could someone help me with B?
i have the mark scheme i just don't know how they got that answer ​

Two parallel-plate capacitors with the same charge Q but different areas (A and 2A) can be compared by looking at the capacitance. The capacitance of the second capacitor is double that of the first due to the increase in area.

Two parallel-plate capacitors with the same charge Q but different areas (A and 2A) can be compared by looking at the capacitance, which is defined as the ratio of the charge stored on the capacitor to the voltage applied across the plates. The capacitance C of a capacitor is given by the equation C=Q/V. Therefore, the capacitance of the first capacitor, C1, is C1=Q/V, and the capacitance of the second capacitor, C2, is C2=(2Q)/V. It is seen that the capacitance of the second capacitor is double that of the first. This is because the area of the second capacitor is double that of the first. Therefore, the same charge Q stored on the first capacitor is distributed over twice the area in the second capacitor, resulting in the capacitance being double. This can be mathematically expressed as C2 = 2C1. Thus, two parallel-plate capacitors with the same charge Q but different areas (A and 2A) can be compared by looking at the capacitance. The capacitance of the second capacitor is double that of the first due to the increase in area.

To learn more about Capacitors :

https://brainly.com/question/27753307

#SPJ11

Answer:

it's b

Explanation:

no shade, direct sunlight

Answer: simple harmonic motion

Simple harmonic motion. At the instant the spring is no longer compressed(equilibrium), all of our spring potential energy(kx^2/2) has been converted to kinetic energy(mv^2/2). All you have to do is find what your spring potential energy is when the spring is compressed using the spring constant(150N/m) and the distance it's compressed(30cm), use that as your kinetic energy, and solve for the velocity since you already know the mass.

The correct answer is a. x-rays is produced by the sudden deceleration of high speed electrons.

What is x-rays?

When high-speed electrons are suddenly decelerated or slowed down, they release energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation. This process is known as bremsstrahlung or "braking radiation". The energy of the emitted radiation depends on the initial speed of the electrons and the degree of deceleration.

In the case of bremsstrahlung, the emitted radiation can range from radio waves to gamma rays, but the highest energy radiation produced by bremsstrahlung is x-rays. Therefore, the sudden deceleration of high-speed electrons produces x-rays.

X-rays are ionizing radiation, meaning that they have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms or molecules, which can cause damage to living tissue. Therefore, exposure to X-rays should be limited and controlled to minimize health risks.

To know more about x-rays, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29790297

#SPJ1

Complete question is: x-rays is produced by the sudden deceleration of high speed electrons.

Answer:

Explanation:

Density is a measure of how much mass is contained in a given volume. It is the amount of matter (mass) in a given space (volume). Density is usually expressed in units of mass per unit of volume, such as kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m³) or grams per milliliter (g/mL).

Volume is the amount of space occupied by an object or substance. It is the measurement of the three-dimensional space occupied by an object, substance, or material. Volume can be measured in different units, such as liters (L), cubic meters (m³), or cubic feet (ft³), depending on the scale of the object being measured.

Answer:B. Microwaves

Explanation:

Hope this helped you. Pls brainliest! :D

The potential difference across C4 can be found using the equation V = V4 - V3. Using the given values, V = 12.0V, C1 = 3.0 ?F, C2 = 2.0 ?F, C3 = 2.0 ?F, C4 = 1.0 ?F, and C5 = 4.0 ?F, we can solve for V4.

V4 = 12.0V + (3.0 ?F + 2.0 ?F + 2.0 ?F + 1.0 ?F) / (1.0 ?F + 4.0 ?F)
V4 = 12.0V + (8.0 ?F / 5.0 ?F)
V4 = 12.0V + 1.6V
V4 = 13.6V
Therefore, the potential difference across C4 is 13.6V - 12.0V = 1.6V.
The potential difference across C4 can be determined using the formula Q = CV. Where Q represents the charge stored in the capacitor, C represents capacitance, and V represents the potential difference across the capacitorTo determine the potential difference across C4, we can use the formula Q = CV. To determine Q, we need to determine the equivalent capacitance of the circuit.

The equivalent capacitance of capacitors in parallel is equal to the sum of their capacitance. The equivalent capacitance of capacitors in series is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of their reciprocals.C1, C2, and C3 are in series, and their equivalent capacitance is given by:C_eq1=1/((1/C1)+(1/C2)+(1/C3))=1/(1/3+1/2+1/2)=3/7 μF{C_eq1=1/((1/C1)+(1/C2)+(1/C3))=1/(1/3+1/2+1/2)=3/7μF}C_eq2 is the equivalent capacitance of C4 and C5 in parallel.C_eq2=C4+C5=1+4=5μF {C_eq2=C4+C5=1+4=5μF}

Now we can determine the equivalent capacitance of the entire circuit.C_eq=C_eq1+C_eq2=3/7+5=38/7μF{C_eq=C_eq1+C_eq2=3/7+5=38/7μF}Now, we can determine the charge stored in the circuit.Q=C_eqV=38/7*12= 65.14μC{Q=C_eqV=38/7*12=65.14μC}To determine the potential difference across C4, we can use the formula Q = CV.V=C4Q/C4= 65.14/1 = 65.14V{V=C4Q/C4=65.14/1=65.14V}Therefore, the potential difference across C4 is 65.14 V.

For more such questions on potential difference

https://brainly.com/question/3535763

#SPJ11

a) We can use Coulomb's law to calculate the electric field vector at the point (8,16) m due to the point charge placed on the x-y plane.

The electric field vector is given by E = F/q, where F is the force exerted on the point charge and q is the magnitude of the charge. The force exerted on the charge is (21 + 4j) N. The magnitude of the charge is given by q = F/E, where E is the electric field at the point (8,16) m. Therefore, we have:

E = F/q = (21 + 4j) N / (-15 nC) = (-1.4 - 0.267j) x 10⁶ N/C

So, the electric field vector at the point (8,16) m is (-1.4 - 0.267j) x 10⁶N/C.

b) To determine the magnitude and sign of the point charge that produces the electric field calculated in part (a), we can use the formula for the electric field of a point charge. The electric field at a point P due to a point charge q located at the origin is given by:

E = kq/r²

q is the charge of the point charge, and r is the distance between the point charge and point P. We can rearrange this equation to solve for q:

q = Er²/k

for E and r (r = sqrt(8² + 16²) = 17.89 m) we get:

q = (-1.4 - 0.267j) x 10^6 N/C x (17.89 m)² / (8.99 x 10⁹ N m²/C²) = -5.37 nC

So, the magnitude of the point charge is 5.37 nC and its sign is negative, indicating that it is an additional negative charge placed at the origin that produces the electric field calculated in part (a).

To know more about magnitude , visit :

https://brainly.com/question/14452091

#SPJ1

The electric field vector at the point (8, 16) m is (-5.53i - 11.07j) N/C. and

the magnitude of the point charge is 2.11 nC and the sign is negative, indicating that it is the same as the original point charge placed on the x-y plane.

The steps are as following to calculate the given question :-

a. To calculate the electric field vector at the point (8, 16) m due to the -15 nC point charge, we can use Coulomb's law:

The distance between the two points is given by:

r = sqrt[(8-0)^2 + (16-0)^2] = 17.8885 m

The electric field vector is given by:

E = k*q/r^2 * r_hat

where k is the Coulomb constant (k = 9x10^9 N*m^2/C^2), q is the charge of the point charge, r_hat is the unit vector pointing from the point charge to the point of interest.

Since the point charge is negative, the electric field vector points towards the point charge. Therefore, r_hat = -icosθ - jsinθ, where θ is the angle between the vector pointing from the point charge to the point of interest and the x-axis.

θ = atan2(16, 8) = 63.43 degrees

So, r_hat = -0.4472i - 0.8944j

Plugging in the values, we get:

E = (9x10^9 Nm^2/C^2)(-15x10^-9 C)/(17.8885m)^2 * (-0.4472i - 0.8944j)

E = -5.53i - 11.07j N/C

Therefore, the electric field vector at the point (8, 16) m is (-5.53i - 11.07j) N/C.

b. To find the magnitude and sign of the point charge that produces this electric field, we can use the formula:

E = k*q/r^2

where E is the magnitude of the electric field, k is the Coulomb constant, q is the charge of the point charge, and r is the distance between the point charge and the point of interest.

Plugging in the values, we get:

E = (9x10^9 N*m^2/C^2)*q/(17.8885m)^2

-11.07 N/C = (9x10^9 N*m^2/C^2)*q/(17.8885m)^2

Solving for q, we get:

q = -2.11x10^-9 C

Therefore, the magnitude of the point charge is 2.11 nC and the sign is negative, indicating that it is the same as the original point charge placed on the x-y plane.

To know more about charge visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/18102056

#SPJ1

The correct answer is C) 55 m/s. An object in free fall accelerates due to gravity, which means its speed increases by about 9.8 m/s2 every second. So in one second, its speed increased from 50 m/s to 50 + 9.8 = 59.8 m/s. Since it is impossible for the object to have a speed of 59.8 m/s, the closest answer is C) 55 m/s.

Given,An object in free fall is moving downward at 50 meters per second.At one-second later its speed is about.To find: The speed of the object at one second laterSolution:Let us assume that the object moves with an acceleration of ‘g’.Given, Initial velocity, u = 50 m/s

Time taken, t = 1sWe know that the velocity of an object in freefall is given by:v = u + gtFrom the above equation, we can calculate the final velocity of the object after one secondv = u + gtv = 50 + 9.8 × 1v = 50 + 9.8v = 59.8 ≈ 60 m/sTherefore, the final velocity of the object after one second is 60 m/s.Hence, the correct option is (D) 60 m/s.

For more such questions on accelerates

https://brainly.com/question/30649277

#SPJ11

Small bodies with high thermal conductivity, the medium should be a poor conductor of heat and should be motionless in order to favour lumped system analysis.

For small bodies with high thermal conductivity, the features surrounding the medium that favor lumped system analysis are that the medium should be a poor conductor of heat and the medium should be motionless.

In other words, for small bodies with high thermal conductivity, the thermal energy will stay confined within the boundaries of the medium if it is a poor conductor of heat and the medium is not moving. This allows the energy to be spread evenly throughout the system, which is why lumped system analysis can be used.

Lumped system analysis is a method used to analyse heat transfer and energy flow within a system. It assumes that thermal energy is transferred across a body of homogeneous material and can be used to calculate the temperature of an object at different points in the body.

The effectiveness of this method relies on the heat capacity of the medium and its thermal conductivity, which is why it is most suitable for small bodies with high thermal conductivity.

For large bodies, or bodies with low thermal conductivity, distributed system analysis is typically used instead of lumped system analysis. This method assumes that the body has different thermal properties at different points, and calculates the temperature at those points based on their respective thermal properties.

For similar questions on thermal conductivity

https://brainly.com/question/29419715

#SPJ11

Answer:

P1 = 45,174 Pa

P2 = 90,348 Pa

W = 2,259 J

Q = 2,259 J

ΔS = 0

Explanation:

We can use the ideal gas law, PV = nRT, to solve this problem. Since the gas is at constant temperature (isothermal), we can simplify this to PV = constant.

Given that there are two moles of oxygen gas in a volume of 0.1 m^3 at 273 K, we can calculate the initial pressure as follows:

P1V1 = nRT

P1 = nRT/V1

P1 = (2 mol)(8.31 J/mol.K)(273 K)/(0.1 m^3)

P1 = 45,174 Pa

Next, we compress the gas reversibly to half of its original volume (i.e. V2 = 0.05 m^3) at constant pressure. We can use the same equation, PV = constant, and the fact that the pressure is constant to solve for the final pressure:

P1V1 = P2V2

P2 = P1V1/V2

P2 = (45,174 Pa)(0.1 m^3)/(0.05 m^3)

P2 = 90,348 Pa

Now, we can calculate the work done during the compression process using the equation:

W = -PΔV

where ΔV is the change in volume (i.e. V2 - V1 = -0.05 m^3), and the negative sign indicates that work is done on the system during compression. Substituting the values, we get:

W = -(45,174 Pa)(-0.05 m^3)

W = 2,259 J

Finally, we can calculate the heat added to the system using the first law of thermodynamics:

ΔU = Q - W

where ΔU is the change in internal energy (which is zero since the temperature is constant), Q is the heat added to the system, and W is the work done on the system (which is negative). Solving for Q, we get:

Q = ΔU + W

Q = 0 J + 2,259 J

Q = 2,259 J

Since the temperature is constant, the heat added to the system is equal to the change in enthalpy:

ΔH = Q = 2,259 J

We can also calculate the change in entropy using the equation:

ΔS = nCv ln(T2/T1)

where Cv is the molar heat capacity at constant volume (which is given as 22.1 J/K.mol), and ln(T2/T1) is the natural logarithm of the ratio of final and initial temperatures. Since the temperature is constant, ΔS = 0.

Therefore, the final answers are:

P1 = 45,174 Pa

P2 = 90,348 Pa

W = 2,259 J

Q = 2,259 J

ΔS = 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The work-energy theorem states that the net work done on an object is equal to its change in kinetic energy. Therefore, we can use this theorem to calculate the final kinetic energy of the ball in each case.

We know that the work done by a constant force is given by the equation W = Fd cos(theta), where F is the magnitude of the force, d is the displacement of the ball, and theta is the angle between the force and displacement vectors.

Using the work-energy theorem, we can write:

W = ΔK = Kf - Ki

where ΔK is the change in kinetic energy, Kf is the final kinetic energy, and Ki is the initial kinetic energy.

We can rearrange this equation to solve for Kf:

Kf = Ki + W = Ki + Fd cos(theta)

a) Kf = 150 J + (10 N)(15 m)cos(90°) = 150 J

b) Kf = 300 J + (200 N)(1.5 m)cos(180°) = 0 J

c) Kf = 200 J + (25 N)(4 m)cos(0°) = 300 J

d) Kf = 450 J + (15 N)(30 m)cos(150°) = 112.5 J

Ranking from greatest to least final kinetic energy:

c) Ki=200J F=25N d=4m theta=0 degrees

a) Ki=150J F=10N d=15m theta=90 degrees

d) Ki=450J F=15N d=30m theta=150 degrees​

b) Ki=300J F=200N d=1.5m theta=180 degrees

For the event to occur, Aircraft B will have travelled a distance of 980 NM.

Since Aircraft A is flying East, we can assume that the positive direction is to the East and negative direction is to the West. Let's assume that the position of Aircraft A is x and position of Aircraft B is x + 210 NM.

Let t be the time it takes for Aircraft A to catch up with Aircraft B. At that moment, both aircraft will be at the same position, so:

distance traveled by Aircraft A = distance traveled by Aircraft B

Ground speed x time = Ground speed x time + 210

Using the given ground speeds, we can set up the equation as:

340t = 280t + 210

60t = 210

t = 3.5 hours

Therefore, Aircraft B will have traveled a distance of:

distance = ground speed x time

distance = 280 kt x 3.5 hr

distance = 980 NM

So, Aircraft B will have traveled 980 NM when Aircraft A catches up with it at Point X.

Find out more on Aircraft here: https://brainly.com/question/31362675

#SPJ1

Answer:

Explanation:

Planetary Flyby:

The spacecraft does not go into orbit around the planet; instead, it uses the planet's gravity to change its speed and direction.

The spacecraft's closest approach to the planet is usually brief, ranging from a few minutes to a few hours.

The spacecraft is able to capture images and data during the brief encounter with the planet.

The spacecraft's trajectory can be adjusted to perform multiple flybys of different planets or moons.

The spacecraft does not require a large amount of fuel to perform a flyby, making it a cost-effective option for exploration.

Flybys are useful for studying a planet's atmosphere, magnetic field, and gravitational field.

Planetary Orbit Insertion:

The spacecraft goes into orbit around the planet, allowing for long-term study and data collection.

The spacecraft's orbit can be adjusted to achieve different scientific objectives, such as mapping the planet's surface or studying its atmosphere.

The spacecraft must have enough fuel to slow down and enter orbit, making it a more expensive option than a flyby.

The spacecraft's orbit can be stable or elliptical, depending on the scientific objectives and mission requirements.

The spacecraft may require several trajectory adjustments to achieve the desired orbit.

Orbit insertion allows for more detailed and comprehensive study of a planet's geology, climate, and magnetic field.

Cleats or dogs are pieces of metal that are temporarily attached to the weldment’s parts to enable them to be forced into place. Anytime these pieces of metal are used, they must be removed, and the area around Smooth

In this case option D

Cleats or dogs are pieces of metal that are commonly used in welding to temporarily attach the parts of the weldment in place. They are typically small metal pieces with angled ends that can be clamped or welded onto the parts being joined to hold them in the correct position during the welding process.

Once the welding is completed, the cleats or dogs must be removed and the area where they were attached must be ground smooth.

This ensures that the final welded joint has a smooth and even surface and that there are no residual metal pieces that could interfere with the joint's structural integrity.

To know more about " Cleats or dogs. here

https://brainly.com/question/28447542

#SPJ4

The beat frequency produced when a 240-hertz tuning fork and a 246-hertz tuning fork are sounded together would be 6 hertz. Option D.

The beat frequency produced when two tuning forks are sounded together is equal to the absolute value of the difference between their frequencies.

In this case, the beat frequency is:

|240 Hz - 246 Hz| = |-6 Hz| = 6 Hz

Therefore, the answer is (d) 6 hertz.

More on beat frequency can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/14705053

#SPJ1

To find:-

Answer:-

We are here given that two long current carrying wires are having same current. We need to find out the magnetic field at the centre between the wires .

We know that for a point between two ends of a wire , magnetic field is given by,

[tex]\implies B =\dfrac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\dfrac{2i}{d}\\[/tex]

where ,

Now since magnetic field is a vector quantity we need to find out the direction of the field . We can do so by using Right Hand thumb rule .

Right hand thumb rule :-

Hold the wire , in your hand with thumbs towards the direction of the current, then the curling of the fingers would give you the direction of the magnetic field.

For wire AB :-

The direction comes to be down the page .

For wire CD :-

The direction comes to be down the page .

Calculating net magnetic field:-

The net magnetic field will be the sum of both the fields .

[tex]\implies B_{net}=\dfrac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\dfrac{2i}{d}+\dfrac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\dfrac{2i}{d} \\[/tex]

[tex]\implies B_{net}=\dfrac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\dfrac{4i}{d}\\[/tex]

[tex]\implies \underline{\underline{\green{ B_{net}=\dfrac{\mu_0i}{ \pi d}}}}\\[/tex]

The direction is down the page .

and we are done!

Answer:

The linear velocity of blood in the aorta can be calculated using the equation:

v = Q / A

where v is the linear velocity, Q is the volume flow rate, and A is the cross-sectional area of the vessel.

The volume flow rate Q can be calculated using the equation:

Q = SV / t

where SV is the stroke volume and t is the duration of systole.

The cross-sectional area of the aorta can be calculated using the equation:

A = πr^2

where r is the radius of the aorta.

Given that the radius of the aorta is 1.5 cm, the stroke volume is 60 ml, and the duration of systole is 0.25 s, we can calculate the volume flow rate Q:

Q = SV / t = 60 ml / 0.25 s = 240 ml/s

Converting the units of Q to cm^3/s:

Q = 240 ml/s × 1 cm^3/1 ml = 240 cm^3/s

We can then calculate the cross-sectional area of the aorta:

A = πr^2 = π × (1.5 cm)^2 = 7.07 cm^2

Finally, we can calculate the linear velocity of blood in the aorta:

v = Q / A = 240 cm^3/s / 7.07 cm^2 = 33.9 cm/s

Therefore, the linear velocity of blood in the aorta is 33.9 cm/s.

The x, y, and z components of the acceleration are -3.17 x 10^2 m/s^2, -3.17 x 10^2 m/s^2, and -3.17 x 10^-1 m/s^2, respectively.

What is Acceleration?

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. When an object undergoes acceleration, its velocity changes either in magnitude, direction, or both. The formula for acceleration is a = (v_f - v_i) / t, where a is acceleration, v_f is final velocity, v_i is initial velocity, and t is the time taken for the change in velocity.

Using the formula for the magnetic force on a moving charged particle, F = q(v x B), we can find the acceleration vector by dividing the force by the mass of the particle, a = F/m.

The velocity vector v = (0, 3.00 x 10^4, 0) m/s has only a y-component, and the magnetic field vector B = (1.63, 0.980, 0) T has only x- and y-components. Therefore, the cross product of v and B only has a z-component:

v x B = (3.00 x 10^4)i x 0.980j - (3.00 x 10^4)j x 1.63i = -4.71 x 10^7 k m/s

The magnetic force on the charge is then given by:

F = q(v x B) = (1.22 x 10^-8 C)(-4.71 x 10^7 k m/s) = -5.74 x 10^-1 N k

Finally, the acceleration vector is:

a = F/m = (-5.74 x 10^-1 N k)/(1.81 x 10^-3 kg) = (-3.17 x 10^2 i - 3.17 x 10^2 j - 3.17 x 10^-1 k) m/s^2

Learn more about Acceleration from given link

https://brainly.com/question/460763

#SPJ1

Answer: 8.38 revolutions per second

Explanation:

Before the second disk is dropped, the initial angular momentum of the system is given by:

L = I1 * w1

where I1 is the moment of inertia of the first disk, and w1 is its angular velocity.

Substituting the given values, we have:

L = (25 kg m^2) * (2 rev/sec * 2π rad/rev) = 100π kg m^2/s

When the second disk is dropped onto the rotating disk, the total moment of inertia of the system will be the sum of the moment of inertia of the first disk and the moment of inertia of the second disk:

Itotal = I1 + I2/2

where I2/2 is the moment of inertia of the second disk, which is half as large as that of the first disk.

Substituting the given values, we have:

Itotal = (25 kg m^2) + (12.5 kg m^2) = 37.5 kg m^2

Conservation of angular momentum requires that the initial angular momentum of the system be equal to its final angular momentum, so:

L = Itotal * wf

where wf is the final angular velocity of the combined disk.

Solving for wf, we get:

wf = L / Itotal = (100π kg m^2/s) / (37.5 kg m^2) ≈ 8.38 rev/sec

Therefore, the new rotational speed of the combined rotating object is approximately 8.38 revolutions per second.

If pulse 1 is reflected from a wall, pattern 2 would represent the reflected pulse. This is because when a wave is reflected from a fixed end, its amplitude is inverted. So, pattern 2 represents the reflection of pulse 1 from a fixed end.

A pulse is a short burst of energy that travels through space or matter. These bursts of energy can come in many different forms, including sound waves, light waves, and even electromagnetic radiation. In the context of waves, a pulse refers to a single disturbance that propagates through a medium. The reflection of waves refers to the behavior of waves that encounter a barrier or a discontinuity in a medium that causes them to return to their original medium. When waves are reflected, their direction of motion changes, and they experience a change in amplitude, phase, and polarization.

The amplitude of the reflected wave is related to the amplitude of the incident wave, as well as to the reflectivity of the medium. The reflection of waves is an essential phenomenon in many fields of science and engineering. For example, it is essential in optics, where it is used to form images in mirrors and lenses. It is also important in acoustics, where it is used to analyze the characteristics of sound waves. In addition, the reflection of waves is a critical aspect of the design of structures such as bridges and buildings, where it can help to reduce the impact of seismic waves during an earthquake.

To learn more about Amplitude ;

https://brainly.com/question/3613222

#SPJ11

Explanation:

hope its help thank you

follow nyo po me

Answer:

Explanation:

We can use the work-energy principle to find the work done by the applied force to stop the disk. The work-energy principle states that the work done by all forces acting on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy:

W = ΔK

where W is the work done, and ΔK is the change in kinetic energy.

Initially, the disk is rotating with an angular velocity of 950 rev/min. We need to convert this to radians per second, which gives:

ω_initial = (950 rev/min) × (2π rad/rev) × (1 min/60 s) = 99.23 rad/s

The initial kinetic energy of the disk is:

K_initial = (1/2) I ω_initial^2

where I is the moment of inertia of the disk about its axis of rotation. For a uniform disk, the moment of inertia is:

I = (1/2) m R^2

where m is the mass of the disk, and R is the radius. Substituting the given values, we get:

I = (1/2) (190 kg) (1.1 m)^2 = 115.5 kg m^2

Therefore, the initial kinetic energy of the disk is:

K_initial = (1/2) (115.5 kg m^2) (99.23 rad/s)^2 = 565201 J

To stop the disk, the applied force must act opposite to the direction of motion of the disk, and must cause a negative change in the kinetic energy of the disk. The force is applied at a radial distance of 0.5 m, which gives a torque of:

τ = F r

where F is the magnitude of the force. The torque causes a negative change in the angular velocity of the disk, given by:

Δω = τ / I

The work done by the applied force is:

W = ΔK = - (1/2) I Δω^2

Substituting the given values, we get:

W = - (1/2) (115.5 kg m^2) [(F r) / I]^2

The force F can be eliminated using the equation for torque:

F = τ / r = (Δω) I / r

Substituting this into the equation for work, we get:

W = - (1/2) (115.5 kg m^2) [(Δω) I / r I]^2

= - (1/2) (115.5 kg m^2) (Δω / r)^2

Substituting the values for Δω and r, we get:

W = - (1/2) (115.5 kg m^2) [(F r / I) / r]^2

= - (1/2) (115.5 kg m^2) [(2 Δω / R) / (2/5 m R^2)]^2

= - (1/2) (115.5 kg m^2) (25/4) (2 Δω / R)^2

= - 90609 J

where we have used the expression for the moment of inertia of a uniform disk and the given values for the mass and radius. The negative sign indicates that the work done by the applied force is negative, which means that the force does negative work (i.e., it takes energy away from the system). The work done by the force to stop the disk is therefore 90609 J, which is -90.6 kJ (to two decimal places).

Answer:

False. Adult brains are capable of neurogenesis, which is the process of generating new neurons (nerve cells) in the brain. Although it was previously believed that neurogenesis only occurred during early development, research has shown that certain regions of the brain, such as the hippocampus, continue to produce new neurons throughout adulthood. However, the rate of neurogenesis in adults is much lower than in developing brains

EX :SOMEONE FATHER TODAY YOUR FATHER DOES,T KNOW ABOUT TECH OR ANY SAMRT APPS BUT HE KNOW BETTER N HIS GENRATON

The induced emf by the formula that we have can be obtained as 4.3 * 10^-4 V.

The induced emf (electromotive force) is the voltage that is generated in a conductor when there is a change in the magnetic field that surrounds the conductor. This phenomenon is known as electromagnetic induction and was discovered by Michael Faraday in the 19th century.

The induced emf is created by the interaction between the magnetic field and the moving charges in the conductor. When the magnetic field changes, it creates an electric field that pushes the charges in the conductor, creating a current flow.

Using emf = NAdB/dt

= 20 * (0.16)^2 *  8.4 × 10-4 T/s

4.3 * 10^-4 V

Learn more about emf:https://brainly.com/question/15121836

#SPJ1

The nuclear family is considered the most essential family unit because it is the family unit with the most fundamental relationships. that's why the Given statement is False.

In a nuclear family, parents and their children live in a household. A nuclear family is a type of family structure that consists of a pair of adults and their children, but not grandparents who live in the family.

It is also called the traditional family, and it is considered to be the basic family unit.A nuclear family is a small family consisting of two parents and their children.

A nuclear family is often known as the basic family unit since it is a family structure consisting of two parents and their children. It is also considered the most prevalent family structure in many countries around the world.

for such more question on nuclear family

https://brainly.com/question/14512503

#SPJ11

A battleship simultaneously fires two shells in parabolic projectile motion and no information about initial speeds at enemy ships. The ship B got hit first. So, the correct choice for answer is option (c).

Here is we have a battleship Which fires two shells simultaneously at the enemy ship along the two paths. The initial speed of projection may be same or different. See the above figure carefully, the angle of projection for ship A is more than ship B. Time of flight for ship A is

[tex]T_A = \frac{ 2u_{A} sinθ_{A}}{g }[/tex]

For ship B, [tex]T_B = \frac{2u_B sinθ_{B}}{g }[/tex]

We have no idea about the initial speed of projection, so we cannot consider it for comparison. As we know from above,

[tex]θ_{A} > θ_{B}[/tex]

=> [tex]sinθ_{A} > sinθ_{B}[/tex]

So, [tex]T_{A} > T_{B}[/tex]

That is time of flight for ship A is greater than for the ship B. Therefore, ship B gets hit first.

For more information about projectile motion, visit :

https://brainly.com/question/28687429

#SPJ4

Complete question:

A battleship simultaneously fires two shells at enemy ships. if the shells follow the parabolic trajectories shown, which ship gets hit first?

a) A

b) both simultaneously

c) B

d) None

The horizontal force that was exerted by the wind on the mast based on the power is 67.3KN.

Blade Stan, d = 75m

Radius of Blade, r = 75m

wind velocity, V = 30 km/h V = 8.333 m/s

Turbine Generator efficiency or Power Co-efficient ((p) = 32% 0.32.

Flow rate across the turbine (in) = 125X8.333X X (75) 2 m

= 46017.583 kg/s

Air Exit velocity, Ve = V×√1 - Nterbine

Ve = 8.333 x √1 1- 0.32

Ve = 6.872 mls

Horizental force in x-direction (F); -

Fx = m (ve-v)

Fx = 46017-583X(6-872-8.333) = 67265.381 N

The Horizental force Extered on the Supporting mast F = -F F= 67.2654 KN

Learn more about power on:

https://brainly.com/question/2248465

#SPJ1

Determine the horizontal force that was exerted by the wind on the mast base

The time that was taken for the movement of the item is observed as 3 seconds.

The equations of motion describe the motion of objects in terms of their position, velocity, acceleration, and time.

For the equation;

v = u + at

This equation relates the final velocity (v) of an object to its initial velocity (u), acceleration (a), and time (t). If three of these variables are known, the equation can be rearranged to solve for the unknown variable.

We know that;

v = u - gt

We know that the object would come to rest after being thrown.

0 = 30 - 10t

-30 = - 10t

t = 3 seconds

Learn more about equations of motion:https://brainly.com/question/29278163

#SPJ1

the given values, we get va = sqrt((350 kg * 9.81 m/s² - 0)))

Since the cable is inextensible, the distance moved by both blocks is the same.

Let's denote the distance moved by both blocks as "d". Then, the distance moved by block A is "1m + d" to the right.

Using conservation of energy, we can write:

(1/2) * ma * va² + (1/2) * mb * vb²= (ma + mb) * g * d

where ma and mb are the masses of blocks A and B, va and vb are their velocities, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Since the system is released from rest, va = 0, and we can solve for vb:

(1/2) * mb * vb²= (ma + mb) * g * d

vb²= 2 * (ma + mb) * g * d / mb

vb = sqrt(2 * (ma + mb) * g * d / mb)

Now, we need to find the velocity of block A after it has moved 1m + d to the right. To do this, we can use the equations of motion. Since block A is moving to the right, we take the positive x direction to be to the right. Then, we have:

ma * a = T - fa

where a is the acceleration of block A, T is the tension in the cable, and fa is the frictional force acting on block A due to the incline.

The tension in the cable is the same throughout, so we can write:

T = mb * g

The frictional force fa can be calculated using:

fa = µ * ma * g * cos(theta)

where µ is the coefficient of friction, theta is the angle of the incline, and cos(theta) = 1/sqrt(2) since the incline makes a 45 degree angle with the horizontal.

Substituting these values, we get:

ma * a = mb * g - µ * ma * g / sqrt(2)

Solving for a, we get:

a = (mb * g - µ * ma * g / sqrt(2)) / ma

Now, we can use the equations of motion again to find the final velocity of block A after it has moved 1m + d to the right. We have:

d = (1/2) * a * t²

where t is the time taken by block A to move 1m + d to the right.

Substituting the value of a, we get:

d = (1/2) * [(mb * g - µ * ma * g / sqrt(2)) / ma] * t²

Solving for t, we get:

t = sqrt(2 * d * ma / (mb * g - µ * ma * g / sqrt(2)))

Finally, we can use the equations of motion again to find the final velocity of block A. We have:

1m + d = (1/2) * a * t²

Substituting the values of a and t, we get:

1m + d = (1/2) * [(mb * g - µ * ma * g / sqrt(2)) / ma] * [2 * d * ma / (mb * g - µ * ma * g / sqrt(2))]²

Solving for the final velocity of block A, we get:

va = sqrt((mb * g - µ * ma * g / sqrt(2)) / ma * (1m + d) / 2)

Substituting the given values, we get:

va = sqrt((350 kg * 9.81 m/s² - 0

To know more about velocity visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/80295

#SPJ1