What is the answer with explaining
Answer:
EeWw
Explanation:
The allele for the earlobe is depicted as e while that of the hairline is w.
A parent that is homzygous recessive for earlobes (ee) and homzygous dominant for hairline (WW) would have the genotype eeWW.
The other parent that is homzygous dominant for unattached earlobes and homzygous recessive for hairline would have the genotype EEww
eeWW x EEww
During meiosis, each genotype will form gametes.
eeWW: eW, eW, eW, eW
EEww: Ew, Ew, Ew, Ew
These gametes will randomly unite during fertilization to produce offspring. Since the same gametes are formed by each parent:
eW x Ew
offspring
100% EeWw (see the attached image for the Punnet's square)
The genotype of all the children would be EeWw and would phenotypically be with unattached earlobes and dominant hairline.
Which of the following is the best definition of the term nonrenewable
resource?
A. A resource that can be replaced naturally within a reasonable time
period
B. An inexpensive resource
C. An expensive resource
D. A resource that takes many years to replace
Which one A or D help me pls
Answer
D.
Explanation
Non renewable resources such as coal, if not used sustainably will get over fast and coal is used for many purposes, if this resource gets over it will take hundreds of years to come back
Answer:
D). A resource that takes many years to replace.
Explanation:
Trust me
Porque las enzimas actuan sobre algunas sustancias ñ
Answer:
SPAM
Explanation:
SPAM
SPAM
Our eyes are always the same size from birth
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✍︎☔︎ᴍᴀᴛʜᴅᴇᴍᴏɴǫᴜᴇᴇɴ☔︎
✍︎ᴥ︎︎︎ᴄᴀʀʀʏᴏɴʟᴇᴀʀɴɪɴɢᴥ︎︎︎
✍︎ꕥᴋɪᴍ ᴀʀᴀꕥ
What is the most common energy source for cells?
Answer:
The most common energy source for cells is ATP, or Adenosine Triphosphate
Answer:
Mitochondria stores energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate).
Since, mitochondria provide energy to the cells it is also known as the powerhouse of the cell.
Discuss two characteristics of the female pelvis. Why are these characteristics significant?
Answer:
The general structure of the female pelvis is thinner and less dense, in comparison to the thick and heavy male pelvis, which is designed to support a heavier body build. The true pelvis is wide and shallow in the female, and the pelvic inlet, also known as the superior pelvic aperture is wide, oval and rounded.
Compare the outcome of mitosis vs. meiosis.
Answer:
Cells divide and reproduce in two ways, mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells, whereas meiosis results in four sex cells
Explanation:
the phenomenon is called a revision why did it happen
Answer:
help in studying
Explanation:
7. Gene expression may be regulated:
A) only during translation
B) only during transcription
C) during transcription and translation
D) only during replication
E) during replication and transcription
8. During anaphase of meiosis I toward opposing poles of cell are pulled:
A) whole chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) bivalents
D) fragments of sister chromatids
E) tetrads
9. One of a series of different versions of gene is called:
A) genome
B) haploid
C) diploid
D) allele
E) allosome
10. Which of the following genotypes would produce the smallest number of different gametes if the alleles are assorted independently?
A) aa BB Dd
B) AA BB DD
C) Aa Bb DD
D) Aa BB DD
E) Aa Bb Dd
11. Which of the following processes can decrease the genetic variation in natural populations?
A) recombination
B) immigration
C) mutagenesis
D) inbreeding
E) hybridization
12. Which of the following structures present in the embryos of higher plants develops into primary leaves of seedlings?
A) epicotyl
B) endosperm
C) radicle
D) hypocotyl
E) cotyledon
13. Which of the following organisms would be classified as primary consumer?
A) lion
B) Escherichia coli
C) barley
D) cow
E) Candida albicans
14. Which of the following characterizes monocotyledonous plants?
A) Their embryos have one cotyledon.
B) In their stems vascular bundles are usually arranged in ring.
C) Their flowers parts are usually in multiples of four or five.
D) They have usually taproot.
E) Their leaves usually have netlike veins.
15. Which of the following types of plants tissue transport water and minerals?
A) phloem
B) xylem
C) meristem
D) vascular cambium
E) epidermis
16. Which of the following require a host cell because they are not able to make proteins on their own?
A) Paramecium caudatum
B) Escherichia coli
C) Influenza virus
D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae E) Euglena viridis
17. Which of the organisms is not correctly labeled?
A) Bacteria – Staphylococcus aureus
B) Plantae – Pine
C) Fungi – Spider
D) Animalia – Lion
E) Viruses – HIV
18. Eutrophication is the process of:
A) vegetation succession in lakes
B) nutrient depletion of lakes
C) increase inflow of minerals in lakes
D) primary succession in lakes
E) biological renewal of aquatic ecosystems
19. Which of the following is a prezygotic isolating mechanism to prevent reproduction between species?
A) geographic isolation
B) zygotic mortality
C) isolation by hybrid sterility
D) isolation by hybrid breakdown
E) isolation by hybrid inviability.
20. Which of the following plant tissue is characteristic only for the leaves, but not for the roots?
A) xylem
B) phloem
C) epidermis
D) cambium
E) mesophyll
21. Rhizobium forms an endosymbiotic nitrogen fixing association with roots of:
A) pine
B) rice
C) rose
D) bean
E) coconut palm
22. Which of the following is found in an unusual high proportion in cells of cardiac muscle?
A) lysosomes
B) mitochondria
C) mRNA
D) Golgi apparatus
E) cell nucleus
23. Which of the following organisms would most likely be found at the top of an energy pyramid?
A) clams
B) sardines
C) sharks
D) kelp
E) mollusca
Meiosis
female gamete
Meiosis
male gamete
X
zygote
embryo
25. Echinococcosis disease is caused by:
A) Echinococcus
B) Diphyllobotrium
C) Trichinella
D) Enterobius
E) Fasciola
26. Which of the following organisms conduct ethanol fermentation?
A) yeasts
B) bears
C) spiders
D) barley
E) mushrooms
27. Steroids are not:
A) sex hormones
B) cholesterol
C) corticosteroids
D) bile acids
E) vitamin C
28. Which of the following is the right order of the four stages of food processing?
A) digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination
B) ingestion, digestion, elimination, absorption
C) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
D) digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination
E) absorption, elimination, digestion, ingestion
29. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The pH of urine is close to neutral (7).
II. Urine is a liquid product of the body that is secreted by urinary system. III. Lack of vasopressin in the blood increases diuresis.
A) I
B) II
C) I, II, III
D) III
E) I, III
30. Which hormone is produced by the placenta?
A) progesterone
B) insulin
C) thyroxin
D) melatonin
E) glucagon
31. Which of the following is not characteristic for mammals?
A) mammary glands
B) hair
C) cold-blooded
D) three middle ears bones
E) sweat glands
32. All of the members of a particular species that live in one area are called a(an):
A) biotope
B) community
C) ecosystem
D) biosphere
E) population
Answer:
Omg questions are sooo long
What is immigration?
A. When animals leave an ecosystem
B. When animals are born in an ecosystem
Ο Ο Ο O
C. When animals move into an ecosystem
D. When animals die in an ecosystem
Answer:
C. When animals move into an ecosystem
Explanation:
Why do you think type 2 diabetes occurs so much more often than other inheritable diseases? Propose a hypothesis for why this allele has not been eliminated by natural selection.
Which type of species best describes a mouse: opportunistic or equilibrium? Explain why a mouse or rat population would continuously grow while other mammals (cheetahs) are nearly extinct.
Answer:
This allele has not been eliminated by natural selection because it may confer an adaptive advantage for particular environmental conditions
Mice and rats are opportunistic species. These species can rapidly adapt to different environmental conditions, while cheetahs are unable to adapt to changing environments.
Explanation:
An allele is a gene variant that may be beneficial, neutral, or deleterious for a particular environment. Different alleles are not eliminated by natural selection against other alleles (even when a priori seem to be deleterious) because they confer a selective advantage in a given environment. For example, the allele for sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation which is lethal in homo-zygous individuals, but heterozygous individuals are less likely to die of malaria, thereby this allele has been positively selected in geographic areas where malaria is an endemic disease. Moreover, mice and rats are opportunistic species, i.e., they are species that rapidly adapt to varied living conditions. These species are characterized to have high growth rates and produce many offspring. On the other hand, the cheetah is a highly specialized species that is unable to adapt to changing environments. In consequence, cheetah populations are more prone to become extinct than rat and mice populations.
What is the probability that a hybrid individual with the genotype AabbCcddEeFf will produce a gamete that has the genotype abCdeF
Answer:
6.25%
Explanation:
Find the number of different gametes that can be produced
number of gametes produced = 2^n
n is the number of allele pairs that are heterozygous
there are 4 heterozygous allele pairs, these are: Aa, Cc, Ee and Ff
2^4 = 16
abCdeF is one of the 16 genotypes that could be produced
to find the percentage, divide 1 and 16 and multiply by 100
1 ÷ 16 = 0.0625
0.0625 × 100 = 6.25
Quadrupedal monkeys __________ Group of answer choices have long arched spines for flexible movement when leaping. hold their bodies parallel to the ground (pronograde posture) when walking have narrow rib cages with scapula on the side, limiting the range of motion in the shoulder All of these traits characterize quadrupedal monkeys
Answer:
All of these traits characterize quadrupedal monkeys
Explanation:
Quadrupedal monkeys have long arched spines that is used for flexible movement when jumping to a height. They hold their bodies parallel to the ground because of pronograde nature means these monkeys walking with the body by using four legs. While walking they have narrow rib cages with scapula on the side that limits the range of motion in the shoulder.
6. Which directly describes the female part of a flower?
It's called the pistil and it contains the filament and the style.
It's called the stamen and it contains the filament and the anther.
It's called the stamen and it contains the stigma and the anther.
It's called the pistil and it contains the stigma and the style.
Explanation:
D ,cause it is made up of the stigma and style
Answer
It's D
Explanation:
I took the quiz :p
A Ribosome's primary function is to:
A. Make an RNA copy of DNA.
B. Translate mRNA into a protein.
C. Make a DNA copy of RNA.
D. Translate a protein into mRNA.
Answer:
A ribosome, formed from two subunits locking together, functions to: (1) Translate encoded information from the cell nucleus provided by messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA), (2) Link together amino acids selected and collected from the cytoplasm by transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA). hope that helps❤
A ribosome's primary function is to translate mRNA into a protein. Thus, the correct option is B.
What are Ribosomes?Ribosomes may be defined as the spherical and glandular particles that occur freely in the matrix or remain attached to the Endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
Ribosomes play an important role in protein synthesis by translating mRNA into a protein. They are also involved in the decoding of messages and the construction of peptide bonds.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is B.
To learn more about Ribosomes, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/8773679
#SPJ5
Viral or bacterial germs that invade body cells are called _____.
phagocytes
pathogens
white blood cells
lymphocytes
Choose the true statements about the evolution of complex characters, such as powered flight.
a. The intermediate stages in the evolution of a complex character had no fitness advantage.
b. Often the initial stage in the evolution of a complex character was an adaptation to some unrelated selection pressure.
c. Usually a single mutation in one gene leads to the simultaneous appearance of the complex character.
d. Phylogenetic analysis using cladistics can help reveal the sequence leading to the evolution of a complex character.
e. Usually a single mutation in one gene leads to the simultaneous appearance of the complex character.
Answer:
b. Often the initial stage in the evolution of a complex character was an adaptation to some unrelated selection pressure.
d. Phylogenetic analysis using cladistics can help reveal the sequence leading to the evolution of a complex character.
Explanation:
The evolutionary developmental program of complex characters can be analyzed by examining synapomorphies, i.e., by examining shared, derived characters common between an ancestor of a given taxonomic group and its descendants. Synapomorphies are able to create evidence for historical relationships between closely related organisms. Moreover, cladistics is a method used to categorize species/taxa into groups called 'clades' based on arranging organisms with similar traits, which can provide useful information on the evolutionary history of complex traits in different species/taxa. In phylogenetics, the analysis of complex characters involves two different stages: 1-character analysis and 2-cladistic analysis. Homology refers to structures that look similar because they were inherited from a common ancestor (i.e., they have a common origin); whereas characters are considered as parts of transformation series. In cladistics, characters used for inferring phylogenetic relationships are considered as hypotheses of homology that are subject to tests of similarity. In consequence, such characters can provide useful information on the evolutionary history of complex traits.
heavenly bodies that travel around a planet are called satellites or moon which planet has no satellite or moon
A. mars and venus
B. jupiter and venus
C. jupiter and mars
D. mercury and venus
Answer:
i think its A. i dunno if it is btw have a nice day
Answer:
D. Mercury and Venus
How does a mutation in a sex cell differ from a mutation in a non-sex cell?
O
A. Mutations in sex cells can be passed on to children.
O
B. Mutations in sex cells are chromosomal mutations.
О O
C. Mutations in sex cells are more deadly.
О O
D. Mutations in sex cells are silent mutations.
SUBMIT
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Mutations that happen in sex cells during meiosis are able to pass onto offspring.
"Mutations in sex cells can be passed on to children." Therefore, option (A) is correct.
What is mutation?A mutation in a sex cell differs from a mutation in a non-sex cell in that mutations in sex cells can be passed on to children. Sex cells, such as eggs and sperm, carry genetic information that is passed on to the next generation during fertilization.
If a mutation occurs in a sex cell, it can be transmitted to the offspring and can potentially affect the genetic makeup of future generations. On the other hand, mutations in non-sex cells, such as skin cells or liver cells, cannot be passed on to offspring because they do not contribute to the genetic material of the next generation.
Learn more about mutation, here:
https://brainly.com/question/24152269
#SPJ7
The breeds of dogs are all
one species, but they have
incredible genetic diversity.
Who first realized that
variation mattered, even
though he didn't know the
exact mechanism?
A. Lamarck
B. Aristotle
C Darwin
D. Griffith
Answer:
C Darwin
Explanation:
Charles Darwin, the father of evolution theorised that within any population, there exists variation in traits which help the animals adapt to their environment and help them survive.
In the same vein, he believed that the breeds of dogs are all one species, but they have incredible genetic diversity.
Therefore, Charles Darwin first realized that variation mattered, even though he didn't know the exact mechanism.
Are lizards reptiles or amphibians?
Answer:
Reptiles are turtles, snakes, lizards, alligators and crocodiles. Unlike amphibians, reptiles breathe only through their lungs and have dry, scaly skin that prevents them from drying out
Discuss who is impacted by desertification including which continents are impacted and the role of an increasing population.
Answer:
Africa and Asia.
Explanation:
Africa and Asia are the most affected regions in the world which is greatly affected by desertification. The climate change and human activities has a great impact in these areas which causes desertification as compared to other areas in the world. The increase in population increase the rate of depletion of natural resources which causes more pollution in the environment that leads to desertification in these areas.
When you pushed the diaphragm up what change occurred in chest cavity pressure? Explain how this change in chest cavity pressure affected the lungs.
Answer:
positive pressure
Explanation:
Exhalation is a passive process during which the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax. The ribs move downward and inward, while the diaphragm rises. This movement causes the chest to decrease in size and positive pressure to build inside the chest cavity. The positive pressure pushes air out of the lungs.
Which refers to the distance from the midpoint to the highest point for a transverse wave?
The vertebra in this photograph is from the thoracic region of the vertebral column . is it True or False
Answer:
is there a picture?
Explanation:
i don't see a picture posted with the question
After mitosis, the number of chromosomes is ______ as/of the parent cell.
After meiosis, the number of chromosomes is _____ as/of the parent cell.
Answer:
meiosis 4
mitosis 2
Explanation:
Answer:
For mitosis - the same
The number of chromosomes at the end of mitosis are [THE SAME] as the parent cell.
________________
For meiosis - half
The number of chromosomes at the end of meiosis are [HALF] as much as the parent cell.
Explanation:
Trust me, this is correct. Tried it myself.
which molecule is a saturated fat?
Answer:
Option B is the correct option
It was found that the C4 protein promotes synaptic pruning during brain development in the teenage years. This is a normal process in brain development that is important for removing unnecessary connections between neurons and establishing a mature brain structure. However, high expression levels of a certain allele of C4 can lead to too much pruning, which may promote the onset of schizophrenia. The variation observed at the C4 gene which leads to the greatest increase in risk was found to cause a 25% increase in the risk of developing schizophrenia. The baseline risk in the population is 1%. What is the risk of an individual with this variant developing the condition?a. 0.25%.
b. 1.25%.
c. 25%.
d. 26%.
Answer:
b. 1.25%
Explanation:
Variations observed in C gene has increase in risk of 25% to develop schizophrenia. It is a kind of an abnormality in which a person interprets reality unrepresentative. The baseline risk in population is 1% then there is 1.25% risk associated with an individual to develop this condition.
4.Differentiate between digestion and assimilation.
5.Name the secretions of stomach which help in digestion of food.
6.Name the three digestive glands and their role in digestion.
7. Animals like cows cannot chew their food properly at the time they take it in. Explain.
Answer:
do it yourself fffffffff
ments
Assignment 1 - Provide a narrative for the following scenarios. Use complete
sentences and be careful with spelling and grammar. 20 Points (5 points each)
1. The physician orders urine C&S on a patient. The patient asks why it is
necessary to do this test. How would you, the medical assistant, clearly
explain this to the patient?
2. A patient is asked to bring in a first morning urine specimen for testing.
You, the medical assistant, provide the patient with a container for the
collection and explain that it needs to be refrigerated if they cannot bring
it to the office right away. How do you explain to the patient the need
for a first morning specimen and the request to refrigerate?
3. A patient is being treated for diabetes. This patient asks you, the
medical assistant, why it is necessary a urine specimen is collected each
Answer:
1.Urine culture and sensitive is used to identify the microorganism that is causing the infection, and to identify the antibiotics, sensitive to the microorganism, if the urinary tract is not treated promptly it can lead to recurrent urinary tract infection.
2. First urine sample of the morning is more concentrated form as urine is present in the bladder for almost 8 hours. It contains an increased number of protein or urinary casts. The sample is placed in the refrigerator to get refrigerated as holding it at room temperature and if infected with bacteria present in the urine it uses the glucose and alter the results.
3. diabetic ketoacidosis is one of the many complications if you are having diabetes. Another complication is diabetic nephropathy inorder to check the urine acetone as well as protein in urine we advise for urinalysis each time you visit.
