thermal conductivity
Answer:
Boiling point
Explanation:
I did the test
The correct sequence for western blotting is:
1. Proteins are denatured by sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS), and by boiling.
2.Transfer proteins to the nitrocellulose membrane.
3. Performing the polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE).
4. Incubate the nitrocellulose membrane to primary antibodies and secondary antibodies subsequently.
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 4,1,3,2
c. 1,3,2,4
d. 1,3,2,4
Answer:
3.page is this that answer
Explanation:
a.1,2,3,4
The correct sequence for western blotting is: C. 1,3,2,4
Blotting can be defined as an analytical technique that is designed for the analysis of biological macromolecules such as:
Lipids.Nucleic acid.Proteins.Carbohydrates.For western blotting, the correct sequence of analyzing biological macromolecules such as proteins is:
1. The denaturation of protein through the use of sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) and by boiling.
2. The performance of polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE).
2.The transfer of proteins to the nitrocellulose membrane.
4. Lastly, the incubation of the nitrocellulose membrane to subsequently form primary antibodies and secondary antibodies.
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The first place that the reabsorption of water is not automatically coupled to the reabsorption of filtered solutes occurs in the PCT.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The correct answer is false because Reabsorption of water and other filtered solutes like vitamins, sodium e.t.c. take place in the proximal convoluted tubules.
Reabsorption is when water and solutes in the PCT are removed and moved back into the blood and it's a process that take place through bulk transport.
The solutes and water are transported from the PCT to the interstitium and then move into peri-tubular capillaries and reabsorption in PCT is isosmotic i.e solutes have the same osmotic pressure.
When brown iodine is exposed to starch it turns dark purple. In an experiment, you placed a cornstarch solution in a small plastic bag. Next, you placed the bag in a beaker of water containing 10 drops of iodine. If the solution in the plastic bag turned dark purple (Select all that apply)
a) the plastic bag was permeable to cornstarch.
b) the plastic bag was permeable to iodine.
c) the iodine moved into the plastic bag.
d) the cornstarch moved into the beaker.
e) the plastic bag was selectively permeable.
Answer:
b) the plastic bag was permeable to iodine
the plastic bag was selectively permeable
the iodine moved into the plastic bag.
the plastic bag was permeable to cornstarch.
Explanation:
The experimental set up represented the concept of osmosis.That is the movement of water molecules from the region of higher water potential to region of lower water potential through a semipermeable membrane(a cell membrane which only allows water and certain molecules to pass through,but restrain other molecules through its pores.
Generally potassium iodine test is the standard test for starch.
Therefore, in the question,water moves iodine molecules as iodine solution(from high water potential) to move across the paper bag(semi permeable membrane) to the reach the corn solution.(low water potential,high solute potential).This turns the starch in the corn solution blue-black/purple.
If the solution in the plastic bag turned dark purple:
the plastic bag was permeable to iodine. That is option (B)the iodine moved into the plastic bag. That is option (C)the plastic bag was selectively permeable. That is option (E)To test for the presence of starch in a solution, iodine solution is used. This gives a blue-black coloration which occurred due to the formation of a starch-iodine complex.
From the above experiment, the plastic bag which contains the corn starch solution, separates the solution from water containing 10 drops of iodine.
The turning of the solution, inside the plastic bag, into blue black signifies the formation of starch-iodine complex between the cornstarch solution the iodine water.
The reaction was able to occur because the plastic bag, which is selectively permeable to iodine, allowed the movement of iodine from the beaker of water into it. This is called diffusion.
Therefore, if the solution in the plastic bag turned dark purple it means that the plastic bag which is semi permeable allowed the movement of iodine into it.
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a mother has heterozygous type a blood and the father has type ab blood. what is the probability of the offspring having type O blood
Answer:
None
Explanation:
This is because A and B are dominant over O. Hence the overshadow the O group in the phenotype.
Enzymes are protein molecules which are made up of long chains of
Which structure in plants produces a substance that protects the extending roots from developing friction?
a.root cap
b. stele
c.stem
d.epidermis
Answer:
The correct answer is - option a. root cap.
Explanation:
Roots of the plants are developed from the structure called radical in seed during germination of seed.The tip of the root is tender due to the present of the apical meristem that is the precursor of the new cells of the root and protected by the root cap and penetrate in to the soil with the help of mucigel. Mucigel is the which protects the extending roots from developing friction.
Thus, the correct answer is : option a. root cap.
Answer:
The answer is ROOT CAP
Explanation:
Got it right on my test.
The relative value of grains for animals is determined primarily by metabolizable energy and crude protein content. From the information below, which grain is the best choice for feeding swine?Grain Crude Protein Metabolizable Energy $ Per TonBarley 13.00% 3.000 kcal/kg 170Corn 10.00% 3.600 kcal/kg 160Grain sorghum 12.00% 3,200 kcal/kg 140Wheat 14.00% 3,400 kcal/kg 180
Answer:
Corn
Explanation:
Good news for corn and soybean hog growers because these two grains are the main ingredients in pork diet and these feedstuffs should be affordable. According to metabolism, corn has the highest metabolic energy, i.e. 3600 k.cal/kg Therefore, corn is the best food for swin so, the correct answer is corn.A student did an experiment with two identical fish tanks, Tank 1 and Tank 2. About 20 ml water purifier was added to Tank 1 and 10 ml
water punfier was added to tank 2. Tank 1 was heated to 88° F and Tank 2 was left at room temperature. The water purity of each tank was
tested every day in particles per liter. The purity was recorded over a period of 5 weeks in the table shown below.
Week Water Purity of Tank 1 Water Purity of Tank 2
12.6
12.6
13.7
13.9
14.3
14.4
15.7
15.8
17.6
17.6
Based on the table, which of these conclusions is correct?
a
Fish need 10 mL of water purifier to survive.
b
More purifier is needed to keep heated water clean.
с
Water purifier can help a fish survive longer.
d
Water purifier keeps fish tanks clearer for longer.
pleasee helppp !!
Answer:
a . Fish need 10 ml of water purifier to survive.
Explanation:
Fish need 10 ml of water purifier to survive because the data of 10 ml and 20 ml purifier is the same so it is recommended to use 10 ml purifier. First the data was same but by recording next week data, it shows slightly increase in the value of tank 2 while in the last week, both has the same value so we can concluded that by using 10 ml purifier is enough for the fish to survive.
Answer:
Its B/More purifier is needed to keep heated water clean.
Explanation:
PLz answer my scientific question
Answer:
the independent variable is time.the independent variable is time in the second graph because time is the only independent variable.Explanation:
hope this will help :)
Answer:
I would have to say D but I might be wrong.
Explanation:
what are some questions an environmental biologist might ask about qhat they are studying
Explain in detail if the water molecule (top) can interact with the glucose molecule (bottom)
Answer:
Yes, glucose dissolves in water.
Explanation:
Hello,
In this case, we can state that glucose is largely soluble in water due to the fact that it has five of polar hydroxyl groups which can interact with the hydrogen atoms in the water throughout the hydrogen bonds. Such hydrogen bond is known as an intermolecular force that forms a special type of dipole-dipole attraction when a hydrogen atom bonded to a strongly electronegative atom (like the oxygen in the hydroxyl groups) exists in the vicinity of another electronegative atom with a lone pair of electrons, therefore they occur among molecules.
Evidence without_______
increases its reliability.
a
bias
b
question
с
repetition
d
replication
Answer:
I'll say its B ) Question
Explanation:
because when your proving something with evidence then you start asking questions (or still have questions) makes it seem like you don't really know.
If the gametes from a diploid individual only contain one of the two possible alleles, it is not difficult to determine the genotypes of the gametes from that individual. For the diploid genotypes indicated below, write all of the possible genotypes of the gametes. If more than one type of gamete is possible, separate them with a comma. Diploid Genotype Genotype of Gametes RR rr Rr
Answer:
Diploid Genotype - Genotype of Gametes
RR - R
rr - r
Rr - R, r
Explanation:
According to Gregor Mendel in his law of Segregation, he stated that the alleles of a gene gets separated into gametes during gamete formation (meiosis). This occurs in such a way that only one allele of the two possible alleles that make up the genotype of a diploid organism is found in the gamete.
Meiosis is a cell division that reduces the chromosomal number of the daughter cells. Hence, a diploid organism (2n) will undergo meiosis to produce haploid (n) daughter cells (gametes). An organism with a diploid genotype RR will produce gametes which have only genotype R. The same applies to organism with genotype rr. Only gametes with genotype, r, will be produced.
However, in a heterozygous genotype like Rr, the different alleles will separate into gametes in an equal proportion i.e. gametes with genotypes R and r will be produced in a ratio 1:1.
identify the components ( parts) of DNA
Answer:
Phosphorus group, a sugar(like deoxyribose or ribose), and a nitrogenous base
Keeping in mind that a crayfish is saltier than the fresh water it occupies, and remembering the idea of osmosis, note that the antennal gland deals directly with the consequences of this issue. What do you suppose the function of the antennal gland is
Are bacteria eukaryotes
Answer:
yes they very much are!!!!!!!!!
4
THE EAR
4.1
4.1.1 Which ONE of the following is a part of the ear where grommets
are inserted?
A Oval window
B Semi-circular canal
C Tympanic membrane
Pinna
noreen with middle ear infection is usually advised not to fly in an
Answer:
C
Explanation:
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Is it normal to have two baby fish that are stuck together?
Answer:
No its not
Explanation:
Hey there!
Conjoined fish is a very rare occurrence that does not happen often.
Hope this helps :)
Following antigenic stimulation, phosphorylation of _________ relieves inhibition of the transcription factor
Answer: zap70, ITAM.
Explanation:
An antigen is any substance that is capable of stimulating an immune response by activating lymphocytes, which are the body’s infection-fighting white blood cells. Examples of antigens could be proteins that are part of bacteria or viruses or components of serum and red blood cells from other individuals, all of them are foreign antigens originated outside the body. However, there can also be autoantigens (which are self-antigens), originated within the body. In normal conditions, the body is able to distinguish self from nonself. And the antigens that represent a danger induces an immune response by stimulating the lymphocytes to produce antibody or to attack the antigen directly. This is called an antigenic stimulation of the immune system.
ZAP-70 (Zeta-chain-associated protein kinase 70) is a protein that is part of the T cell receptor, thereby it plays a critical role in T-cell signaling. When the TCR (receptor of T cells) is activated by the presentation of the specific antigen through the MHC, a protein called Lck acts to phosphorylate the intracellular CD3 chains and the ζ chains of the TCR complex, allowing the binding of the cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase, ZAP-70. Lck then phosphorylates and activates ZAP-70, which in turn phosphorylates another molecule in the signaling cascade called LAT (short for Linker of Activated T cells), a transmembrane protein that serves as an anchor site for several other proteins. The tyrosine phosphorylation cascade initiated by the Lck culminates in the intracellular mobilization of calcium ion (Ca2+) and the activation of important signaling cascades within the lymphocytes. These include the Ras-MEK-ERK pathway, which is based on activating certain transcription factors such as NFAT, NFκB and AP-1. These transcription factors regulate the production of of certain gene products, most notably cytokines such as interleukin-2 that promote the long-term proliferation and differentiation of activated lymphocytes.
The ITAM motifs (immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif) are sequences of four amino acids present in the intracellular tails of certain proteins that serve as receptors within the immune system. Thus, some receptors such as the TCR have ITAM sequences that, when activated, trigger an intracellular reaction based on consecutive phosphorylations. Kinases are recruited for this purpose.
So, ZAP-70 is a protein tyrosine kinase with a role in T-cell receptor signal transduction. During T-cell activation, ZAP-70 binds to ITAM and becomes tyrosine phosphorylated. The binding of ZAP-70 to the phosphorylated ITAM is able to activate its kinase activity, and relieves the inhibition of the transcription factor which regulates genes that are involved in the immune reaction.
Nucleus is where dna is stored and where rna transcription occurs
Answer:
Yes that is correct
Explanation:
Paleobiologists generally recognize the five most severe mass extinctions during the Phanerozoic Eon. Along with the other students in this class, determine when each of these “Big Five” mass extinctions occurred. Include in the discussion a brief list of which organisms went extinct during each of these events and which organisms radiated afterwards. You should use the information from this unit and from Internet searches to help you in this discussion. NO plagiarism will be permitted.
Extinction of the Ordovician: This extinction was responsible for the disappearance of about 60-70% of the species of oceanic life, This is because in that period most of the life on Earth was in the ocean. This extinction is believed to have been caused by an intense glacial period, although short that froze most of the planet's water. It is believed that the species most affected were sponges, algae, jawless fish, molluscs and cephalopods.
Devonian Extinction: Responsible for the disappearance of about 75% of marine species. This extinction was caused by the depletion of oxygen in the ocean, making life impossible for all aerobic marine organisms. This depletion of oxygen was caused mainly by the variation in the level of the ocean and climatic changes that may have been caused by asteroids.
Permian Extinction: Responsible for the death of 95% of life on earth. This extinction is known as the "mother of all extinctions" due to its destructive character, which devastated life on land and in the ocean. It is believed that this extinction was caused by volcanic activities triggered by the impact of asteroids. Almost all living species on earth were affected, such as insects, trilobites, sharks, boneless fish, reptiles, among others.
Extinction of the Triassic: It is not known exactly what caused this extinction, but it is estimated that it had the power to decimate 70-80% of terrestrial life, mainly arcosaurs and amphibians. The most accepted theory today is that the extinction was caused by recurrent volcanic activities that influenced huge volumes of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, generating intense heating.
Cretaceous extinction: It was caused by the impact of an asteroid with the earth. The impact had the power to exterminate 75% of terrestrial life. This is the most well-known extinction, since it was responsible for decimating dinosaurs, however, some animals survived this impact, such as most marine species, frogs, birds, reptile and mammals.
Question 9(Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)
Which statement best answers the question, "Why is copper a good conductor of electricity?"
Copper atoms have a loosely held electron in their outer shell that is able to move freely to other atoms.
Copper atoms are tightly bound and are able to work with other copper atoms to exchange electrical charges.
Copper has an equal number of protons and electrons making the flow of current possible.
Copper's outer shell electrons are not balanced and must join with other copper atoms in order to be stable.
Answer:
option 1 is correct
Explanation:
the ability of substance to conduct heat and electricity depends upon the number of free electron since copper is transition metal it has a loosely held electron in their outer shell that is able to move freely to other atoms because of these free electron copper is a good conductor of electricity
Assume that you have an antimicrobial agent specific for each of the targets listed below. Indicate which type of microbe would be most susceptible to the agent.
A. All bacteria
B. Gram-positive bact.
C. Gram-negative bact.
D. Viruses
E. All bact. and viruses
Answer is given below
Explanation:
If you have an antimicrobial agent specific for each of the targets listed below
all bacteria - glycolytic enzymes and membrane proteinsgram-positive bacteria - peptidoglycanGram-negative bacteria ceftiaxon, cefpodoximeviruses - envelope proteinsall bacteria and viruses - nucleic acidsThe best fossil evidence to suggest that Neandertals could produce a language like that of modern humans comes from which bone(s) collected at Kebara, Israel?
a. the hyoid
b. the mandible
c. the cervical(neck) vertebrae
d. the ribs
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
The best fossil evidence that suggests Neandertals' ability to produce a language like modern humans comes from the hyoid bone.
This bone is located in the neck between the chin and the thyroid, which is also named "tongue bone" or "language bone".
So the correct answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.
Where does that air go as a result?
Answer:
Air go from one place to another due to difference in temperature of land and sea.
Explanation:
Air go as a result of wind from one place to another. Air moves from land to sea is called land breeze and from sea to land is known as sea breeze. This will occur when there is difference in temperature between sea and land. Sea breeze occurs at afternoon while land breeze occurs at night till morning. Warm air produces low pressure and cold air produces high pressure so when warm air rises, cold air takes its place and this cycle continues.
Place the respiratory structures into the order that air would pass through them during a normal inspiration.
Outside of Body
1. nares
2. vestibule
3. nasal cavity
4. choanae
5. nasopharynx
6. oropharynx
7. laryngopharynx
8. larynx
Inside of Body
Answer:
Outside of the body, nares, vestibule, nasal cavity, choanae, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx.
Explanation:
During inspiration, the air enters through the nares in the nose. From here, it goes up passing through the vestibule, the nasal cavity, and the choanae to start descending through the pharynx. The pharynx has three parts: the nasopharynx, which is in contact with the nose; the oropharynx that is in contact with the mouth; and the laryngopharynx, which is in contact with the larynx and esophagus. Between the oropharynx and laryngopharynx is the epiglottis, this is cartilage that prevents food from going to the lungs when we swallow food. After passing through the pharynx, the air flows through the larynx. From here, the air goes to the trachea, the bronchi, which enters the lungs giving the bronchioles, and these divide giving the alveolus, which is the place where the exchange of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide occurs.
Placing the respiratory structures in the correct order :
Outside of Body --> nares --> vestibule --> nasal cavity --> choanae --> nasopharynx --> oropharynx --> laryngopharynx --> larynx -- > inside of body
During respiration the air enters from outside of the body into the body through the nares down to the vestibule, the nasal cavity which will descend down through to the pharynx which is further divided into three ( 3 ) parts which are; nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The epiglottis is located between oropharynx and laryngopharynx.
Hence we can conclude that Placing the respiratory structures in the correct order ; Outside of Body --> nares --> vestibule --> nasal cavity --> choanae --> nasopharynx --> oropharynx --> laryngopharynx --> larynx
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What is the maximum magnification of most classroom compound light microscopes? 500x 1,000x 2,500x 5,000x
Answer:
2,500x
Explanation:
am doing the review rn
Answer:
1,000x
Explanation:
i got yall
The most abundant element in the body of living things is: a) Hydrogen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Oxygen
Answer:
D. Oxygen
Explanation:
Oxygen is the most abundant element in the bodies of living things. For example, oxygen is about 65% of the human body.
Oxygen in the body is mostly in the form of water, since the bodies of living things need water to create energy needed every day.
Which of the following correctly describes the process of Translation?
I. tRNA anticodon bonds to mRNA codon
II. Ribosome bonds to mRNA strand
III. Ribosome reaches a STOP codon and detaches from the mRNA
IV. Each tRNA adds an Amino Acid to the chain as the Ribosome moves along the mRNA
V. Complimentary mRNA strand is made from DNA template
Answer:
I. tRNA anticodon bonds to mRNA codon
II. Ribosome bonds to mRNA strand
III. Ribosome reaches a STOP codon and detaches from the mRNA
IV. Each tRNA adds an Amino Acid to the chain as the Ribosome moves along the mRNA
Explanation:
Translation is the second process of gene expression in which a protein molecule is synthesized from the information in a mRNA strand. Translation occurs in the RIBOSOME (an organnelle for protein synthesis made up of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins). The process of translation occurs in three stages viz: Initiation, Elongation and Termination.
Initiation occurs when the ribosome binds to the mRNA strand in the cytoplasm. The mRNA sequence is then read in a group of three nucleotides called CODON by the ANTICODON of a transfer RNA (tRNA). The basis of reading is the complementary base pairing rule i.e. A-U, G-C. Options I and II describes this stage.
In the elongation stage, the tRNA carries an amino acid corresponding to what it reads in the mRNA codon to the growing polypeptide chain. The amino acids bonds to one another via a peptide bond. As each codon is being read, the mRNA gradually moves over the means sequence. Option IV describes this stage.
Elongation stage continues until any of the stop codons (UAA, UAG, and UGA) are finally encountered by the trans in the ribosome. Since, there are no corresponding anticodons that can read the stop codons, they signal the termination of the translation process. The ribosome then detaches from the mRNA sequence. Option III describes this stage.
Note, option V describes TRANSCRIPTION not TRANSLATION.
You are a graduate student in the lab of a famous fly geneticist. You need to analyze a batch of mutant flies that were recently created in her laboratory to identify the single gene that is most likely mutated in each of the flies. Fill in the below mention blanks.
1. The wings are missing in mutant fly L, which is likely the result of a mutation in________ .
2. Mutant fly X has lost the head and thorax. The gene most likely responsible for this mutation is____________.
3. Thoracic and abdominal structures are missing in mutant fly Q. The gene most likely responsible for this mutation is__________ .
4. Mutant fly F has predominantly lost abdominal structures, which is likely the result of a mutation in _________ .
5. The mutation observed in mutant fly O resulted in defects within the anterior or posterior regions of each segment. The gene that most likely caused this mutation is _________.
6. Segment-sized sections of every other segment are missing in mutant fly Z. One likely candidate gene is ________
a. hunchback (a gap gene)
b. even-skipped (a pair-rule gene)
c. wingless (a segment-polarity gene)
d. knirps (a gap gene)
e. hedgehog (a segment-polarity gene)
f. Kruppel (a gap gene)
Answer:
1.wingless (a segment-polarity gene)
2. hunchback (a gap gene)
3. Kruppel (a gap gene)
4. knirps (a gap gene)
5. hedgehog (a segment-polarity gene)
6. even-skipped (a pair-rule gene)
Explanation:
The gap genes are genes expressed during embryonic development of some arthropods. Loss of function mutations of the gap genes are responsible to produce structural "gaps" in the corresponding region of the embryo. The gap genes are transcription factors that modulate the expression of pair-rule genes, which in turn are required for embryonic development of the alternate segments. On the other hand, the segment polarity genes are involved in determining the anterior/posterior axis of each segment (the segment polarity network). In the embryo, segment-polarity genes are expressed at specific localizations only after the expression of gap and pair-rule genes.
