The act, belief, or characteristic which violates group norms and typically results in censure or punishment is deviance. Option A is the correct answer.
Deviance is the act of deviating from the norms of society, and it is one of the key topics in sociology. A deviant act is one that is in violation of the norms or values of a specific group or society. Deviant behavior is judged to be unacceptable by the majority of society's members, and it is typically accompanied by censure or punishment. It is often referred to as a socially constructed category because it varies depending on the time and place.
Deviance is a broad concept that includes a variety of behaviors. Some examples of deviant behavior include murder, drug addiction, theft, and alcoholism. However, other behaviors, such as homosexuality or cross-dressing, can also be considered deviant depending on the norms and values of the society in which they occur.
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What are the guiding principles for first responders' to take when arriving at a potential crime scene?
______: When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.
Innovation : When people use illegitimate means to gain success, in particular professional and organized criminality, including drug trafficking.
Those who pursue illegal activity while holding onto their dream of success, such as those who engage in illegal drug dealing to make money, are pursuing the "American Dream" in this way. Dr. Melton also made the argument that some people leave society and end up as drug addicts or drifters after realizing they cannot achieve the "American Dream," which can result in abnormal behavior.
Innovation: The acceptance of cultural goals by an individual or group but rejection of the accepted, established methods for achieving those goals. Families involved in organized crime are one example. They adhere to the "American Dream," but they go beyond the law to achieve their objectives.
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true/false. small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most.
The given statement "small claims courts, for the most part, resolve relatively minor disputes with maximum recoveries usually limited to a few hundred dollars at most." is false as have limited jurisdiction to hear civil cases between private litigants.
Small-claims courts only have limited authority to hear civil disputes involving private parties. Small claims courts may also perform other judicial duties and may go by different names in different jurisdictions. The maximum amount of money that a small-claims court can award in judgments is typically in the tens of thousands of dollars or pounds. The plaintiff typically forfeits any right to seek an amount greater than the court can grant by filing a lawsuit in small claims court. Reducing a claim to meet the requirements of this venue may or may not be permitted by the plaintiff.
Small-claims courts typically have jurisdiction over private disputes involving small sums of money. The routine collection of small debts forms a large portion of the cases brought to small-claims courts, as well as evictions and other disputes between landlords and tenants, unless the jurisdiction is already covered by a tenancy board.
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true/false. When at the zero bound, one of the policy alternatives that we discussed would be for the Fed to lower or eliminate the reserve requirement ratio
One of the policy options we explored was for the Fed to reduce or remove the reserve requirement ratio when it reached the zero bound. True.
The notion that interest rates cannot be decreased farther than zero is known as the "Zero Lower Limit." Historically, central banks have utilised monetary policy to influence the economy's interest rate in order to achieve its budgetary goal (s).
In fact, the Fed used a variety of other tactics to overcome the ZLB restriction after the crisis, including large-scale asset purchases (quantitative easing) and providing market participants with advance information on the direction of interest rates. The ZLB issue was not entirely solved by these policy improvements.
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fill in the blank. the___perspective of the criminal justice system holds that criminals choose to commit crimes and must be punished harshly for their actions.
The Crime control perspective of the criminal justice system holds that criminals choose to commit crimes and must be punished harshly for their actions.
Criminal justice referred to all methods that individuals could use to exact retribution for the harm committed by a crime. The idea of criminal justice has since developed.
With a focus on the complexities and connections between crime and justice, Criminal Justice: The System in Perspective offers a novel perspective on the criminal justice system. Recent studies, current events, and the criminal court system are the main topics of criminal justice.
According to the due process model, every person should have access to a just and equitable criminal justice system that respects their constitutional rights.
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Compare and contrast the Uniform Crime Report, the National Crime Victimization Survey, and the Self Report. What are
the differences in the way data are collected for the three primary crime data sources? What are the limitations/weaknesses
of each of the three primary crime data sources (b) Explain the impact of COVID-19 on patterns of crime in (i) your
metropolitan area, county, or state.
A. We can see here that the Uniform Crime Report (UCR), National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS), and Self-Report are three primary sources of crime data in the United States.
While each source provides insight into criminal behavior, they differ in the way data is collected and the information they provide.
What is crime?Crime refers to any behavior or action that is prohibited by law and punishable by the government or state. Crimes can range from minor offenses, such as traffic violations or petty theft, to serious offenses. The definition of what constitutes a crime varies by jurisdiction and can change over time as laws are updated and revised.
The UCR is compiled by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) and provides data on crimes reported to law enforcement agencies across the country. The UCR collects data on eight specific crimes referred to as Part I offenses, including mu'der, ra-pe, robbery, aggravated assault, burglary, larceny-theft, motor vehicle theft, and arson.
The NCVS is a survey conducted by the Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS) that collects data on victimization experiences of individuals, including both reported and unreported crimes. The survey includes questions on personal and property victimization, reporting to law enforcement, and the perceived effectiveness of the criminal justice system.
Self-report surveys are typically administered to individuals and ask about their involvement in criminal behavior. These surveys are often anonymous and may include questions about drug use, theft, and violent behavior.
Self-report surveys are useful in providing insight into criminal behavior that may not be reported to law enforcement, but are limited by potential social desirability bias and inaccuracies in reporting.
B. The COVID-19 pandemic has had a significant impact on patterns of crime in many areas. In some regions, crime rates have decreased due to stay-at-home orders and decreased opportunities for criminal activity.
In conclusion, while the UCR, NCVS, and Self-Report provide important insights into criminal behavior, each has limitations and weaknesses. Researchers and policymakers should be aware of these limitations when using crime data to inform policies and decisions.
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You are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for the following types of vehicles that are stationary on the roadway:
For all emergency(such as police, fire, and ambulance) and public safety vehicles with lights flashing on them that are stationary on the roadway, everyone are required to slow down and move over.
We need to move over and provide way for vehicles that are used for public and work for their safety as the people in these vehicles may be providing a service or responding to an emergency situation, and they need to be able to do their job without the risk of being hit by a passing vehicle. Whenever we see one of such vehicles on road you should slow down and move over (if possible) to give them more space and to reduce the risk of an accident. It is an important safety measure that helps protect those working on or near the road.
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According to the laws of most of the states in the USA, drivers are required to slow down and move over (if possible) for all emergency and public safety vehicles with lights flashing.
When you see an emergency vehicle, such as an ambulance, fire truck, or police car, on the side of the road with lights flashing, you must change lanes if it is safe to do so. You should slow down and drive with extra caution when passing by, even if you can't move over to another lane. When driving, keep an eye out for flashing lights in the distance, especially on freeways and busy roads. When you see the flashing lights, look for the type of vehicle and carefully merge into another lane, leaving plenty of space for the emergency vehicle to pass by. This will assist them in arriving at their destination quickly and safely.
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the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.True or false
In the United States, the answer is partially true. In most states, there are laws restricting the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. However, these laws can vary from state to state, and not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18.
It is important to note that these laws are intended to improve road safety, as the use of wireless devices while driving can significantly increase the risk of accidents. Driver distraction is one of the leading causes of traffic accidents, and the use of wireless devices can increase distraction and the likelihood of accidents.
In summary, in the United States, many laws restrict the use of wireless devices while driving, especially for young and inexperienced drivers. While not all states specifically prohibit the use of wireless devices by drivers under the age of 18, many laws are designed to improve traffic safety and reduce the risk of accidents caused by driver distraction.
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It is true that the law prohibits anyone under the age of 18 from using any type of wireless device while driving, except in an emergency situation.
According to the law it is illegal for anyone under the age of 18 to use any type of wireless device while driving. This also includes talking on the phone, texting, or surfing the internet. Some states have laws that specifically prohibit texting while driving regardless of age. It would be an only exception in case it is an emergency situation, such as calling 911. If anyone use any type of wireless device while driving, sometimes it may lead to dangerous situations like accidents where they put themselves and others also in danger.
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TRUE/FALSE. To overcome problems in the equal allocation of resources, many smaller departments have adopted alternate scheduling.
The given statement "To overcome problems in the equal allocation of resources, many smaller departments have adopted alternate scheduling." is false because it increases employee happiness, decreases childcare costs, increases productivity, and a more positive work environment.
Compressed work schedules and flexible work schedules are referred to collectively as alternative work schedules (AWS). A compressed work schedule is one in which an employee can finish the biweekly work requirement in fewer than 10 working days and has a fixed work schedule (no flexible time bands).
An alternative workweek is defined by current California labor law as a week with shifts that total no more than 10 hours each day during a 40-hour workweek, without the payment of an overtime premium.
Increased productivity, lower childcare costs, happier workers, and a more supportive workplace are all advantages of an alternative work schedule. On the other hand, disadvantages include less effective communication, less teamwork, and occasionally less family time.
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TRUE/FALSE. in the derivation of the michaelis-menten equation, the rate at which es is formed is given by which of the following?
Systems do not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics are,An allosteric enzyme in the presence of the product of the reaction,the enzyme ATCase. Thus correct Option (b, d)
Michaelis-Menten kinetics is a broad theory that explains the velocity and overall mechanism of enzyme-catalyzed processes. It is based on the quick reversible creation of a complex between an enzyme and its substrate, which was first proposed in 1913. (the substance upon which it acts to form a product).
What can we learn from the Michaelis-Menten equation?The equation states that at extremely low concentrations, the enzyme's rate is directly proportional to the concentration of substrate; conversely, at very high concentrations, the enzyme's rate approaches a maximum quantity known as maximum velocity.
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Full Question: Which of the following systems do not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics?
(Select all that apply.)
a. A simple enzyme with [S] > KM.
b. An allosteric enzyme in the presence of the product of the reaction.
c. The enzyme chymotrypsin.
d. The enzyme ATCase.
true/false. prosecuting attorneys exercise discretion when determining whether or not to bring charges against the arrestee.
True. Prosecuting attorneys are responsible for deciding whether to bring criminal charges against an individual who has been arrested.
This decision is made based on various factors, such as the strength of the evidence, the seriousness of the offense, and the interests of justice. Prosecutors have discretion in determining whether or not to bring charges, and their decision can have significant consequences for the individual facing the charges. In some cases, prosecutors may decide not to bring charges if they feel that the evidence is weak or if the offense is minor. However, in other cases, they may pursue charges aggressively, seeking the maximum possible penalty for the alleged offense.
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valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F
The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).
The correct answer is true.
The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.
Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.
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the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?
The following are the penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations do not impose:
An honest mistake or inadvertent error made by a tax return preparer will not result in a penalty. In this case, a tax return preparer may rectify the mistake and file the correct return or refund within a specified time period.
Tax return preparers are not penalized for failing to file an amended return or refund claim after rectifying an error or mistake made in a prior return or refund claim. However, if a tax return preparer is paid for the preparation of an amended return or refund claim, the preparer may be subject to a penalty if the claim or return is incorrect.
The Internal Revenue Code and regulations do not require tax return preparers to register or obtain a preparer tax identification number (PTIN) if they do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation. The penalty for non-compliance with this requirement will not be imposed on tax return preparers who do not file tax returns or make refund claims for compensation.
The penalties on the tax return preparers that the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations impose are as follows: Failure to comply with the due diligence requirements, which include checking the validity of Social Security numbers, can result in a penalty of up to $100 per failure. The penalty for failing to sign a tax return or refund claim is $50 per failure.
The penalty for understating the tax liability on a tax return or refund claim is the greater of $1,000 or 50% of the income from the preparation of the return or refund claim. The penalty for the use of abusive tax shelters or any other illegal tax avoidance schemes is $1,000 per taxpayer per year. A taxpayer may also sue a tax return preparer for damages if the preparer engages in fraudulent or deceptive conduct in the preparation of the return or refund claim.
the internal revenue code and the regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?
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The government imposes a sales tax on hot dogs. The tax would be paid entirely by hot dog sellers if theA.supply is perfectly elastic.
The government imposes a sales tax on hot dogs. The tax would be paid entirely by hot dog sellers if the supply is perfectly elastic. This statement is correct, let us learn about the factors affecting the demand and supply.
Supply is defined as the total amount of a product or service that is available for a specific price, while demand is defined as the willingness and ability of consumers to purchase a product or service at a specific price. According to the law of demand, the quantity of a product or service demanded by consumers decreases as the price of the product or service rises. On the other hand, according to the law of supply, the quantity of a product or service supplied by producers increases as the price of the product or service increases. The demand and supply of a product or service can be influenced by various factors, including taxes, subsidies, input costs, technological advancements, and consumer preferences.
The imposition of a sales tax on hot dogs would raise the cost of production and supply for hot dog sellers, and the effect would be that sellers would shift the burden of the tax onto the consumers by raising the price of the hot dogs. As a result of the price increase, demand for hot dogs will decrease as consumers would look for substitute products. In case the supply of hot dogs is perfectly elastic, then the sellers will be forced to absorb the entire cost of the tax because any increase in the price would lead to a complete loss of sales. Thus, the tax would be paid entirely by the hot dog sellers in such a situation.
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the supreme court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in .
The Supreme Court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in Dred Scott v. Sandford case.
The Dred Scott v. Sandford case was heard by the United States Supreme Court on March 6, 1857, and ruled on March 6, 1857. This ruling was delivered by the United States Supreme Court’s Chief Justice Roger B. Taney. The case was between a slave named Dred Scott and his master’s widow, who was then residing in Missouri. Scott’s master had moved to Illinois and the Wisconsin territory, both of which were free territories. Dred Scott argued that he and his family should be freed since they had lived in free territory. Taney dismissed this argument and stated that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights.Learn more about Dred Scott v. Sandford case: https://brainly.com/question/28042544
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which of the following most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?
Insurance brokers most likely would not be required to complete continuing education hours in this state.
The word "insurance broker" became a regulated term under the Insurance Brokers (Registration) Act 1977, which was intended to prohibit enterprises claiming to be brokers but really working as agents for one or more preferred insurance companies.
Following the repeal of the 1977 Act, the word has no legal definition. From 14 January 2005 until 31 March 2013, the sale of general insurance was regulated by the Financial Services Authority, and from 1 April 2013, it has been regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority. Anyone or any business that has been authorized by the Authority can now call themselves an insurance broker.
The question is incomplete, complete question "Which of the following would most likely NOT be required to complete continuing education hours in this state?
A. insurance brokers
B. resident producers
C. insurance consultants
D. nonresident producers"
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how long can bankruptcy information be reported by a consumer reporting agency
Bankruptcy information can remain on a consumer credit report for up to 10 years from the date of filing.
During this period, the information can be reported by the three major consumer credit reporting agencies: Experian, TransUnion, and Equifax. After 10 years, the bankruptcy information should be removed from a consumer's credit report. It is important to remember that filing for bankruptcy can have a significant impact on a person's credit score. Having a bankruptcy listed on your credit report can make it more difficult to obtain new credit, such as a loan or credit card. This can also make it more expensive to borrow money, as lenders may charge higher interest rates to compensate for the higher risk associated with borrowers with bankruptcy.
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Please answer What are some advantages and disadvantages of having so many levels of government below the federal government? Please explain:
Advantages, such as shielding us from tyranny, dispersing power, expanding citizen participation, and increasing effectiveness, as well as disadvantages, such as claiming to protect slavery and segregation.
How is federal government better than?The provincial or local governments can be given orders by the central government. Compared to unitary governments, the federal government is superior because It helps to avoid conflict; Governments share power rather than having it centralized. Under unitary government, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. The central government can issue directives to the provincial or local governments.
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QUESTION 2 "So, the Advocate Dali Mpofu is correct, we can afford free education for all South African children. But where I come from, I do not jubilate at free education, I want to revisit the curriculum; I want to know which publishing companies benefit from the education of our children, where they come from and what their philosophy of education is". Moss Mashamaite (2014). (a) Discuss the above extract with reference to Freire's views on education. (6)
According to the above extract Freire's views on education can be summed up as-
For Freire, education is never neutral. All education is political – either educating to support and maintain the status quo or helping to critique and change reality. Problem-posing education does not and cannot serve the interests of the oppressor.
Education mean today?Education is defined as a cycle of learning that helps a person acquire and understand more complex stuff. According to the training they have received, the knowledge that has been had about a person provides an example of thought and behavior.
The renowned definition of education?Education is an intentional process with certain goals in mind, such as information transmission or the development of abilities and moral character. The growth of comprehension, reason, compassion, and honesty are only a few examples of these objectives.
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The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state
infringement in the _________ case.
a. Schenk v. United States
b. McCulloch v. Maryland
c. Gibbons v. Ogden
d. Gitlow v. New York
The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state infringement in the d. Gitlow v. New York case.
What is Gitlow v. New York case?Gitlow v. New York is a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case, decided on June 8, 1925, which upheld the constitutionality of the Espionage Act of 1917, which made it illegal to advocate the overthrow of the United States government by force or violence.
The majority of the justices ruled that the First Amendment didn't prohibit states from suppressing or punishing speech that posed a serious danger to national security, even if it didn't immediately incite an illegal act.
What is the Fourteenth Amendment?The Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution was passed by Congress on June 13, 1866, and ratified by the states on July 9, 1868. It granted citizenship to all individuals born or naturalized in the United States and prohibited states from denying any person "life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.
The correct option is option d.
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When talking to his investment clients, broker Adam often refers to tax shelters. This term typically means?
Explanation:
The term "tax shelter" typically refers to a legal method of reducing taxable income and, therefore, the amount of tax owed. Tax shelters can take many different forms, including investment opportunities such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), 401(k) plans, and annuities, as well as certain types of business expenses or deductions.
What factors influence the remedies available to a seller when the buyer breaches a contract?
...
Choose 3 answers.
the seller may resell the goods and sue to recover damages.
the seller may sue to obtain specific performance.
the seller may cancel the contract.
the seller may withholding delivery of the goods.
the remedies available to a seller when the buyer breaches a contract, In the given choice there are 1,3,4 ansewers influence the remedies.
A contract is breached when one party rejects or fails to follow its terms. If the seller breaches the purchase agreement, the buyer may take any of the following actions, EXCEPT sue the broker for non-performance.
What legal options does the buyer have if the seller breaks the terms of the contract?
The buyer has two options: (a) use the warranty breachas justification for cancelling or reducing the amount owed to him; or (b) sue the seller for damages resulting from the warranty violation. He has the right to renounce the contract and make the seller liable for any losses. It is common to use the phrase "damages for anticipatory breach" to describe this.
Brokers and salespeople are unable to properly comprehend the situation or goals of the individuals they are bringing together. As a result, the broker is not at fault if a contract fails. The broker is also not at fault if a buyer is unable to get clear title or a seller is abruptly transferred.
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____: the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
A political realignment is the process by which one party supplants another as the dominant party in a two-party political system.
In American politics, the term "realignment" refers to the process in which a party's electoral support base undergoes a fundamental shift, resulting in long-term changes in the balance of power between the two major political parties. The electoral realignment can be attributed to a variety of factors, including demographic shifts, significant events or policy decisions, changes in political culture, and changes in party organizations' strategies.
A realignment occurs when a political party undergoes a major shift ins its political ideology and agenda, resulting in significant changes in its base of support. This shift may result in the creation of a new electoral majority, or it may result in a significant weakening or even the complete collapse of a party's former electoral coalition. As a result, the opposing party may rise to power, and a new era of political dominance may emerge.
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fill in the blank. the risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack
The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a firearm.
The risk of a car bomb attack is very low, but it is still possible. It is important to be aware of the potential threat and take appropriate safety measures, such as installing protective barriers and surveillance systems.
Additionally, bank staff should be trained to be aware of suspicious activity and report it to the authorities. Finally, individuals should also take safety precautions such as parking in well-lit areas, avoiding leaving valuables in plain sight, and being aware of their surroundings.
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The complete question is:
Fill in the blank.
The risk of a car bomb in a bank is about 1% whereas there is a 60% chance of an attack with a ________.
in which of the following ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
The British democracy differs from the majority of other parliamentary democracies in Europe in that the ruling party may adopt policies with essentially no checks from other levels of government.
The Westminster Parliament represents the idea of full power to legislate on all topics, free from any restrictions from underlying principles of international law or human rights, and now also from EU legislation.
The UK is a parliamentary democracy in europe. After the passage of the First Reform Act in 1832, which gave the vote to 7% of males and reallocated house seats for fairer representation, the UK became a democracy. This was the initial reform in a series that aimed to increase the electorate.
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Correct Question:
In what ways does the british democracy differ from most other parliamentary democracies in europe?
there are two things you want to remember about bureaucrats. choose the two items that craig mentioned
Two things to remember about bureaucrats are a clear hierarchy and specialization.
A bureaucracy is a sizable administrative organization that manages a government's or society's daily operations. In America, there are three levels of government bureaucracy: federal, state, and local.
A distinct hierarchy, specialization, a division of labor, and a set of formal rules, or standard operating procedures, are the four main characteristics of bureaucracies. There is a distinct hierarchy among bureaucrats, and they specialize, so keep that in mind.
For a bureaucracy to succeed, it needs to be independent, impersonal, and impartial. Employee relationships must be professional, according to Weber. The structure of the impersonal bureaucratic environment encourages making decisions based only on facts and careful consideration.
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If you are making a left turn from a two way street into a one way street you must start the turn from the _____ abc hit may turn into any lane that is safely open
If you are turning left from a two-way street onto a one-way street, you should complete the turn into the left lane .
Once you have turned onto the one-way street, you may turn into any lane that is safely open and appropriate for your destination. It is important to check for other vehicles, pedestrians, and bicyclists before making the turn and to signal your intention to turn in advance.
If there is a center left turn lane, use it. turning left onto a two-way street from a one-way street. Starting in the far-left lane, make the turn. End the turn in the left lane closest to the middle of the street moving in the direction of your vehicle to lower the likelihood of a collision.
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Question 1
Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of the population has blood type AB. Suppose a random sample of 50 U.S. residents and 40 Australians is obtained. Consider the random variables described below:
X: the number of US residents (out of 50) with blood type AB.
Y: the number of Australians (out of 40) with blood type AB.
Z: the total number of individuals (out of 90) with blood type AB.
Which of the following is true about the random variables X, Y, and Z? Check all that apply.
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 30 and p = 0.015
Z is a binomial random variable with n = 90 and p = 0.055
Question 2
In Texas, 30% of parolees from prison return to prison within 3 years. Suppose 15 prisoners are released from a Texas prison on parole. Assume that whether or not one prisoner returns to prison is independent of whether any of the others return to prison. Let the random variable X be the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years. What are the values of the parameters for the binomial random variable X?
n =
p =
X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04, Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015.
The value of n is 15 and p is 0.30 of the parameters for the binomial random variable X
1. X is a binomial random variable with n = 50 and p = 0.04
Y is a binomial random variable with n = 40 and p = 0.015
Z is not a binomial random variable, as it represents the total number of individuals with blood type AB, which is not a fixed number of trials with a constant probability of success.
2. The binomial distribution models the number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has the same probability of success. In this case, X represents the number of parolees out of 15 that return to prison within 3 years, where each parolee is either a success (returns to prison) or a failure (does not return to prison). Since each prisoner's return to prison is independent of the other prisoners' returns, we can model X as a binomial random variable with n = 15 (the number of trials) and p = 0.3 (the probability of success, or the proportion of parolees who return to prison within 3 years).
Therefore, final answer for question 1 is n = 40 and p =0.015 and for question 2 is n = 15 and p = 0.30.
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Under common law, which of the following was true in regard to arson?a. Negligence was sufficient to establish arsonb. Criminal intent was not necessaryc. The requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completelyd. You could commit arson
Under common law, criminal intent was not necessary in regard to arson. Arson is the criminal act of intentionally and requirement of burning did not require that the dwelling be burned completely under common law. Arson was established if the damage or destruction of the property was caused by fire.
Additionally, common law arson was a crime that required actual, malicious intent to set fire to a structure or property. A person could not be convicted of unlawfully setting fire to buildings or other property. Criminal intent was not necessary under the common law of arson. Criminal intent was the foundation for the most serious charges in most criminal cases under the common law, but arson was an exception.
Negligence was insufficient to establish arson under the common law of arson. The arson if they didn't intend to start a fire or cause harm. Common law is a body of law that has been established through legal decisions made by judges over the centuries. The doctrine of precedent is used in common law. The doctrine of precedent, also known as stare decisis, requires that lower courts must follow the decisions of higher courts that have dealt with similar cases in the past.
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a ____ is an order requiring that an official bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.
An "order to show cause" is an order issued by a court or judge requiring an official (such as a jailer) to bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.
This order can be used when a prisoner requests to be released on bail, when a prisoner seeks a writ of habeas corpus, or when a prisoner claims to be wrongly imprisoned. An order to show cause must provide the judge with sufficient evidence that there is a legal basis to continue to hold the prisoner in jail. If the official fails to show cause, the court may order the prisoner's release.
In order for an order to show cause to be issued, the court must have a legal basis for requiring the official to bring the prisoner in for a hearing. This can include evidence that the prisoner poses a danger to the public, that the prisoner may be a flight risk, or that the official has failed to follow proper procedure in the case. When the court reviews the order to show cause, it will determine if the evidence provided by the official is sufficient to continue the prisoner's detention. If the court finds that the evidence is not sufficient, the prisoner must be released.
The order to show cause is an important tool in ensuring that prisoners are not held unlawfully and that they are treated fairly. It can also be used to ensure that officials are properly carrying out their duties, and that they are adhering to the law when it comes to detaining prisoners. By issuing an order to show cause, the court can ensure that the official has the necessary evidence to detain the prisoner and that the prisoner has the right to a fair hearing.
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