I don't get this can somone help me please ​

Answer:

i think 60 degree is the answer

Answer:

72°

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 5 petals , so

angle of rotation = 360° ÷ 5 = 72°

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope intercept form is y = mx + b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept SO

y = mx + b

3y - 9 = 12x

3y = 12x + 9 (divide by common denominator 3)

y = 4x + 3

Answer:

5/13

Step-by-step explanation:

Sin = 12/13

cos= 5/13

Tan= 12/5

Answer:

y-intercept is 0, x-intercept is 0 and 1

Step-by-step explanation:

For y-intercept, x=0 :

[tex]{ \tt{y = {(0)}^{2} - 2(0) }} \\ { \tt{y = 0}}[/tex]

For x-intercept, y=0 :

[tex]{ \tt{0 = {2x}^{2} - 2x }} \\ { \tt{2x(x - 1) = 0}} \\ { \tt{x = 0 \: \: and \: \: 1}}[/tex]

Answer:

In recreational mathematics, a square array of numbers, usually positive integers, is called a magic square if the sums of the numbers in each row, each column, and both main diagonals are the same.[1][2] The order of the magic square is the number of integers along one side (n), and the constant sum is called the magic constant. If the array includes just the positive integers {\displaystyle 1,2,...,n^{2}}{\displaystyle 1,2,...,n^{2}}, the magic square is said to be normal. Some authors take magic square to mean normal magic square.[3]

The smallest (and unique up to rotation and reflection) non-trivial case of a magic square, order 3

Magic squares that include repeated entries do not fall under this definition and are referred to as trivial. Some well-known examples, including the Sagrada Família magic square and the Parker square are trivial in this sense. When all the rows and columns but not both diagonals sum to the magic constant we have semimagic squares (sometimes called orthomagic squares).

The mathematical study of magic squares typically deals with its construction, classification, and enumeration. Although completely general methods for producing all the magic squares of all orders do not exist, historically three general techniques have been discovered: by bordering method, by making composite magic squares, and by adding two preliminary squares. There are also more specific strategies like the continuous enumeration method that reproduces specific patterns. Magic squares are generally classified according to their order n as: odd if n is odd, evenly even (also referred to as "doubly even") if n is a multiple of 4, oddly even (also known as "singly even") if n is any other even number. This classification is based on different techniques required to construct odd, evenly even, and oddly even squares. Beside this, depending on further properties, magic squares are also classified as associative magic squares, pandiagonal magic squares, most-perfect magic squares, and so on. More challengingly, attempts have also been made to classify all the magic squares of a given order as transformations of a smaller set of squares. Except for n ≤ 5, the enumeration of higher order magic squares is still an open challenge. The enumeration of most-perfect magic squares of any order was only accomplished in the late 20th century.

Magic squares have a long history, dating back to at least 190 BCE in China. At various times they have acquired occult or mythical significance, and have appeared as symbols in works of art. In modern times they have been generalized a number of ways, including using extra or different constraints, multiplying instead of adding cells, using alternate shapes or more than two dimensions, and replacing numbers with shapes and addition with geometric operations.

The sum area of shaded region​ is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex].

The formula to find the sum of infinite geometric progression is

[tex]S_{n}=\frac{a_{1}(1-q^{n}) }{1-q} \ \ q \ne 1[/tex]

Given

S = [tex]\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{16} +\frac{1}{64} +.........[/tex]

Using geometric progression

S = [tex]\lim_{h \to \infty} [\frac{1}{4} +(\frac{1}{4} )^{2} +(\frac{1}{4} )^{3} +.........+(\frac{1}{4} )^{n}][/tex]

Using summation formula for geometric progression

[tex]S_{n}=\frac{a_{1}(1-q^{n}) }{1-q} \ \ q \ne 1[/tex]

= [tex]\lim_{h \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{4} (1-(\frac{1}{4} )^{n} }{1-\frac{1}{4} }[/tex]

= [tex]\lim_{h \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{4} (1-\frac{1}{4^{n} }) }{\frac{3}{4} }[/tex]

= [tex]\lim_{h\to \infty} \frac{1}{3}(1-\frac{1}{4^{n} } )[/tex]

[tex]\lim_{h\to \infty} \frac{1}{4^{n} }[/tex] = 0

S  = [tex]\frac{1}{3}(1-0) = \frac{1}{3}[/tex]

The sum area of shaded region​ is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex].

Find out more information about summation formula for geometric progression here

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Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

tan B = sin B / cos B = 3/4 Let sin B =3 and cos B = 4

Cot B = cos B / sin B = 4/3

This is true

Answer:

-3/2 >x

Step-by-step explanation:

-5-15>10+20x

Combine like terms

-20 > 10 +20x

Subtract 20 from each side

-20 -10 > 10+20x-10

-30> 20x

Divide by 20

-30/20 >20x/20

-3/2 >x

Answer:

-3/2 > x

Step-by-step explanation:

-5 - 15 > 10 + 20x

 ^    ^

  -20

-20 > 10 + 20x

-10    -10

---------------------

-30 > 20x

-----   -------

20     20

-3/2 > x

Hope this helped.

Answer:

3 hours 26 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

26 minutes(9.34am to 10am)+3 hours(10am to 1pm)=3 hours 26 minutes

The total time that she spend fixing her bicycle is 3 hr 26 minutes

Given the following parameters

Time that Olivia starts fixing bicycle= 9:34 am

Time she finishes = 1pm

The total number of hours spent from 9:34am and 12:34pm is 3 hrs. The remaining minutes to 1 pm is 26 minutes.

Hence the total time that she spend fixing her bicycle is 3 hr 26 minutes

Learn more on time here: https://brainly.com/question/2854969

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Answer:

21.758

Step-by-step explanation:

If you draw the triangle out, you find that cos 41 = x/28.83, when x is equal to the side opposite the 49 angle

Simplify this into 28.83 cos 41, and plug it into the calculator and you get

21.75827.

Answer:

$239

Step-by-step explanation:

20+25+22+30+15+18+20+17+30+27+15=239

Answer:

41 cm Hg

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

3w + 2 = 20

       -2    -2

------------------

3w = 18

----    ----

 3       3

   w = 6

You and your 2 friends have 20 fruits in total and your friend's mother gave you and your friends two more.

Hope this helped.

Equation – 3w + 2 = 20

Transpose 2 to the right hand side of the given equation

Now, simplify the right hand side

Cross multiply

Hence, the solution of the equation is 6

Given:

[tex]ABDF\sim VXZT[/tex]

To find:

The pairs of congruent angles and the extended proportion that relates the corresponding sides for the similar polygons.

Solution:

We have,

[tex]ABDF\sim VXZT[/tex]

The corresponding angles of similar polygons are congruent. So,

[tex]\angle A\cong \angle V[/tex]

[tex]\angle B\cong \angle X[/tex]

[tex]\angle D\cong \angle Z[/tex]

[tex]\angle F\cong \angle T[/tex]

The corresponding sides of similar polygons are proportional. So,

[tex]\dfrac{AB}{VX}=\dfrac{BD}{XZ}=\dfrac{DF}{ZT}=\dfrac{A F}{VT}[/tex]

Therefore, the required solutions are [tex]\angle A\cong \angle V,\angle B\cong \angle X,\angle D\cong \angle Z,\angle F\cong \angle T[/tex] and [tex]\dfrac{AB}{VX}=\dfrac{BD}{XZ}=\dfrac{DF}{ZT}=\dfrac{A F}{VT}[/tex].

Answer:

92

Step-by-step explanation:

180-88

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

First use the Pythagorean theorem a^2+b^2=c^2.

12^2+b^2=20^2. Solve the exponents: 144+b^2=400. Then, subtract the 144 from 400. That would be 256. Therefore b^2=256. Then you find the square root of 256=16.

Step-by-step explanation:

using pythogoras theory

hyp^2=opp^2+adj^2

you have been given the hyp and the opp so lets make the unknown x

20^2=12^2+x^2

400 =144+x^2

make x the subject of the formula

400-144=x^2

266=x^2

x=the square root of 266

Answer:

{1/√3+1/2} ÷{1/√3× 1/2}

Answer:

Yes it can be right angle triangle

Answer:

x = y² - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

the inverse function is simply an exchange of x and y (and then the simplification happens to transform the whole expression back into a form y = ....)

Step-by-step explanation:

o ne demek kaarrrşiömm hııı

Answer:

y=16x

Step-by-step explanation:

24=1 1/2x=3/2x

x=24*(2/3)=16

y= total money earned; x=number of hours worked

Answer:

[tex]-73[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Note: My explanation is based of the order-of-operations

First, using the order-of-operations, we evaluate the expressions in parentheses. Fully simplifying [tex](5-7)^2[/tex] gives us: [tex](5-7)^2 = -2^2 = 4[/tex].

Next, we do [tex]6\cdot2[/tex] giving us [tex]12[/tex]. So far, our expression is simplified to [tex]\frac{84}{12} + 4 - 72 - 12[/tex].

We also know that [tex]\frac{84}{12}[/tex] is just [tex]7[/tex] so we can replace that value in the expression leaving us with: [tex]7+4-72-12[/tex]. Now, we can solve it in simple steps!

1)  [tex]7+4=11[/tex]

3) [tex]11-72=-61[/tex]

4) [tex]-61-12=-73[/tex]

Our answer is [tex]-73[/tex]

Hopefully this helped you out! Please (please) tell me if their is a mistake in the solution and I will correct it as fast as possible for me.

Answer: 2,241,194

Step-by-step explanation:

5867 times 382 is 2,241,194

Answer: x ≥ 87

Step-by-step explanation:

Set the minimum score on the next test as x & calculate it:

[tex]\frac{75+78+89+71+x}{5} =80\\\\75+78+89+71+x=80(5)\\\\313+x=400\\\\x=400-313=87[/tex]

So they need at least a score of 87 for the average to be 80+.

Answer:

x ≥ 87

Step-by-step explanation:

To obtain an estimate of a parameter of a population, we use confidence intervals.

Confidence intervals:

The larger the sample size, the closest the parameter estimate is to the value of the population, as the margin of error of confidence intervals is inversely proportional to the sample size, that is, a greater sample leads to a smaller margin of error.

Thus, you should select the highest sample size in the options.

For more on confidence interval/margin of error, you can check https://brainly.com/question/22718960

msin²x+cos²x=m-1

since the interval are 0 and π/4

Therefore

msin²(0)+cos²(0)=m-1

m(0)+1=m-1

1=m-1

m=2

use π/4 now

msin²(π/4)+cos²(π/4)=m-1

m(1/2)+(1/2)=m-1

m+1=2(m-1)

m+1=2m-2

-m=-3

m=3

Therefore

m=2 or 3

Answer: 0.6/0.8

= (0.6*100)/(0.8*100) {multiplying by 100 in both numerator and denominator}

= 60/80 (cut the zero)

= 6/8 (cut by 2)

= 3/4

Answer:x²-3 x+4/ 2x-3 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = Length * Width sq. units

x^2 - 3x + 4 = Length * 2x - 3

=>Length = x^2- 3 x + 4/ 2 x − 3 units

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option A is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it is helpful....