An emf is induced by rotating a 1060 turn, 20.0 cm diameter coil in the Earth's 5.25 ✕ 10−5 T magnetic field. What average emf (in V) is induced, given the plane of the coil is originally perpendicular to the Earth's field and is rotated to be parallel to the field in 10.0 ms? V †

Answer:

K.E = 5.53 eV = 8.85 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Explanation:

First we calculate the energy of photon:

E = hc/λ

where,

E = Energy of Photon = ?

h = Plank's Constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

λ = wavelength = 120 nm = 1.2 x 10⁻⁷ m

Therefore,

E = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(1.2 x 10⁻⁷ m)

E = (16.565 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)(1 eV/1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)

E = 10.35 eV

Now, from Einstein's Photoelectric equation we know that:

Energy of Photon = Work Function + K.E of Electron

10.35 eV = 4.82 eV + K.E

K.E = 10.35 eV - 4.82 eV

K.E = 5.53 eV = 8.85 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be "8.85 × 10⁻¹⁹ J".

According to the question,

Speed of light, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Wavelength, λ = 120 nm or,

                        = 1.2 × 10⁻⁷ m

Plank's Constant, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J.s

Now,

The energy of photon will be:

→ E = [tex]\frac{hc}{\lambda}[/tex]

By substituting the values,

     = [tex]\frac{6.626\times 10^{-34}\times 3\times 20^8}{1.2\times 10^{-7}}[/tex]

     = [tex]\frac{16.565\times 10^{-19}}{\frac{1 \ eV}{1.6\times 10^{-19}} }[/tex]

     = 10.35 eV

By using Einstein's Photoelectric equation,  

Energy of Photon = Work function + K.E

                   10.35 = 4.82 + K.E

                       K.E = 10.35 - 4.82

                             = 5.53 eV or,

                             = 8.85 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

Thus the response above is correct.

Find out more information about Kinetic energy here:

https://brainly.com/question/25959744

Answer:

se the principle of induction.

place the two metallic spheres together,  now we bring the positively charged bar closer to the first sphere.

The charge that was induced in the sphere is distributed as infirm as possible,

At this time I separate the spheres and move the bar away, by separating the spheres the excess positive

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use that the electric charge is not created, it is not destroyed and charges of the same sign repel.

Let's use the principle of induction. We place the two metallic spheres together, one in front of the other, now we bring the positively charged bar closer to the first sphere.

Here the positive charge of the bar repels the positive charge of the sphere, but as this is mocil it moves as far away as possible, until the negative charge that remains neutralizes the positive charge of the bar.

The charge that was induced in the sphere is distributed as infirm as possible, most of it in the furthest sphere, since the Coulomb force decreases.

At this time I separate the spheres and move the bar away, by separating the spheres the excess positive charge in the last sphere cannot be neutralized, therefore this sphere remains with a positive charge.

Answer:

A) 0.4 mA

B) 0.03 mA

Explanation:

Given that

voltage source, V = 120 V

to solve this question, we would be using the very basic Ohms Law, that voltage is proportional to the current and the resistance passing through the circuit, if temperature is constant.

mathematically, Ohms Law, V = IR

V = Voltage

I = Current

R = Resistance

from question a, we were given 300kΩ, substituting this value of resistance in the equation, we have

120 = I * 300*10^3 Ω

making I the subject of the formula,

I = 120 / 300000

I = 0.0004 A

I = 0.4 mA

Question said, currents above 10 mA causes involuntary muscle contraction, this current is way below 10 mA, so nothing happens.

B, we have Resistance, R = 4000kΩ

Substituting like in part A, we have

120 = I * 4000*10^3 Ω

I = 120 / 4000000

I = 0.00003 A

I = 0.03 mA

This also means nothing happens, because 0.03 mA is very much lesser compared to in the 10 mA

The current through a person will be:

a) 0.4 mA

b) 0.03 mA

Given:

Voltage, V = 120 V

It states that the voltage or potential difference between two points is directly proportional to the current or electricity passing through the resistance, and directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.

Ohms Law, V = I*R

where,

V = Voltage

I = Current

R = Resistance

a)

Given: Resistance=  300kΩ

[tex]120 = I * 300*10^3 ohm\\\\I = 120 / 300000\\\\I = 0.0004 A[/tex]

Thus, current will be, I = 0.4 mA

b)

Given: R = 4000kΩ

[tex]120 = I * 4000*10^3 ohm\\\\I = 120 / 4000000\\\\I = 0.00003 A[/tex]

Thus, current will be, I = 0.03 mA

From calculations, we observe that nothing happens, because 0.03 mA is very much lesser compared to in the 10 mA.

Find more information about Current here:

brainly.com/question/24858512

Answer:

The distance is [tex]D = 2.6 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The wavelength of the light is  [tex]\lambda = 476.1 \ nm = 476.1 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

      The  distance between the slit is  [tex]d = 0.29 \ mm = 0.29 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

       The  between the first and second dark fringes is  [tex]y = 4.2 \ mm = 4.2 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

Generally  fringe width is mathematically represented as

       [tex]y = \frac{\lambda * D }{d}[/tex]

Where D is the distance of the slit to the screen

   Hence

        [tex]D = \frac{y * d}{\lambda }[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]D = \frac{ 4.2 *10^{-3} * 0.29 *10^{-3}}{ 476.1 *10^{-9} }[/tex]

        [tex]D = 2.6 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another. On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system. Therefore, matter and energy in a system naturally change over time will decrease in entropy.

Explanation:

Answer:

Decrease in entropy

Explanation:

Various systems which exist in nature possess energy and matter that move through these system continuously. The movement of energy and matter in a system differs from one system to another.

In a closed system for example, only energy flows in and out of the system while matter does not enter or leave the system.

On the other hand, in open system both the matter and energy move into and out of the system.

Answer:

entropy

Explanation:

Answer:

(a) 10 s

(b) 30 m/s

(c) 150 m

Explanation:

The motorist's position at time t is:

x = 15t

The officer's position at time t is:

x = ½ (3) t² = 1.5 t²

(a) When they have the same position, the time is:

15t = 1.5 t²

t = 0 or 10 s

(b) The officer's speed is:

v = 3t

v = 30 m/s

(c) The position is:

x = 15t = 150 m

Answer:

The magnetic field is 0.0857 T.

Explanation:

The electrons orbit the magnetic field with a centripetal force equal to

F = [tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex]

also, the force on an electron in a magnetic field is gotten as

F = Bqv

equating this two equations give

[tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex] = Bqv

mv/r = Bq

where m is the mass of the electron = 9.11 x 10^-31 kg

v is the the linear speed of the electron

B is the magnetic field on the electron

r is the radius of the orbital movement

q is the charge on an electron = 1.602 x 10^-19 C

but, the linear speed v = ωr

where ω is the angular speed of the electron

substituting into equation above, we have

mωr/r = Bq

which reduces to

mω = Bq

finally, w know that the angular speed is related to the frequency of the electron by

ω = 2πf

we then finally have

2mπf = Bq

where f is the frequency emitted by the electron = 2.4 GHz = 2.4 x 10^9 Hz

substituting values into the equation, we have

2 x 9.11 x 10^-31 x 3.142 x 2.4 x 10^9 = B x 1.602 x 10^-19

B = (1.3734 x 10^-20)/(1.602 x 10^-19) = 0.0857 T

= 85.7 mT

Answer:

7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

Using,

v = λf.................. Equation 1

Where v = velocity of electromagnetic wave, λ = wave length, f = frequency.

make λ the subject of the equation

λ = v/f............... Equation 2

Note: All electromagnetic  wave have the same speed which is 3×10⁸ m/s.

Given: f = 3.818×10¹⁴ Hz

Constant: v = 3×10⁸ m/s

Substitute these values into equation 2

λ  =  3×10⁸/3.818×10¹⁴

λ  = 7.86×10⁻⁷ m

Hence the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation is  7.86×10⁻⁷ m

The wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation is equal to [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

Given the following data:

Scientific data:

Velocity of an electromagnetic radiation = [tex]3 \times 10^8\;m/s[/tex]

To determine the wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation:

Mathematically, the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{Speed }{frequency}[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]Wavelength = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{3.818\times 10^{14}}[/tex]

Wavelength = [tex]7.86 \times 10^{-7} \;meters[/tex]

Read more wavelength on here: https://brainly.com/question/6352445

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Explanation:

Pressure is the same for both plungers.

P = P

F / A = F / A

F / (¼ π d²) = F / (¼ π d²)

F / d² = F / d²

5 N / (0.05 m)² = F / (1 m)²

F = 2000 N

None of the options are correct.

Answer:

(A). 1620 watt.

(B).0.8885.

Explanation:

So, we are given the following data or parameters or information which is going to assist or help us in solving this particular Question or problem. So, we have;

Current = 9.35A, direct current at a potential difference of 195 V, frequency of the inverter = 60 Hz alternating current, alternating current with Vmax = 166V and Imax = 19.5A.

(A). The rms power is produced by the inverter = (19.5 /2 ) × 166 = 1620 watt(approximately).

(B). the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter.

P(in) = 195 × 9.35 = 1823.3 watt.

Thus, the rms values to find the power efficiency Pout/Pin of the inverter = 1620/1823.3 = 0.88852324146441793 = 0.8885.

Answer:

There is no induced current on the coil.

Explanation:

Current is induced in a coil or a circuit, when there is a break of flux linkage. A break in flux linkage is caused by a changing magnetic field, and must be achieved by a relative motion between the coil and the magnet. Holding the magnet above the center of the coil will cause no changing magnetic filed since there is no relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Answer:

Atoms are the particles that all matter is made from. When two or more kinds of atoms combine, they form pure elements

The answer is option A

Answer:

its molecues

Explanation:

Answer:

The question is not clear enough. So i have attached a copy of the correct question.

A) B = V/c

B) c = Lv

Explanation:

A) we know that formula for magnetic flux is;

Φ = BA

Where B is magnetic field and A is area

Now,

Let's differentiate with B being a constant;

dΦ/dt = B•dA/dt

From faradays law, the EMF induced is given as;

E = -dΦ/dt

However, we want to express it in terms of V and E.M.F is also known as potential difference or Voltage.

Thus, V = -dΦ/dt

Thus, we can now say that;

-V = B•dA/dt

Now from the question, we are told that dA/dt = - c

Thus;

-V = B•-c

So, V = Bc

Thus, B = V/c

B) according to Faraday's Law or Lorentz Force Law, an electromotive force, emf, will be induced between the two ends of the sidelength:

Thus;

E =LvB or can be written as; V = LvB

Where;

V is EMF

L is length of bar

v is velocity

From the first solution, we saw that;

V = Bc

Thus, equating both of the equations, we have;

Bc = LvB

B will cancel out to give;

c = Lv

Explanation:

Answer:

E. Coefficient of linear expansion

Answer:

0.99Hz

Explanation:

Using F= -mx ( spring force)

At equilibrium the gravitational force will be balanced by the spring force so mg= kx

K= mg/ 0.25 N/m

But

Frequency f= 1/2pi √g/0.25

Frequency is 0.99Hz

The block is pulled down slightly and released so, Frequency of oscillation is 3.15 Hz

What information do we have?

Length starched = 2.5 cm

F = Kx

We know that

F = mg

So,

mg = Kx

K/m = g/x

[tex]f=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{g}{x} }\\f=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{9.8}{0.025} }[/tex]

Frequency of oscillation = 3.15 Hz

Find out more information about 'Oscillation'.

https://brainly.com/question/16016711?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Explanation:

Retraction is defined as the change in the direction of light rays as it moves from less dense medium to a denser medium.

For us to have a critical angle, the ray must be passing from the denser medium to the less dense medium. As the angle of refraction in the less dense medium is increasing, the angle of incidence in the less dense medium also increases. A point will reach when the refracted ray will be parallel to the interface i.e angle of refraction is 90°, the angle of incidence at this point is known as the critical angle. If the angle of refraction keeps increasing further, it will get to a point when the refracted ray becomes reflected into the denser medium. At this stage we say that the ray is internally reflected and this is the point when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

Hence it can be concluded that the process that occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle is called TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Answer:

 I = 1.23 A

Explanation:

In an RL circuit current passing is described by

           I = E / R (1 - [tex]e^{-Rt/L}[/tex])

Let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

        L = 35 mH = 35 10⁻³ H

        t = 5.0 ms = 5.0 10⁻³ s

let's calculate

         I = 18/12 (1 - [tex]e^{-12 .. 5 {10}^{-3}/35 .. {10}^{-3} }[/tex]e (- 5 10-3 12/35 10-3))

         I = 1.5 (1- [tex]e^{-1.715}[/tex])

         I = 1.23 A

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the object distance related to two quantities is shown below:

It could find out by using the lens formula which is shown below:

[tex]\frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

where,

v = image distance

u = object distance

f = focal length

It could be found by applying the above formula i.e considering the image distance, object distance and the focal length

Answer:

T = 80√3 N ≈ 139 N

W = 160 N

Explanation:

Sum of forces on B in the x direction:

∑F = ma

80 N sin 60° − T sin 30° = 0

T = 80 N sin 60° / sin 30°

T = 80√3 N

T ≈ 139 N

Sum of forces on B in the y direction:

∑F = ma

80 N cos 60° + T cos 30° − W = 0

W = 80 N cos 60° + T cos 30°

W = 40 N + 120 N

W = 160 N

Answer:

We can think the water stream as a solid object that is fired.

The distance between the fireperson and the building is 50m. (i consider that the position of the fireperson is our position = 0)

The angle is 30 above the horizontal. (yo wrote 300, but this has no sense because 300° implies that he is pointing to the ground).

The initial speed of the stream is 40m/s.

First, using the fact that:

x = R*cos(θ)

y = R*sin(θ)

in this case R = 40m/s and θ = 30°

We can use the above relation to find the components of the velocity:

Vx = 40m/s*cos(30°) = 34.64m/s

Vy = 20m/s.

First step:

We want to find the time needed to the stream to hit the buildin.

The horizontal speed is 34.64m/s and the distance to the wall is 50m

So we want that:

34.64m/s*t = 50m

t = 50m/(34.64m/s) = 1.44 seconds.

Now we need to calculate the height of the stream at t = 1.44s

Second step:

The only force acting on the water is the gravitational one, so the acceleration of the stream is:

a(t) = -g.

g = -9.8m/s^2

For the speed, we integrate over time and we get:

v(t) = -g*t + v0

where v0 is the initial speed: v0 = 20m/s.

The velocity equation is:

v(t) = -g*t + 20m/s.

For the position, we integrate again over time:

p(t) = -(1/2)*g*t^2 + 20m/s*t + p0

p0 is the initial height of the stream, this data is not known.

Now, the height at the time t = 1.44s is

p(1.44s) = -5.9m/s^2*(1.44s)^2 + 20m/s*1.44s + po

             = 16.57m + p0

So the height at wich the stream hits the building is 16.57 meters above the initial height of the fire hose.

Answer:

Explanation:

Relation between flux and inductance is as follows

φ = Li

where φ is flux associated with induction of inductance L when a current i flows through it

putting the values

3.25 x 10⁻³ x 800 = L x 2.9

L = .9 H

for induced emf in an induction , the relation is

emf induced = L di / dt

Putting the values

7.5 x 10⁻³ = .9 x di / dt

di / dt = 8.33 x 10⁻³ A / s

(a) The self inductance of the solenoid is 0.897 H.

(b) The magnitude of the rate of change of the current is 0.00836 A/s.

The given parameters;

The self inductance of the solenoid is calculated as follows;

[tex]emf = \frac{d\phi}{dt}\\\\emf = \frac{Ldi}{dt} \\\\d\phi = Ldi\\\\\phi = BA\\\\NBA = LI\\\\L = \frac{NBA}{I} \\\\L = \frac{N\phi}{I} \\\\L = \frac{800 \times 3.25\times 10^{-3}}{2.9} \\\\L = 0.897 \ H\\\\[/tex]

The magnitude of the rate of change of the current is calculated as follows;

[tex]emf = L \frac{di}{dt} \\\\\frac{di}{dt} \ = \frac{emf}{L} \\\\\frac{di}{dt} = \frac{7.5 \times 10^{-3}}{0.897} \\\\\frac{di}{dt} = 0.00836 \ A/s[/tex]

Learn more here:https://brainly.com/question/17086348

Answer:

Explanation:

The force experienced by the moving electron in the magnetic field is expressed as F = qvBsinθ where;

q is the charge on the electron

v is the velocity of the electron

B is the magnetic field strength

θ is the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field.

Given parameters

F =  1.40*10⁻¹⁶ N

q = 1.6*10⁻¹⁹C

v = 3.94*10³m/s

B = 1.23T

Required

Angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field

Substituting the given parameters into the formula:

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ =  1.6*10⁻¹⁹ * 3.94*10³ * 1.23 * sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁹⁺³sinθ

1.40*10⁻¹⁶ = 7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶sinθ

sinθ = 1.40*10⁻¹⁶/7.75392 * 10⁻¹⁶

sinθ = 1.40/7.75392

sinθ = 0.1806

θ = sin⁻¹0.1806

θ₁ = 10.4⁰

Since sinθ is positive in the 1st and 2nd quadrant, θ₂ = 180-θ₁

θ₂ = 180-10.4

θ₂ = 169.6⁰

Hence, the angle that the velocity of the electron make with the magnetic field are 10.4⁰ and 169.6⁰

Answer:

1) a block going down a slope

2) a) W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE, b) W = ΔE, c)  W = ΔK, d) ΔU = ΔK

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to give an example of various types of systems

1) a system where work is transformed into internal energy is a system with friction, for example a block going down a slope in this case work is done during the descent, which is transformed in part kinetic energy, in part power energy and partly internal energy that is represented by an increase in the temperature of the block.

2)

a) rolling a ball uphill

In this case we have an increase in potential energy, if there is a change in speed, the kinetic energy also increases, if the change in speed is zero, there is no change in kinetic energy and there is a change in internal energy due to the stationary rec in the point of contact

 W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE

b) in this system work is transformed into internal energy

      W = ΔE

c) There is no friction here, therefore the work is transformed into kinetic energy

    W = ΔK

d) if you assume that there is no friction with the air, the potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy

      ΔU = ΔK

Answer:

The time taken is  [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the ball is  [tex]m = 1.25 \ kg[/tex]

    The time taken to make the first complete revolution is  t= 3.60 s

    The displacement of the first complete revolution is  [tex]\theta = 1 rev = 2 \pi \ radian[/tex]

Generally the displacement for one  complete revolution is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\theta = w_i t + \frac{1}{2} * \alpha * t^2[/tex]

Now given that the stone started from rest [tex]w_i = 0 \ rad / s[/tex]

     [tex]2 \pi =0 + 0.5* \alpha *(3.60)^2[/tex]

     [tex]\alpha = 0.9698 \ s[/tex]

Now the displacement for two  complete revolution is

         [tex]\theta_2 = 2 * 2\pi[/tex]

         [tex]\theta_2 = 4\pi[/tex]

Generally the displacement for two complete revolution is mathematically represented as  

     [tex]4 \pi = 0 + 0.5 * 0.9698 * t^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]t^2 = 25.9187[/tex]

=>   [tex]t= 5.1 \ s[/tex]

So

 The  time taken to complete the next oscillation is mathematically evaluated as

     [tex]\Delta t = t_2 - t[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]\Delta t = 5.1 - 3.60[/tex]

     [tex]\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

The time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

The given parameters;

The constant angular acceleration of the ball is calculated as follows;

[tex]\theta = \omega t \ + \ \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2\\\\2\pi = 0 \ + \ 0.5(3.6)^2 \alpha\\\\2\pi = 6.48 \alpha \\\\\alpha = \frac{2 \pi }{6.48} \\\\\alpha = 0.97 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

The time to complete the next revolution is calculated as follows;

[tex]4\pi = 0 + \frac{1}{2} (0.97)t^2\\\\8\pi = 0.97t^2\\\\t^2 = \frac{8\pi }{0.97} \\\\t^2 = 25.91\\\\t = \sqrt{ 25.91} \\\\t = 5.1 \ s[/tex]

[tex]\Delta t = 5.1 \ s \ - \ 3.6 \ s \\\\\Delta t = 1.5 \ s[/tex]

Thus, the time for the ball to complete the next revolution is 1.5 s.

Learn more here:https://brainly.com/question/20738528

Answer:

True or False

Explanation:

Because.....

easy 50% chance you are right

Answer:

Upper plate Q/3

Lower plate 2Q/3

Explanation:

See attached file

i

CHECK COMPLETE QUESTION BELOW

inductor is connected to the terminals of a battery that has an emf of 12.0 VV and negligible internal resistance. The current is 4.96 mAmA at 0.800 msms after the connection is completed. After a long time the current is 6.60 mAmA.

Part A)What is the resistance RR of the inductor

PART B) what is inductance L of the conductor

Answer:

A)R=1818.18 ohms

B)L=1.0446H

Explanation:

We were given inductor L with resistance R , there is a connection between the battery and the inductor with Emf of 12V, we can see that the circuit is equivalent to a simple RL circuit.

There is current of 4.96mA at 0.8ms, at the end of the connection the current increase to 6.60mA,

.

a)A)What is the resistance RR of the inductor?

The current flowing into RL circuit can be calculated using below expresion

i=ε/R[1-e⁻(R/L)t]

at t=∞ there is maximum current

i(max)= ε/R

Where ε emf of the battery

R is the resistance

R=ε/i(max)

= 12V/(6.60*10⁻³A)

R=1818.18 ohms

Therefore, the resistance R=1818.18 ohms

b)what is inductance L of the conductor?

i(t=0.80ms and 4.96mA

RT/L = ⁻ln[1- 1/t(max)]

Making L subject of formula we have

L=-RT/ln[1-i/i(max)]

If we substitute the values into the above expresion we have

L= -(1818.18 )*(8.0*10⁻⁴)/ln[1-4.96/6.60)]

L=1.0446H

Therefore, the inductor L=1.0446H

Answer:

The values is  [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

The  direction is out of the plane

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  magnitude of the electric field is  [tex]E = 9.6 \ V/m[/tex]

The  magnitude of the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]B = \frac{E}{c}[/tex]

where c is the speed of light with value

      [tex]B = \frac{ 9.6}{3.0 *10^{8}}[/tex]

     [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

Given that the direction off the electromagnetic wave( c ) is  northward(y-plane ) and  the electric field(E) is eastward(x-plane ) then the magnetic field will be acting in the out of the page  (z-plane  )