed to the stream to hit the buildin.

The horizontal speed is 34.64m/s and the distance to the wall is 50m

So we want that:

34.64m/s*t = 50m

t = 50m/(34.64m/s) = 1.44 seconds.

Now we need to calculate the height of the stream at t = 1.44s

Second step:

The only force acting on the water is the gravitational one, so the acceleration of the stream is:

a(t) = -g.

g = -9.8m/s^2

For the speed, we integrate over time and we get:

v(t) = -g*t + v0

where v0 is the initial speed: v0 = 20m/s.

The velocity equation is:

v(t) = -g*t + 20m/s.

For the position, we integrate again over time:

p(t) = -(1/2)*g*t^2 + 20m/s*t + p0

p0 is the initial height of the stream, this data is not known.

Now, the height at the time t = 1.44s is

p(1.44s) = -5.9m/s^2*(1.44s)^2 + 20m/s*1.44s + po

             = 16.57m + p0

So the height at wich the stream hits the building is 16.57 meters above the initial height of the fire hose.

Answer:

C

They allow light to pass only if their directions of polarizations are exactly 90° apart.

Answer:

-0.73mA

Explanation:

Using amphere's Law

ε =−dΦB/ dt

=−(2.6T)·(7.30·10−4 m2)/ 1.00 s

=−1.9 mV

Using ohms law

ε=V =IR

I = ε/ R =−1.9mV/ 2.60Ω =−0.73mA

Answer:

c. 70 Ω

Explanation:

The R and R resistors are in parallel.  The 2R and 2R resistors are in parallel.  The 4R and 4R resistors are in parallel.  Each parallel combination is in series with each other.  Therefore, the equivalent resistance is:

Req = 1/(1/R + 1/R) + 1/(1/2R + 1/2R) + 1/(1/4R + 1/4R)

Req = R/2 + 2R/2 + 4R/2

Req = 3.5R

Req = 70Ω

Answer:

A) 1.5 V

B) 4.5 V

Explanation:

A) Batteries in parallel have the same voltage as an individual battery.

V = 1.5 V

B) Batteries in series have a voltage equal to the sum of the individual batteries.

V = 1.5 V + 1.5 V + 1.5 V

V = 4.5 V

Answer:

se the principle of induction.

place the two metallic spheres together,  now we bring the positively charged bar closer to the first sphere.

The charge that was induced in the sphere is distributed as infirm as possible,

At this time I separate the spheres and move the bar away, by separating the spheres the excess positive

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use that the electric charge is not created, it is not destroyed and charges of the same sign repel.

Let's use the principle of induction. We place the two metallic spheres together, one in front of the other, now we bring the positively charged bar closer to the first sphere.

Here the positive charge of the bar repels the positive charge of the sphere, but as this is mocil it moves as far away as possible, until the negative charge that remains neutralizes the positive charge of the bar.

The charge that was induced in the sphere is distributed as infirm as possible, most of it in the furthest sphere, since the Coulomb force decreases.

At this time I separate the spheres and move the bar away, by separating the spheres the excess positive charge in the last sphere cannot be neutralized, therefore this sphere remains with a positive charge.

Answer:

1) a block going down a slope

2) a) W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE, b) W = ΔE, c)  W = ΔK, d) ΔU = ΔK

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to give an example of various types of systems

1) a system where work is transformed into internal energy is a system with friction, for example a block going down a slope in this case work is done during the descent, which is transformed in part kinetic energy, in part power energy and partly internal energy that is represented by an increase in the temperature of the block.

2)

a) rolling a ball uphill

In this case we have an increase in potential energy, if there is a change in speed, the kinetic energy also increases, if the change in speed is zero, there is no change in kinetic energy and there is a change in internal energy due to the stationary rec in the point of contact

 W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE

b) in this system work is transformed into internal energy

      W = ΔE

c) There is no friction here, therefore the work is transformed into kinetic energy

    W = ΔK

d) if you assume that there is no friction with the air, the potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy

      ΔU = ΔK

Answer:

7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

Using,

v = λf.................. Equation 1

Where v = velocity of electromagnetic wave, λ = wave length, f = frequency.

make λ the subject of the equation

λ = v/f............... Equation 2

Note: All electromagnetic  wave have the same speed which is 3×10⁸ m/s.

Given: f = 3.818×10¹⁴ Hz

Constant: v = 3×10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

λ  =  3×10⁸/3.818×10¹⁴

λ  = 7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Hence the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation is  7.86×10⁻⁷ m

The wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation is equal to [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

Given the following data:

Scientific data:

Velocity of an electromagnetic radiation = [tex]3 \times 10^8\;m/s[/tex]

To determine the wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation:

Mathematically, the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{Speed }{frequency}[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{3.818\times 10^{14}}[/tex]

Wavelength = [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

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Answer:

Explanation:

The force experienced by the moving electron in the magnetic field is expressed as F = qvBsinθ where;

q is the charge on the electron

v is the velocity of the electron

B is the magnetic field strength

θ is the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field.

Given parameters

F =  1.40*10⁻¹⁶ N

q = 1.6*10⁻¹⁹C

v = 3.94*10³m/s

B = 1.23T

Required

Angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field

Substituting the given parameters into the formula:

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ =  1.6*10⁻¹⁹ * 3.94*10³ * 1.23 * sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁹⁺³sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶sinθ

sinθ = 1.40*10⁻¹⁶/7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶

sinθ = 1.40/7.75392

sinθ = 0.1806

θ = sin⁻¹0.1806

θ₁ = 10.4⁰

Since sinθ is positive in the 1st and 2nd quadrant, θ₂ = 180-θ₁

θ₂ = 180-10.4

θ₂ = 169.6⁰

Hence, the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field are 10.4⁰ and 169.6⁰

Answer:

TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Explanation:

Retraction is defined as the change in the direction of light rays as it moves from less dense medium to a denser medium.

For us to have a critical angle, the ray must be passing from the denser medium to the less dense medium. As the angle of refraction in the less dense medium is increasing, the angle of incidence in the less dense medium also increases. A point will reach when the refracted ray will be parallel to the interface i.e angle of refraction is 90°, the angle of incidence at this point is known as the critical angle. If the angle of refraction keeps increasing further, it will get to a point when the refracted ray becomes reflected into the denser medium. At this stage we say that the ray is internally reflected and this is the point when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

Hence it can be concluded that the process that occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle is called TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Answer:

The time taken is  [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the ball is  [tex]m = 1.25 \ kg[/tex]

    The time taken to make the first complete revolution is  t= 3.60 s

    The displacement of the first complete revolution is  [tex]\theta = 1 rev = 2 \pi \ radian[/tex]

Generally the displacement for one  complete revolution is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\theta = w_i t + \frac{1}{2} * \alpha * t^2[/tex]

Now given that the stone started from rest [tex]w_i = 0 \ rad / s[/tex]

     [tex]2 \pi =0 + 0.5* \alpha *(3.60)^2[/tex]

     [tex]\alpha = 0.9698 \ s[/tex]

Now the displacement for two  complete revolution is

         [tex]\theta_2 = 2 * 2\pi[/tex]

         [tex]\theta_2 = 4\pi[/tex]

Generally the displacement for two complete revolution is mathematically represented as  

     [tex]4 \pi = 0 + 0.5 * 0.9698 * t^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]t^2 = 25.9187[/tex]

=>   [tex]t= 5.1 \ s[/tex]

So

 The  time taken to complete the next oscillation is mathematically evaluated as

     [tex]\Delta t = t_2 - t[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]\Delta t = 5.1 - 3.60[/tex]

     [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

The time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

The given parameters;

The constant angular acceleration of the ball is calculated as follows;

[tex]\theta = \omega t \ + \ \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2\\\\2\pi = 0 \ + \ 0.5(3.6)^2 \alpha\\\\2\pi = 6.48 \alpha \\\\\alpha = \frac{2 \pi }{6.48} \\\\\alpha = 0.97 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

The time to complete the next revolution is calculated as follows;

[tex]4\pi = 0 + \frac{1}{2} (0.97)t^2\\\\8\pi = 0.97t^2\\\\t^2 = \frac{8\pi }{0.97} \\\\t^2 = 25.91\\\\t = \sqrt{ 25.91} \\\\t = 5.1 \ s[/tex]

[tex]\Delta t = 5.1 \ s \ - \ 3.6 \ s \\\\\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Thus, the time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

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