Three crates with various contents are pulled by a force Fpull=3615 N across a horizontal, frictionless roller‑conveyor system. The group of boxes accelerates at 1.516 m/s2 to the right. Between each adjacent pair of boxes is a force meter that measures the magnitude of the tension in the connecting rope. Between the box of mass m1 and the box of mass m2, the force meter reads F12=1387 N. Between the box of mass m2 and the box of mass m3, the force meter reads F23=2304 N. Assume that the ropes and force meters are massless.

Answer:

ΔL = 0.66 m

Explanation:

The change in length on an object due to rise in temperature is given by the following equation of linear thermal expansion:

ΔL = αLΔT

where,

ΔL = Change in Length of the bridge = ?

α = Coefficient of linear thermal expansion = 11 x 10⁻⁶ °C⁻¹

L = Original Length of the Bridge = 1000 m

ΔT = Change in Temperature =  Final Temperature - Initial Temperature

ΔT = 40°C - (-20°C) = 60°C

Therefore,

ΔL = (11 x 10⁻⁶ °C⁻¹)(1000 m)(60°C)

ΔL = 0.66 m

Answer:

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The radius is  [tex]r = 1.4 \ mm = 1.4 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

     The  current is  [tex]I = 4.5 \ A[/tex]

Generally the electric field is mathematically represented as

         [tex]E = \frac{J}{\sigma }[/tex]

Where [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the conductivity of  aluminum with value [tex]\sigma = 3.5 *10^{7} \ s/m[/tex]

J is the current density which mathematically represented as  

      [tex]J = \frac{I}{A}[/tex]

Here A is the cross-sectional area which is mathematically represented as  

       [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 3.142 * (1.4*10^{-3})^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 6.158*10^{-6} \ m^2[/tex]

So

    [tex]J = \frac{ 4.5 }{6.158*10^{-6}}[/tex]

    [tex]J = 730757 A/m^2[/tex]

So

       [tex]E = \frac{ 730757}{3.5*10^{7} }[/tex]

       [tex]E = 0.021 \ N/C[/tex]

Answer:

genus yds it's the

Explanation:

xmgxfjxfjxgdfjusufzjyhmfndVFHggssjtjhryfjftjsrhrythhrsrhrhsfhsgdagdah vhj

Answer:

2500 kg/m³

Explanation:

P = P

ρgh = ρgh

ρh = ρh

(1000 kg/m³) (8.9 cm) = ρ (3.5 cm)

ρ ≈ 2500 kg/m³

Complete Question

A 590-turn solenoid is 12 cm long. The  current in it is 36 A . A 2 cm straight wire cuts through the center of the solenoid, along a 4.5-cm diameter. This wire carries a 27-A current downward (and is connected by other wires that don't concern us).

What is the magnitude of the force on this wire assuming the solenoid's field points due east?

Answer:

The force is  [tex]F = 0.1602 \ N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The number of turns is  [tex]N = 590 \ turns[/tex]

   The  length of the solenoid is  [tex]L = 12 \ cm = 0.12 \ m[/tex]

   The current is  [tex]I = 36 \ A[/tex]

   The  diameter is  [tex]D = 4.5 \ cm = 0.045 \ m[/tex]

   The  current carried by the wire is  [tex]I = 27 \ A[/tex]

    The  length of the wire is  [tex]l = 2 cm = 0.02 \ m[/tex]

Generally the magnitude of the force  on this wire assuming the solenoid's field points due east is mathematically represented as

           [tex]F = B * I * l[/tex]

Here  B  is the magnetic field which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o * N * I }{L}[/tex]

Here   [tex]\mu _o[/tex] is permeability of free space with value  [tex]\mu_ o = 4\pi *10^{-7} \ N/A^2[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]B = \frac{4 \pi *10^{-7} * 590 * 36 }{ 0.12}[/tex]

           [tex]B = 0.2225 \ T[/tex]

So

      [tex]F = 0.2225 * 36 * 0.02[/tex]

      [tex]F = 0.1602 \ N[/tex]

Answer:

Well, yes.

We can have an isolated light wave that is defined by only one frequency (and one wavelenght). But this is not a really common situation, most of the light that we can see in nature, is actually a composition of different waves with different frequencies.

Even if we have, for example, a red laser, the actual frequency of the light that comes from the laser may be in a range of frequencies, so the actual wave is a composition of different waves with really close frequencies.

An example of a light wave defined by only one frequency can be, for example, the photon that comes out of a change in energy of an electron.

Here we have a single photon, with a single frequency, that is modeled as a single frequency wave.

Answer:

N2 = ¼N1

Explanation:

First of all, let's define the terms;

N1 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius R

N2 = number of electric field lines going through the sphere of radius 2R

Q = the charge enclosed at the centre of concentric spheres

ε_o = a constant known as "permittivity of the free space"

E1 = Electric field in the sphere of radius R.

E2 = Electric field in the sphere of radius 2R.

A1 = Area of sphere of radius R.

A2 = Area of sphere of radius 2R

Now, from Gauss's law, the electric flux through the sphere of radius R is given by;

Φ = Q/ε_o

We also know that;

Φ = EA

Thus;

E1 × A1 = Q/ε_o

E1 = Q/(ε_o × A1)

Where A1 = 4πR²

E1 = Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Similarly, for the sphere of radius 2R,we have;

E2 = Q/(ε_o × 4π(2R)²)

Factorizing out to get;

E2 = ¼Q/(ε_o × 4πR²)

Comparing E2 with E1, we arrive at;

E2 = ¼E1

Now, due to the number of lines is proportional to the electric field in the each spheres, we can now write;

N2 = ¼N1

Answer:

Explanation:

Current produced by the solar cells of the pocket calculator is expressed using the formula I = Q/t where;

Q is the charge (in Columbs)

t is the time (in seconds)

Given parameters

Q = 4.2C

t = 2.7 hrs

t = 2.7*60*60

t = 9720 seconds

Required

Current produced by the solar cell I

Substituting the given values into the formula;

I = 4.2/9720

I = 0.000432A

I = 0.432mA

Hence, the current in milliamperes produced by the solar cells of a pocket calculator is 0.432mA

Answer:Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. It is able to convert light or electrical energy into focused high energy beam to treat some sickness and diseases.

Explanation:

Answer:

Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

Answer:

(a) nearsighted

(b) diverging

(c) the lens strength in diopters is 1.33 D, and considering the convention for divergent lenses normally prescribed as: -1 33 D

Explanation:

(a) The person is nearsighted because he/she cannot see objects at distances larger than 75 cm.

(b) the type of correcting lens has to be such that it counteracts the excessive converging power of the eye of the person, so the lens has to be diverging (which by the way carries by convention a negative focal length)

(c) the absolute value of the focal length (f) is given by the formula:

[tex]f=\frac{1}{d} =\frac{1}{0.75} = 1.33\,D[/tex]

So it would normally be written with a negative signs in front indicating a divergent lens.

Answer:

v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

Explanation:

We know that the force on the loop is F = BIL where B = magnetic field strength, I = current and L = length of side of loop. Now the current in the loop I = ε/R where ε = induced e.m.f in the loop = BLv₀ where v₀ = velocity of loop and r = resistance of loop

F = BIL = B(BLv₀)L/R = B²L²v₀/R  

Since F = ma where a = acceleration of loop and m = mass of loop

a = F/m = B²L²v₀/mR

Using v = u + at where u = initial velocity of loop = v₀, t = time after t = 0 and v = velocity of loop after time t = 0

Substituting the value of a and u into v, we have

v = v₀ + B²L²v₀t/mR

= v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

So the velocity of the loop after time t is v = v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

The expression for the loop's velocity as a function of time as it enters the magnetic field is v = v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR).

As we know that

Force on the loop

F = BIL

here

B = magnetic field strength,

I = current

and L = length of side of loop.

Now

the current in the loop I = ε/R

where

ε = induced e.m.f in the loop = BLv₀

where v₀ = velocity of loop

and r = resistance of loop

So,

F = BIL = B(BLv₀)L/R = B²L²v₀/R  

Also, F = ma where a = acceleration of loop and m = mass of loop

Now

a = F/m = B²L²v₀/mR

We have to use

v = u + at

where

u = initial velocity of loop = v₀,

t = time after t = 0

and v = velocity of loop after time t = 0

So, it be like

v = v₀ + B²L²v₀t/mR

= v₀(1 + B²L²t/mR)

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Answer:

3. the intermolecular bonding of water

Explanation:

Anomalous behavior of water is an advantage in aquatic habitat during winter. Because of some unique properties of water, it behaves irregularly. Thus, a pond or river does not freeze completely during winter.

Water has its highest density when temperature is 4[tex]^{0}C[/tex] , and lowest volume at 4[tex]^{0}C[/tex]. Thus, the denser layers of water sink accordingly until the upper layer is the least dense during winter. This layer then freeze leaving the layers below it unfrozen.

Answer:

D. The tendency for water to freeze from the bottom up.

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that

Effort = 40N

Load = 16ON

M.A = load/effort

M.A= 160N/40N

M.A = 4

Velocity ratio = V.R =radius of the wheel/radius of the axel

= 25cm/5cm

= 5

Efficiency = mechanical advantage/velocity ratio × 100/1

= 4/5 × 100/1

= 0.8×100/1

= 80%

Hence, the mechanical advantage of the machine is 4 while the efficiency is 80%.

Answer:

Explanation:

grating element or slit width a = 1 x 10⁻² / 5000

= 2 x 10⁻⁶ m

angular width of first order spectral line of wavelength λ

= λ / a

for blue line angular width

= 434 x 10⁻⁹ / 2 x 10⁻⁶ radian

= 217 x 10⁻³ radian

for red line angular width

= 656 x 10⁻⁹ / 2 x 10⁻⁶ radian

= 328 x 10⁻³ radian

difference of their angular width

= 328 x 10⁻³  - 217 x 10⁻³

= 111 x 10⁻³ radian

Ans .

Answer:

The number of turns in the secondary coil is 4145 turns

Explanation:

Given;

the induced emf on the primary coil, [tex]E_p[/tex] = 95 V

the induced emf on the secondary coil, [tex]E_s[/tex] = 875 V

the number of turns in the primary coil, [tex]N_p[/tex] = 450 turns

the number of turns in the secondary coil, [tex]N_s[/tex] = ?

The number of turns in the secondary coil is calculated as;

[tex]\frac{N_p}{N_s} = \frac{E_p}{E_s}[/tex]

[tex]N_s = \frac{N_pE_s}{E_p} \\\\N_s = \frac{450*875}{95} \\\\N_s = 4145 \ turns[/tex]

Therefore, the number of turns in the secondary coil is 4145 turns.

Answer:

-z axis

Explanation:

According to the left hand rule for an electron in a magnetic field, hold the thumb of the left hand at a right angle to the rest of the fingers, and the rest of the fingers parallel to one another. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the electron. In this case, the left hand will be held out with the thumb pointing to the right (+x axis), and the palm facing your body (-y axis). The magnetic field indicated by the other fingers will point down in the the -z axis.

Answer:

D.

Inverted and reduced

If object is placed in front of this mirror at a point 1/2 f from the face of the mirror. The image will appear upright and reduced.

When a hollow spherical is divided into pieces and the exterior surface of each cut portion is painted, it forms a mirror, with the inner surface reflecting the light.

A concave mirror is a name for this sort of mirror. An enlarged image is caused when the concave mirror is positioned too near to the object.

A concave mirror has a focal length of magnitude f. An object is placed in front of this mirror at a point 1/2 f from the face of the mirror. The image will appear upright and reduced.

Hence option B is correct.

To learn more about the concave mirror refer to the link;

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Answer:

The amplitude of the oscillating electric field is 1316.96 N/C

Explanation:

Given;

frequency of the wave, f = 2.4 Hz

intensity of the wave, I = 2300 W/m²

Amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is given by;

[tex]B_o = \sqrt{\frac{2\mu_o I}{c} }[/tex]

where;

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ m/A

I is intensity of wave

c is speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

[tex]B_o = \sqrt{\frac{2*4\pi *10^{-7}*2300}{3*10^8} } \\\\B_o = 4.3899 *10^{-6} \ T[/tex]

The amplitude of the oscillating electric field is given by;

E₀ = cB₀

E₀ = 3 x 10⁸ x 4.3899 x 10⁻⁶

E₀ = 1316.96 N/C

Therefore, the amplitude of the oscillating electric field is 1316.96 N/C

Answer:

λ = 667.85 nm

Explanation:

Let f be the frequency detected by the observer

Let v be the speed at which the observer is moving.

Now, when the direction at which the observer is moving is away from the source, we have the frequency as;

f = f_o√((1 - β)/(1 + β))

From wave equations, we know that the wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency. Thus, wavelength is now;

λ = λ_o√((1 + β)/(1 - β))

Where, β = Hr/c

H is hubbles constant which has a value of 0.0218 m/s • ly

c is speed of light = 3 × 10^(8) m/s

r is given as 2.40 x 10^(8) ly

Thus,

β = (0.0218 × 2.4 x 10^(8))/(3 × 10^(8))

β = 0.01744

Since we are given λ_o = 656.3 nm

Then;

λ = 656.3√((1 + 0.01744)/(1 - 0.01744))

λ = 667.85 nm

Answer:

Not slow down or speed up.

Explanation:

Hitting the puck accelerates the speed of the puck from zero to the speed with which it leaves at the instance they lose contact. Since there is no friction between the puck and the ice, there will be no force decelerating or accelerating the hockey puck, allowing the puck to move away and remain in motion without speeding up or slowing down indefinitely theoretically.

Answer:

Hey there!

This can be a confusing topic, so it's totally fine if you get confused...

First, Seismic Attenuation is how seismic waves lose energy as they expand and spread.

Secondly, when distance increases, amplitude decreases. This is because the distance (spherical spreading would mean radius) is inversely proportional to amplitude.

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer:

180 J

Explanation:

Mechanical energy = kinetic energy + potential energy

ME = KE + PE

ME = ½ mv² + mgh

ME = ½ (0.430 kg) (25.3 m/s)² + (0.430 kg) (9.8 m/s²) (10.0 m)

ME = 180 J

Mechanical energy is conserved, so it is 180 J at all points of the trajectory.

The baseball's mechanical energy when it is at a height of 8.0m is 180 J.

The mechanical energy is the sum of kinetic energy and the potential energy of an object at any instant of time. Mechanical energy is always conserved.

Mechanical energy = kinetic energy + potential energy

Given is the mass of baseball m= 0.430 kg, height h =10m, speed v= 25.3m/s.

ME = KE + PE

ME = ½ mv² + mgh

Substitute the values, we get

ME = ½ (0.430 kg) (25.3 m/s)² + (0.430 kg) (9.8 m/s²) (10.0 m)

ME = 180 J

Thus, the baseball's mechanical energy when it is at a height of 8.0m is 180 J.

Learn more about mechanical energy.

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#SPJ2

Answer:

R = 36.885 km

Explanation:

In order to distinguish the two planes we must use the Rayleigh criterion that establishes two distinguishable objects if in their diffraction the central maximum of one coincides with the first minimum of the other

The diffraction equation for slits is

            a sin θ = m λ

the first minimum occurs for m = 1

             sin θ = λ a

as the diffraction experiments the angles are very small, we approximate

             sin θ = θ

             θ = λ / a

This expression is for a slit, in the case of circular objects, when solving the system in polar coordinates, a numerical constant appears, leaving the expression of the form

            θ = 1.22 λ / a

In this problem they give us the frequency, let's find the wavelength with the relation

           c = λ f

           λ = c / f

           θ = 1.22 c/ f a

since they ask us for the distance between the planes, we can use the definition of radians

          θ = s / R

if we assume that the distance is large, we can approximate the arc to the horizontal distance

          s = x

we substitute

             x / R = 1.22 c / fa

             R = x f a / 1.22c

Let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

            f = 9000 MHz = 9 109 Hz

            a = 15 m

           x = 100 m

let's calculate

            R = 100 10⁹ 15 / (1.22 3 108)

            R = 3.6885 10⁴ m

let's reduce to km

            R = 3.6885 10¹ km

            R = 36.885 km

Answer:

 v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Explanation:

This is an exercise of conservation of the momentum, for this we must define a system formed by the two balls, so that the forces during the collision have internal and the momentum is conserved

initial. Before the crash

      p₀ = m v₁₀

final. After the crash

      [tex]p_{f}[/tex] = m [tex]v_{1f}[/tex] + m v_{2f}

Recall that velocities are a vector so it has x and y components

       p₀ = p_{f}

we write this equation for each axis

X axis

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1fx} + m v_{2fx}

Y Axis  

       0 = -m v_{1fy} + m v_{2fy}

the exercise tells us the initial velocity v₁₀ = 1.83 m / s, the final velocity v_{2f} = 1.15, let's use trigonometry to find its components

      sin 23.3 = v_{2fy} / v_{2f}

      cos 23.3 = v_{2fx} / v_{2f}

      v_{2fy} = v_{2f} sin 23.3

      v_{2fx} = v_{2f} cos 23.3

we substitute in the momentum conservation equation

       m v₁₀ = m v_{1f} cos θ + m v_{2f} cos 23.3

       0 = - m v_{1f} sin θ + m v_{2f} sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.15 cos 23.3

       0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 1.15 sin 23.3

      1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.0562

        0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 0.4549

     v_{1f} sin θ = 0.4549

     v_{1f}  cos θ = -0.7738

we divide these two equations

      tan θ = - 0.5878

      θ = tan-1 (-0.5878)

       θ = -30.45º

we substitute in one of the two and find the final velocity of the incident ball

        v_{1f} cos (-30.45) = - 0.7738

        v_{1f} = -0.7738 / cos 30.45

        v_{1f} = -0.8976 m / s

the component and this speed is

       v_{1fy} = v1f sin θ

       v_{1fy} = 0.8976 sin (30.45)

       v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s

Answer:

Time taken for 1 swing = 3.81 second

Explanation:

Given:

Time taken for 1 swing = 2.20 Sec

Find:

Time taken for 1 swing , when triple the length(T2)

Computation:

Time taken for 1 swing = 2π[√l/g]

2.20 = 2π[√l/g].......Eq1

Time taken for 1 swing , when triple the length (3L)

Time taken for 1 swing = 2π[√3l/g].......Eq2

Squaring and dividing the eq(1) by (2)

4.84 / T2² = 1 / 3

T2 = 3.81 second

Time taken for 1 swing = 3.81 second

Answer:

129900

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of the particle, m = 1 g = 1*10^-3 kg

Speed of the particle, u = ½c

Speed of light, c = 3*10^8

To solve this, we will use the formula

p = ymu, where

y = √[1 - (u²/c²)]

Let's solve for y, first. We have

y = √[1 - (1.5*10^8²/3*10^8²)]

y = √(1 - ½²)

y = √(1 - ¼)

y = √0.75

y = 0.8660, using our newly gotten y, we use it to solve the final equation

p = ymu

p = 0.866 * 1*10^-3 * 1.5*10^8

p = 129900 kgm/s

thus, we have found that the momentum of the particle is 129900 kgm/s

Answer:

Option (c)

Explanation:

In a Series circuit, as the components are connected end-to-end ,the current can flow through only one path from start to finish.

(C.) is the only correct statement in the list of choices.

In a series circuit, the current can flow through only one path from start to finish.

Answer:

TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Explanation:

Retraction is defined as the change in the direction of light rays as it moves from less dense medium to a denser medium.

For us to have a critical angle, the ray must be passing from the denser medium to the less dense medium. As the angle of refraction in the less dense medium is increasing, the angle of incidence in the less dense medium also increases. A point will reach when the refracted ray will be parallel to the interface i.e angle of refraction is 90°, the angle of incidence at this point is known as the critical angle. If the angle of refraction keeps increasing further, it will get to a point when the refracted ray becomes reflected into the denser medium. At this stage we say that the ray is internally reflected and this is the point when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

Hence it can be concluded that the process that occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle is called TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION

Answer:

a) 0.988 m/s

b) 199512 Pa

c) 57.52 s

Explanation:

given that

A

A1 v1 = A2 v2

d1² v1 = d2² v2

v2 = [d1/d2]² v1

v2 = (1.2/5.4)² * 20

v2 = 0.049 * 20

v2 = 0.988 m/s

B

P + 1/2 ρ v² = K.

[p2 - p1] = 1/2 ρ [v1² - v2²]

[p2 - p1] = 1/2 * 1000 [20² - 0.988²]

[p2 - p1] = 500 * (400 - 0.976)

[p2 - p1] = 500 * 399

[p2 - p1] = 199512 Pa

C

Flow rate = AV = π [d²/ 4 ] * v

= π [0.012² / 4 ] * 20 = 0.00226 m³ /s

= π [0.054² / 4 ] * 0.988 = 0.00226 m³ /s

130 liters = 0.13 m³

t = 0.13/ 0.00226 = 57.52 s

Answer:

b. approaches infinity

Explanation:

Because Capacitive reactance is given as Xc = 1/ωC

​

So we can see that the value of capacitive reactance and therefore its overall impedance (in Ohms) decreases to zero as the frequency increases acting like a short circuit.

Same as the frequency approaches zero or DC, the capacitors reactance increases to infinity, acting like an open circuit which is why capacitors block DC