Use the idea of the Giant One to find at least four fractions that are equivalent to 9/8 WILL GIVE BRIANLIEST!!!

Helpppp I have an F in math and I need to bring it up!!

Answer: The predicted number of penalty kicks = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : The experimental probability of her making a penalty kick in soccer is 3/10 or 30%.

So, the proportion of penalty kicks she make = 0.3

Out of 40 penalty kicks, the predicted number of penalty kicks = 0.3 x 40

= 12

Hence, the predicted number of penalty kicks = 12

Answer:

13

Step-by-step explanation: If each glass can hold 1 liter than 13 glasses can hold 13 liters.

Answer: The function is non-linear. Linear functions need to be straight

Answer:

310

Step-by-step explanation:

62 multiplied by 5 will get you the answer

Answer:

The person must leave the money for approximately 14.8 years.

Step-by-step explanation:

This can be calculated using the formula for calculating the future value as follows:

FV = PV * (1 + r)^n …………………………………. (1)

Where;

FV = Future value of the investment = 5600

PV = Present value of the investment = 3000

r = semiannual interest rate = 4.25% / 2 = 0.0425 / 2 = 0.02125

n = number of semiannuals = ?

Substitute the values into equation (1) and solve for n, we have:

5600 = 3000 * (1 + 0.02125)^n

5600 / 3000 = 1.02125^n

1.02125^n = 1.86666666666667

Loglinearizing both sides, we have:

nlog1.02125 = log1.86666666666667

n = log1.86666666666667 / log1.02125

n = 0.271066772286539 / 0.0091320695404719

n = 29.6829509548973

Since n is number of semiannuals, we divide the answer by 2 obtain the number of years as follows:

Number of years = 29.6829509548973 / 2 = 14.8414754774487

Rounding to the nearest tenth of year, we have:

Number of years = 14.8

Therefore, the person must leave the money for approximately 14.8 years.

Answer:

5 37.50

10 75

hope it helps

Step-by-step explanation:

prove me wrong

Answer:

Lol the you tube tab though XD

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m=1$

h = 1$

Step-by-step explanation:

i think... seems the only reasonable answer

The cost of one hat is $1 and cost of one mask is $1.

Equations are mathematical statements with two algebraic expressions flanking the equals (=) sign on either side.

It demonstrates the equality of the relationship between the expressions printed on the left and right sides. LHS = RHS is a common mathematical formula.

Coefficients, variables, operators, constants, terms, expressions, and the equal to sign are some of the components of an equation. The "=" sign and terms on both sides must always be present when writing an equation.

We have 10 hats and 20 masks were sold for $30.

and, 8 hats and 10 masks were sold for $18.

let the cost of one hat be H and cost one Mask be M.

So, the system of Equation we get

10H + 20M = 30..........(1)

8H + 10M = 18...........(2)

Solving the above equation we get

10H - 16H = 30 - 36

-6H = -6

H = 1

and, 10 + 20M= 30

20M= 20

M= 1

Learn more about Equation here:

https://brainly.com/question/29538993

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Answer:

the answer is 64.29% or just 64

the fraction form is 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/3 (Two-Thirds)

The percentage is also 66.6666667%, if they are asking for that.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you add up all the numbers and get 84.

Then, you add up Friday and Saturday, to get 56.

You now have 56/84.

Simplify and get 2/3.

You are LOVED <3

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

To get no solution, you want to get rid of x and leave an incorrect equation.

In this case, we will use 1/3x.

1/3x + 2 = 1/3x - 3

We subtract 1/3x on both sides. This will cause the 1/3x's to cancel out.

1/3x - 1/3x + 2 = 1/3x - 1/3x - 3

2 ≠ -3

As we know, 2 is not 3. Therefore, there is no solution if 1/3x is used.

Answer:

2³

Step-by-step explanation:

8 = 2 × 2 × 2 = 2³

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

diagonal line = 180 = x + 90

180 - 90 = x

90 = x

therefore, x = 90°

Answer:

[tex]x=-\frac{1}{7}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

In my opinion this is the whole w

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B. 13

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]m(m + n) - n[/tex]

[tex]m = 5 \\ n = - 3[/tex]

Substitute m = 5 and n = - 3 in the expression.

[tex]5(5 + ( - 3)) - ( - 3) \\ 5(5 - 3) + 3 \\ 5(2) + 3 \\ 10 + 3 \\ 13[/tex]

Remind that negative multiply negative must equal positive.

Answer:

1.AB are the first 2 letters in ΔABC. Similarly, FE are the first 2 letters in ΔFED.

Hence side AB corresponds to side FE.

2.CB are the last 2 letters in ΔABC. Similarly, DE are the last 2 letters in ΔFED.

3.AC corresponds to FD

4.The scale factor is 2 because you would take the sides in ABC and multiply by 2 to get the sides in FED

5.6 because it corresponds to CB  and you would multiply the side of CB (3) by 2 and you would get 6

6.A^2+B^2=C^2   =    FE^2+ED^2=FD^2    =    8^2+6^2=100^2   = square root of 100=   10

The side length of FD is 10

Answer:

Your welcome no need to thank me

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it is 60 of right angle

Step-by-step explanation:

there

Answer:

9*572=5148

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a = [tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

4(2a + 2) = 8(2 - 3a)

Distribute.

8a + 4 = 16 - 24a

Add 24a to each side.

32a + 4 = 16

Subtract 4 from each side.

32a = 12

Divide 32 from each side.

a = [tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex]

6    Answer:

2

−

−

1

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 6 faces on a dice so there's a 1 in 6 chance that you would roll a 3 on your second go there is still only a 1 out of 6 chance of getting a 5 because there is still 6 numbers you could roll on.

hope this helped

Answer:

......................................................................................................

Step-by-step explanation: