look at the image question

Answer:

A'(0,-8) B'(5,-7) C'(3,0) D'(2,-5)

A''(0,8) B''(-5,7) C''(-3,0) D''(-2,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

first everything is shifted down 8 units (x,y-8), so we get A'(0,-8) B'(5,-7) C'(3,0) D'(2,-5)

then you multiply by -1 A''(0,8) B''(-5,7) C''(-3,0) D''(-2,5)

Answer:

b/a

Step-by-step explanation:

ax+by=c

To find the slope solve for y

by = -ax+c

Divide by b

y = -a/b x + c/b

The slope intercept form is y = mx+b where m is the slope

The slope is -a/b

A perpendicular line has a slope that is the negative reciprocal

-1/ (-a/b)

-1 * -b/a

b/a

Answer:

5 is the answer to your question

Step-by-step explanation:

the numbers are increasing by +5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose the radius is 1. The parametric equations for the circle are

x = cosθ

y = sinθ

x:y = 3:1

tanθ = ⅓

cosθ = 3/√(1²+3²) =  3/√10

sinθ = 1/√10

The solutions are (3/√10, 1/√10) and (-3/√10, -1/√10).

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

The function given is f(n) = n-3. Plug in n=0 and you will get an output - 3. Plug in n=2 and you will get an output - 1. Hence table B is the answer .

Answer:

A = 70 mm²

Step-by-step explanation:

The area (A) of a trapezoid is calculated as

A = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] h (b₁ + b₂)

where h is the perpendicular height and b₁, b₂ the parallel bases

Here h = 10, b₁ = 10, b₂ = 4 , then

A = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 10 × (10 + 4) = 5 × 14 = 70 mm²

Answer:

28462.5

Step-by-step explanation:

During the first year it gained 10% and during his second year he gained 15% so you first add those and you get 25%.

Then you multiply 25% with 37,950.

25/100 * 37950 = 948,750/100

= 9487.5

To get the original amount you subtract 9487.5 from 37,950

37,950 - 9487.5 = 28462.5

So the original amount was 28462.5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x² + 7x + 10 = 0

x = [-7 ± √(7² - 4·1·10)]/(2·1) = [-7 ± √9[/2 = [-7 ± 3]/2 = -2, -5

Answer:

huh

Step-by-step explanation:

that don't make no sense

If a,b,c,d,e are in continued proportion then a/c =  a²/b²

Ratio is defined as a relationship between two quantities, it is expressed one divided by the other.

It is given that

a,b,c,d,e are in continued proportion

We can write it as

a/b = b/c = c/d = d/e = k

d=ek, c=ek², b=ek³ and a=ek⁴

Here a/c

Substitute the values of a and c

⇒ ek⁴/ek²

⇒ k²    [ k = a/b ]

⇒ a²/b²

Learn more about Ratio here:

brainly.com/question/1504221

#SPJ2

Answer:

Median =7

Mean = 9

Mode = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a gr8 day!

Answer:

the median is 7

Step-by-step explanation:

6,6,6,7,8,11,19

7 is the middle number

Answer:

yall do school right now???and i forgot how to do these sorry

Answer:

18 = 2x-14

or, 2x =18+14

or, 2x =32

or, x=32/2

x=16

2(6x-7)=10

or, 12x-14=10

or, 12x=10+14

or, x=24/12

x=2

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

cheese is rotten milk

Answer: Option 1

Degrees of 6 or greater

Answered by Gauthmath must click thanks and mark brainliest

Answer:

I'm not 100% on the interoperation of this question...

are the two red cars out of a 52 card deck and you can try all the combinations of two red and black cards ????

for this answer i will assume that you have 4 coins two nickels and 2 quarters

and the question is " how many ways can you arrange the four coins given that the nickels can not be next to the quarters"

in that case I think the answer is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

1- N1 Q1 N2 Q2

2- N1 Q2 N2 Q1

3- N2 Q1 N1 Q2

4- N2 Q2 N1 Q1

5- Q1 N2 Q2 N1

6- Q2 N2 Q1 N1

7- Q1 N1 Q2 N2

8- Q2 N1 Q1 N2

[tex]2\cdot \left(\left(2\:choose\:1\right)\:\cdot \:\left(2\:choose\:1\right)\right)[/tex]

The first, second, third and fourth order Maclaurin polynomials of f(x)=arctan(x) are:

So let's start by finding the first order maclaurin polynomial:

f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x

so let's find each part of the function:

f(0)=arctan(0)

f(0)=0

now, let's find the first derivative of f(x)

f(x)=arctan(x)

This is a usual derivative so there is a rule we can use here:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{1}{x^{2}+1}[/tex]

so now we can find f'(0)

[tex]f'(0)=\frac{1}{(0)^{2}+1}[/tex]

f'(0)=1

So we can now complete the first order Maclaurin Polynomial:

f(x)=0+1x

which simplifies to:

f(x)=x

Now let's find the second order polynomial, for which we will need to get the second derivative of the function:

[tex]f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x+\frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^{2}[/tex]

so:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{1}{x^{2}+1}[/tex]

we can rewrite this derivative as:

[tex]f'(x)=(x^{2}+1)^{-1}[/tex]

and use the chain rule to get:

[tex]f''(x)=-1(x^{2}+1)^{-2}(2x)[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f''(x)=-\frac{2x}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}[/tex]

now, we can find f''(0):

[tex]f''(0)=-\frac{2(0)}{((0)^{2}+1)^{2}}[/tex]

which yields:

f''(0)=0

so now we can complete the second order Maclaurin polynomial:

[tex]f(x)=0+1x+\frac{0}{2!}x^{2}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

f(x)=x

Now let's find the third order polynomial, for which we will need to get the third derivative of the function:

[tex]f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x+\frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^{2}+\frac{f'''(0)}{3!}x^{3}[/tex]

so:

[tex]f''(x)=-\frac{2x}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}[/tex]

In this case we can use the quotient rule to solve this:

Quotient rule: Whenever you have a function in the form , then it's derivative is:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

in this case:

p=2x

p'=2

[tex]q=(x^{2}+1)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]q'=2(x^{2}+1)(2x)[/tex]

[tex]q'=4x(x^{2}+1)[/tex]

So when using the quotient rule we get:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{(2)(x^{2}+1)^{2}-(2x)(4x)(x^{2}+1)}{((x^{2}+1)^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{-2x^{2}-2+8x^{2}}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{6x^{2}-2}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

now, we can find f'''(0):

[tex]f'''(0)=\frac{6(0)^{2}-2}{((0)^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

which yields:

f'''(0)=-2

so now we can complete the third order Maclaurin polynomial:

[tex]f(x)=0+1x+\frac{0}{2!}x^{2}-\frac{2}{3!}x^{3}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f(x)=x-\frac{1}{3}x^{3}[/tex]

Now let's find the fourth order polynomial, for which we will need to get the fourth derivative of the function:

[tex]f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)x+\frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^{2}+\frac{f'''(0)}{3!}x^{3}+\frac{f^{(4)}(0)}{4!}x^{4}[/tex]

so:

[tex]f'''(x)=\frac{6x^{2}-2}{(x^{2}+1)^{3}}[/tex]

In this case we can use the quotient rule to solve this:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

in this case:

[tex]p=6x^{2}-2[/tex]

p'=12x

[tex]q=(x^{2}+1)^{3}[/tex]

[tex]q'=3(x^{2}+1)^{2}(2x)[/tex]

[tex]q'=6x(x^{2}+1)^{2}[/tex]

So when using the quotient rule we get:

[tex]f'(x)=\frac{p'q-pq'}{q^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{(12x)(x^{2}+1)^{3}-(6x^{2}-2)(6x)(x^{2}+1)^{2}}{((x^{2}+1)^{3})^{2}}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{12x^{3}+12x-6x^{3}+12x}{(x^{2}+1)^{4}}[/tex]

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{6x^{3}+24x}{(x^{2}+1)^{4}}[/tex]

now, we can find f^{4}(0):

[tex]f^{4}(x)=\frac{6(0)^{3}+24(0)}{((0)^{2}+1)^{4}}[/tex]

which yields:

[tex]f^{4}(0)=0[/tex]

so now we can complete the fourth order Maclaurin polynomial:

[tex]f(x)=0+1x+\frac{0}{2!}x^{2}-\frac{2}{3!}x^{3}+\frac{0}{4!}x^{4}[/tex]

which simplifies to:

[tex]f(x)=x-\frac{1}{3}x^{3}[/tex]

you can find the graph of the four polynomials in the attached picture.

So the first, second, third and fourth order Maclaurin polynomials of f(x)=arctan(x) are:

You can find further information on the following link:

https://brainly.com/question/17440012?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

2 hours

Remember that time = distance/rate

The distance you need to cover is 56 miles, while you go 28 miles per hour. Using these, we get this:

time=56/28

time=2

So it will take two hours to go across a 56 mile wide bay at 28 mph.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

option c f(x)=-10and g(x)=2410

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

(5x2) + (3x2) + (3x2)

22 square units

Answer from Gauthmath

Answer:

((c)).g(x) = 3 × 2^x +2..

Answer:

348 m^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The figure is made up of a rectangle 24 m by 12 m, and a triangle with a 24 m base and a 5 m height.

A = LW + bh/2

A = 24 m * 12 m + (24 m)(5 m)/2

A = 288 m^2 + 60 m^2

A = 348 m^2

Answer:

By the Empirical Rule, approximately 68% of the bulbs have lifetimes that lie within 1 standard deviation to either side of the mean.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed random variable:

Approximately 68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

Approximately 95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviations of the mean.

Approximately 99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

What percentage of the bulbs have lifetimes that lie within 1 standard deviation to either side of the mean?

By the Empirical Rule, approximately 68% of the bulbs have lifetimes that lie within 1 standard deviation to either side of the mean.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

By completing the square, y = 2x^2 + 2x +1 will be y=2(x+1/2)^2+(1/2) the minimum point is the vertex of the parabola which is (-1/2, 1/2)

d=6ft

According to formula A=πr²

first we need 'r'

Hence,

as, r=d/2

r=6ft/2

r=3ft

A=πr²

A=3.14(3ft)²

A=3.14×9ft²

A=28.26ft²

Answer:

what is the sum.

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the sum - 11 =x

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  C

Step-by-step explanation:

The graph shows two vertical asymptotes, so the relevant function will be zero in the denominator for two different x-values. The only possibility is ...

  [tex]F(x)=\dfrac{1}{(x-1)(x+1)}[/tex]

Answer:

The ocean absorbs heat energy from the sun

Step-by-step explanation:

Yw :)

Answer:

The ocean absorbs heat energy from the sun.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I believe it is 2/5 fraction

Answer:

-2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the slope formula

m = ( y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = ( 18-8)/(-15-10)

    = 10/-25

   = -2/5

Answer:

t = 22 s

Step-by-step explanation:

If n is the number of strobe pulses

The first strobe pulse occurs at t = 0

t = 2(n - 1)

t = 2(12 - 1)

t = 2(11)

t = 22 s