You decide to buy 1,800 shares of stock at a price of $68 and an initial margin of 75 percent. What is the maximum percentage decline in the stock price before you will receive a margin call if the maintenance margin is 30 percent

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Decline percentage = 64.29%

Explanation:

First find the margin call price = Initial price x  (1 - initial margin) / (1-maintenance margin)

Margin call price = 68 x ( 1- 75%) / (1 - 30%)

Margin call price = $24.29

The margin call that the investor will have if the price fall to $24.29.

Now find the percentage decline:

Percentage decline = (68 - 24.29) / 68

Percentage decline = 0.6429

Thus decline percentage = 64.29%


Related Questions

A partial list of Waterways' accounts and their balances for the month of November 2016 follows:
Accounts Receivable $ 275,000
Advertising Expenses 54,000
Cash 260,000
Depreciation-Factory Equipment 16,800
Depreciation-Office Equipment 2,400
Direct Labor 42,000
Factory Supplies Used 16,800
Factory Utilities 10,200
Finished Goods Inventory, November 30 68,800
Finished Goods Inventory, October 31 72,550
Indirect Labor 48,000
Office Supplies Expense 1,600
Other Administrative Expenses 72,000
Prepaid Expenses 41,250
Raw Materials Inventory, November 30 52,700
Raw Materials Inventory, October 31 38,000
Raw Materials Purchases 184,500
Rent Factory Equipment 47,000
Repairs-Factory Equipment 4,500
Salaries 325,000
A list of accounts and their values are given above. From this information, prepare a partial balance sheet for Waterways Corporation for the month of November. (List Current Assets in order of liquidity.)

Answers

Answer:

Total current assets = $697,750

Explanation:

The partial balance sheet is as follows:

Waterways Corporation

Balance Sheet (Partial)

For the month of November 2016

Details                                                                $                         $          

Current Assets

Cash                                                           260,000

Accounts Receivable                                 275,000

Finished Goods Inventory, November       68,800

Raw Materials Inventory, November          52,700

Prepaid Expenses                                        41,250  

Total current assets                                                              697,750

Note:

Cash is the most liquid of assets.

Accounts receivable which should be collected within 30 to 60 days are less liquid than cash, but more liquid than inventory.

Finished Goods Inventory which is expected to be sold and converted to cash within one year, and Raw Materials Inventory which is expected to be converted to finished good within one year are more liquid than Prepaid expense.

Therefore, the least liquid among current assets’ item above is the Prepaid Expense as it is cash paid for services not yet received..

The seven main functions of marketing summarize what it takes to _____.

Answers

Explanation:

The seven functions of marketing are distribution, market research, setting prices, finance, product management, promotional channels and matching products to consumers

I guess this may help

Answer:

All of the above

Explanation:

just took it

If an investor has a choice of investing money at 6% compounded daily or 6.025% compounded quarterly which one is best

Answers

General Rule: Daily compounding gives a higher yield

Compounding works like this:

6.025% per quarter

Quarter 1: $100 x 6.025% = $6.025

Quarter 2: $106.025 x 6.025% = $6.388

Quarter 3: $112.413 x 6.025% = $6.7729

Quarter 4: $119.186 x 6.025% = $7.4491

Etc…

6% per day

Day 1: $100 x 6% = $6

Day 2: $106 x 6% = $6.36

...

Day 365: $193.47 x 6% = $11.96

Under IFRS, when a lessee recognizes a balance sheet asset and liability for a new lease: the asset and liability are equal. the asset is typically greater than the liability. the liability is typically greater than the asset.

Answers

Answer:

the asset and liability are equal.

Explanation:

IFRS 16 lease and IAS 17 deals in important changes where the lease transactions are reported in the lessee financial statement

In this the assets and liabilities that are occured from the lease should be initially determined on the present value basis

Also the assets and liability are equivalent to each other

Therefore the first option is correct

A firm with earnings before interest and taxes of $500,000 needs $1 million of additional funds. If it issues debt, the bonds will mature after 20 years and pay interest of 8 percent. The firm could issue preferred stock with a dividend rate of 8 percent. The firm has 100,000 shares of common stock outstanding and is in the 30 percent income tax bracket. What are the (1) earnings per common share under the two alternatives, (2) the times-interest-earned if the firm uses debt financing, and (3) the times-dividend-earned if the firm uses preferred stock financing

Answers

Answer:

                     Calculation of Earning Per Share

Particulars                                     Debt Alternative($)   Preferred Stock($)

Amount Required                                1,000,000                  1,000,000

Earning before Interest and Tax         500,000                     500,000

Less: Interest Cost(8%)                        80,000                           ----      

Earning After Interest                          420,000                     500,000

Tax(30%)                                               126,000                      150,000

Earning After Tax                                 294,000                     350,000

Less: Dividend to Pref. Shares                                                80,000

Earning Avai. for C. Stockholders       294,000                     270,000

Outstanding shares                             100,000                     100,000

Earning Per Common Share               2.94                             2.70  

2. Times Interest Earned Ratio = EBIT / Interest

Times Interest Earned Ratio = 500,000 / 80,000

Times Interest Earned Ratio = 6.25 Times

3. Times Dividend Earned Ratio = Net Income / Preferred Dividend

Times Dividend Earned Ratio = 350,000 / 80,000

Times Dividend Earned Ratio = 4.375 Times

Dobles Corporation has provided the following data from its activity-based costing system:

Activity Cost Pool Total Cost Total Activity
Assembly $228,060 18,000 mahcine hours
Processing orders $34,068 1200 orders
Inspection $125560 1720 inspection hours

The company makes 420 units of product D28K a year, requiring a total of 460 machine-hours, 80 orders, and 10 inspection-hours per year. The product's direct materials cost is $48.96 per unit and its direct labor cost is $25.36 per unit.
According to the activity-based costing system, the unit product cost of product D28K is closest to:

a. $95.34 per unit
b. $93.60 per unit
c. $74.32 per unit
d. $89.93 per unit

Answers

Answer:

Hence the correct option is option (a) i.e. $95.34 per unit.

Explanation:

Cost of 420 units of D28K product = 460 machine hour cost + 80 order cost + 10 inspection hour cost + 420 direct materials cost + 420 direct labor cost.

18000 machine hours = 228060

so 460 machine hours = 228060 x 460 /18000 = 5828.2

1200 orders = 34068

80 orders = 80 x 34068 / 1200 = 2271.2

1720 inspection hours = 125560

10 inspection hours = 10 x 125560/1720 = 730

So cost of 420 units of D28 products = 5828.2 + 2271.2 + 730 + 420 x 48.96 + 420 x 25.36

=40043.8

So cost of 1 D28K product = 40043.8 / 420 = 95.34

Nichols Company uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debts expense. The month-end accounts receivable balance is $250,000 and credit sales during the month were $1,000,000. Management estimates that 4% of accounts receivable will be uncollectible. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $2,500 before adjustment. The adjusting entry that Nichols must make includes: a. a credit to the allowance for $7,500. b. a credit to the allowance for $30,000. c. a debit to bad debt expense for $10,000. d. a debit to bad debt expense for $40,000.

Answers

Answer: a. a credit to the allowance for $7,500

Explanation:

Estimated Bad Debt = Balance on Account receivable  x bad Debt loss rate =  $250,000 x 4% = $10,000

Allowance for doubtful accounts with  a credit balance of  $2,500  

Allowance for Bad debts expense =Estimated Bad Debt -  Credit balance Allowance for doubtful accounts = $10,000 - $2,500 = $7,500

Account titles and explanation         Debit              Credit

Bad Debt Expense                         $7,500

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                        $7,500

Kluber, Inc. had net income of $911,000 based on variable costing. Beginning and ending inventories were 56,100 units and 54,200 units, respectively. Assume the fixed overhead per unit was $1.80 for both the beginning and ending inventory. What is net income under absorption costing?
a. $811,730
b. $904,160
c. $1,010,270
d. $907,580
e. $911,000

Answers

Answer:

Net operating income (absorption)= $907,580

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Fixed overhead per unit= $1.80

Net income= $911,000 (variable costing)

Beginning inventory= 56,100 units

Ending inventory= 54,200 units

Under absorption costing, fixed manufacturing overhead is a product cost. We need to incorporate into the cost of goods sold the fixed overhead from beginning inventory and deduct the fixed overhead allocated into ending inventory.

Net operating income= 911,000

Less:

Fixed overhead beginning inventory= (1.8*56,100)

Add:

Fixed overhead ending inventory= (1.8*54,200)

Net operating income (absorption)= $907,580

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2022 Ethics and Compliance Test
2022 Ethics and Compliance Test
W PREVIOUS
X EXIT
Janine, currently enrolled in a 3-star plan,
discovers there is 5-star plan available where
she lives. She asks her agent, Josh, to enroll
her in the 5-star plan. Josh can advise Janine
of each of the following except:
Josh should tell Janine that she can only change her current plan to a 5-
star plan during the Annual Election Period.
Josh should tell Janine that she can only use the 5-Star SEP once per
calendar year.
Josh should tell Janine that she can change her current plan to a 5-star

Answers

Answer:

Janine and Josh

Josh can advise Janine  of each of the following except:

Josh should tell Janine that she can only change her current plan to a 5-

star plan during the Annual Election Period.

Explanation:

The Special Election Period (SEP) for the 5-star Medicare Plan lasts one week, that is, between Nov. 30 and Dec. 8.  However, there is an Annual Enrollment Period (AEP) that lasts from October 15th to December 7th.  During the annual enrollment period, any plan holder can change her Medicare plan, depending on its availability in her area.

Glen Inc. and Armstrong Co. have an exchange with no commercial substance. The asset given up by Glen Inc. has a book value of $72,000 and a fair value of $96,000. The asset given up by Armstrong Co. has a book value of $120,000 and a fair value of $114,000. Boot of $24,000 is received by Armstrong Co.What amount should Armstrong Co. record for the asset received

Answers

Answer:

the amount that should be recorded as the asset is $96,000

Explanation:

The computation of the amount that should be recorded as the asset is given below:

Book value of assets given up = $72,000

Add : cash paid in exchange. $24,000

Amount recorded as an asset should be $96,000

We simply added the book value and the cash paid amount for an exchange

Therefore the amount that should be recorded as the asset is $96,000

Tangerine, Inc. provides the following data: Surround, Inc. Comparative Balance Sheet Dec. 31, 20X9 Assets Current Assets: Cash and Cash Equivalents $29,000 Account Receivable, Net 31,000 Merchandise Inventory 53,000 Total Current Assets $113,000 Property, Plant, and Equipment, Net 120,000 Total Assets $233,000 Liabilities Current Liabilities: Accounts Payable $4000 Notes Payable 3000 Total Current Liabilities $7000 Long-term Liabilities 84,000 Total Liabilities $91,000 Stockholders' Equity Common Stock $30,000 Retained Earnings 112,000 Total Stockholders' Equity $142,000 Total Liabilities and Stockholders' Equity $233,000 Calculate the debt to equity ratio.

Answers

Answer:

The debt to equity ratio is 0.64.

Explanation:

The debt to equity ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

Debt to equity ratio = Total Liabilities / Stockholders' Equity ……………………. (1)

Where:

Total Liabilities = $91,000

Stockholders' Equity = $142,000

Substitute the relevant data into equation (1), we have:

Debt to equity ratio = $91,000 / $142,000 = 0.64

Therefore, the debt to equity ratio is 0.64.

A firm is making an economic loss of $100,000. This means that: multiple choice 1 the firm should immediately exit the industry. the firm's revenues are less than its opportunity costs. the firm is not making an accounting profit. the firm could increase economic profit if its resources were used in a different way. If a firm is making an economic profit of zero: multiple choice 2 it will have unhappy stockholders. it is not making an accounting profit. the firm should change to a different line of business. it cannot make a higher economic profit by changing how it is using its resources.

Answers

A firm is making an economic loss of $100,000. This means that:

Choice 1 -

The firm could increase economic profit if its resources were used in a different way.

If a firm is making an economic profit of zero:

Choice 2 -

It cannot make a higher economic profit by changing how it is using its resources.

What Is Economic Profit (or Loss)?An economic profit or loss is the difference between the revenue received from the sale of an output and the costs of all inputs used, as well as any opportunity costs. In calculating economic profit, opportunity costs and explicit costs are deducted from revenues earned.Opportunity costs are a type of implicit cost determined by management and will vary based on different scenarios and perspectives.The calculation for economic profit --Economic profit = revenues - explicit costs - opportunity costs

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Assume that a firm had shareholders' equity on the balance sheet at a book value of $1,500 at the end of 2010.During 2011 the firm earns net income of $1,900,pays dividends to shareholders of $200,and issues new stock to raise $500 of capital.The book value of shareholders equity at the end of 2011 is:_______.
A) $2,750
B) $250
C) $1,450
D) $3,700

Answers

Answer:

The book value of shareholders equity at the end of 2011 is:_______.

D) $3,700.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Beginning shareholders equity book value = $1,500

Net income during 2011 =                                   1,900

Dividends paid to shareholders                          (200)

Issuance of new stock                                          500

Ending shareholders equity book value =     $3,700

b) The book value of equity at the end of 2011 is equal to the book value at the beginning of 2011 plus net income generated during 2011, issuance of new stock, minus dividends paid to shareholders.

A project has an expected risky cash flow of $500 in year 3. The risk-free rate is 4%, the expected market rate of return is 14%, and the project's beta is 1.20. Calculate the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3, CEQ3. (Assume CAPM holds.)

Answers

The certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3, CEQ3 is $360.33

The computation of the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3 is as follows:

But before that, the cost of equity should be determined via using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).

Cost of equity = Risk-free rate + beta × (expected market rate of return - risk-free rate)

= 4% + 1.20 × (14% - 4%)

= 16%

Now the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3 is

= $500 ÷ (1+ 0.16)^3

= $360.33

Therefore we can conclude that the certainty equivalent cash flow for year 3, CEQ3 is $360.33

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At the end of 2010 Jarrett Corp. developed the following forecasts of net income:

Year Forecasted Net Income
2011 $20,856
2012 $22,733
2013 $24,552
2014 $27,252
2015 $29,978

Management believes that after 2015 Jarrett will grow at a rate of 7% each year. Total common shareholders' equity was $112,768 on December 31, 2010. Jarrett has not established a dividend and does not plan to paying dividends during 2011 to 2015. Its cost of equity capital is 12%.

Required:
Compute the value of Jarrett Corp. on January 1, 2011, using the residual income valuation model.

Answers

Answer:

$83,057.11  

Explanation:

The value of the company is the present value of its residual income where the residual income is the net income in each year minus the implicit cost of capital

residual income=net income-(cost of equity capital*beginning shareholders' equity)

2011:

residual income=$20,856-( $112,768*12%)

residual income=$7323.84

stockholders' equity at the end of 2011=$112,768+$20,856=$133,624  

2012

residual income=$22733-( $133624 *12%)

residual income=$6,698.12  

stockholders' equity at the end of 2012=$133,624+$22733=$156,357  

2013:

residual income=$24552-(12%*$156357)

residual income=$5,789.16  

stockholders' equity at the end of 2013=$156,357+$24552=$180,909

2014;

residual income= $27252-(12%*$180909)

residual income=$5,542.92

stockholders' equity at the end of 2014=$180,909+$27252=$208,161

2015:

residual income=$29,978-(12%*$208161)

residual income=$4,998.68  

Terminal value of residual income=2015 residual income*(1+terminal growth rate)/(cost of equity-terminal growth rate)

Terminal value of residual income=$4,998.68*(1+7%)/(12%-7%)=$106,971.75  

value of the company=$7323.84/(1+12%)^1+$6,698.12/(1+12%)^2+$5,789.16 /(1+12%)^3+$5,542.92/(1+12%)^4+$4,998.68/(1+12%)^5+$106,971.75/(1+12%)^5

value of the company=$83,057.11

_____ stock is the number of shares that a corporation's charter allows it to sell. The number of these shares usually exceeds the number of shares issued (and outstanding), often by a large amount.

Answers

An authorized stock is the number of shares that a corporation's charter allows to sell.

Authorized stock is the legal number or limit of shares that a company allows or authorizes to be sold or put in the market. This factor of policy is applicable as per the charter that the corporation allows or is legally viable to provide.

In the issue of sharing shares of a company, an organization can allow only a certain limit of shares that can be sold. This limit is the number of shares that a corporation can issue to its shareholders or investors.This stock is different from issued stock which refers to the actual number of stocks that the company has sold.Rather, authorized stock is the amount of shares that can be sold by the company and being provided in the market to be bought by shareholders or investors.

Thus, we can conclude that whatever limit a corporation allows or provides to be sold is the authorized stock. And it is only this number of shares that can be issued or given to a shareholder to buy.

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Which of the following statements about the monetary aggregates is true?

a. The growth rates of M1 and M2 always track each other closely.
b. M1 is greater than M2.
c. When the growth rate of M2 increases, the growth rate of M1 must also increase.
d. When you transfer funds from your savings account to your checking account, M1 increases and M2 stays the same.

Given​ that, in billions of U.S.​ dollars, we have in​ currency, in demand​ deposits, in​ traveler's checks, in savings​ deposits, and in other checkable deposits. The total M1 amount in this economy is ​$__________

Answers

Answer: D. When you transfer funds from your savings account to your checking account, M1 increases and M2 stays the same.

Explanation:

1. Since M2 = M1 + Saving deposit + Time deposits + Money Market deposit of individuals, then from the options given, the true statement about the monetary aggregate is that when you transfer funds from your savings account to your checking account, M1 increases and M2 stays the same. Therefore, the fire option is D.

2. Your second question isn't well written but let's assume some figures in order to solve the question.

Let's say,

Currency = $863.2 billion

Demand deposit = $573.5 billion

Traveler's cheque = $3.8 billion

Savings deposit = $5237.8

Other checkable deposit = $319

Therefore, the total M1 amount in this economy will be:

M1 = Currency + Demand deposit + Travelers check + Other checkable deposits

= 863.2 + 573.5 + 3.8 + 319

= $1759.5 billion

o What’s the Difference Between Non-Formal and Informal Learning

Answers

Answer:

I hope this will help you

9 Given figures showing: Sales £8,200, Opening inventory £1,300, Closing inventory £900, Purchases £6,400, Carriage inwards £200, the cost of goods sold figure is (A) £6,800 (B) £6,200 (C) £7,000 (D) Another figure

Answers

Explanation:

the correct answer is

B)£6,200

Required information Skip to question [The following information applies to the questions displayed below.] The Tennis Times (TTT) is a publisher of magazines. Its accounting policy for subscriptions follows: Revenues Revenues from our magazine subscription services are deferred initially and later recognized as revenue as subscription services are provided. Assume TTT (a) collected $420 million in 2018 for magazines that will be distributed later in 2018 and 2019, (b) provided $204 million of services on these subscriptions in 2018, and (c) provided $216 million of services on these subscriptions in 2019. Required: Using the information given, indicate the accounts, amounts, and accounting equation effects of transactions (a), (b), and (c). (Enter any decreases to assets, liabilities, or stockholders equity with a minus sign. Enter your answers in whole dollars.)

Answers

Answer:

The solution to the given question is defined in the attached file please find it.

Explanation:

The rate at which revenue was generated​ (in millions of dollars per​ year) for a certain company for the years 2010 through 2016 can be approximated by ​f(t)=348e0.22t ​(10≤t≤​16), where t=10 corresponds to the start of the year 2010. Find and interpret ∫1016f(t)dt.

Answers

The revenue of a company represents the income generated by the company within a time frame. The total revenue generated by the company from the start of 2010 to the start of 2016 is $39.16 billion

Given that:

[tex]f(t) = 348e^{0.22t}[/tex]  [tex]10 \le t \le 16[/tex]

First, we calculate the integral

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt[/tex]

This is calculated as:

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \int\limits^{16}_{10} {348e^{0.22t}} \, dt[/tex]

Remove the constant

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = 348\int\limits^{16}_{10} {e^{0.22t}} \, dt[/tex]

Now, integrate

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = 348 \times \frac{1}{0.22} (e^{0.22t})|\limits^{16}_{10}[/tex]

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} (e^{0.22t})|\limits^{16}_{10}[/tex]

Expand

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} (e^{0.22\times 16} -e^{0.22\times 10} )[/tex]

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} (e^{3.52} -e^{2.2} )[/tex]

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = \frac{ 348}{0.22} \times 24.759[/tex]

[tex]\int\limits^{16}_{10} {f(t)} \, dt = 39164.2[/tex]

From the question

[tex]t = 10[/tex] represents the start of 2010.

This means that

[tex]t = 16[/tex] represents the start of 2016.

So, the interpretation is:

The total revenue from the start of 2010 to the start of 2016 is $39.16 billion

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Ajax, Inc., issued callable bonds with a par value of $1,000,000 that require the payment of a call premium of $10,000. The bonds have a carrying value of $990,000. We call these bonds prior to maturity on September 30.

Required:
Write down journal entry.

Answers

Answer: please see explanation column for answers.

Explanation:

The journal entry is as follows:

To record the bonds payable and retirement

Date                   Account titles and explanation    Debit           Credit

Sept 30,       Bonds payable                            $1,000,000

Loss on bonds retirement                              $20,000

             To Discount on bond                                                   $10,000

                To cash                                                                      $1,010,000

Calculation:

Loss on bonds retirement:Total Cash disbursements - carrying value  

= (par value of the bonds+ call premium) -carrying value

= ($1,000,000 + $10,000) - $990,000

= $1,010,000 - $990,000

= $20,000

The following information relates to last year's operations at the Legumes Division of Gervani Corporation: Minimum required rate of return 12% Return on investment (ROI) 15% Sales $ 900,000 Turnover (on operating assets) 3 times What was the Legume Division's net operating income last year

Answers

Answer: $45000

Explanation:

Firstly, the operating asset will be calculated which will be:

Operating asset = Sales / Turnover

= 900,000/3

Operating assets = $300,000

Then, the net operating income will be: Return on investment × Operating assets

Net operating income = 300,000 × 15%

= 300,000*0.15

= $45,000

Therefore, Legume Division's net operating income last year is $45000

WHAT ARE THE NEW LINKEDIN LIMITS?

Answers

Answer:

100 invites per week.

The new invite limits have been introduced by LinkedIn according to which you can’t send more than 100 invites per week. When you have reached the limit, a notification will pop up saying you’ve reached weekly limits.

You can’t do anything about it until the new week starts and the weekly limit resets.

The difference between actual overhead costs incurred and the budgeted overhead costs based on a flexible budget is the: Multiple Choice Production variance. Controllable variance. Volume variance. Price variance. Quantity variance.

Answers

The difference between actual overhead costs incurred and the budgeted overhead costs based on a flexible budget is the controllable variance.

In accounting, there are two elements of a variance- rate variance and volume variance. While the rate variance refers to the difference in the actual price paid vs. the budgeted price, the volume variance refers to the portion of the variance in sales, unit usage.

The controllable variance is in the "rate" element of the variance.Controllable variance refers to the process by which the efficiency of using variable overhead resources is measured.This means that the controllable variance is the difference between the actual cost and the budgeted overhead cost.The calculation for this variance is: Actual overhear expense - (budgeted overhead cost x standard number of units)= overhead controllable variance.

In short, we can say that the controllable variance is the amount that is not part of the volume variance. Rather, it is the difference in the overhead cost incurred and the budgeted overhead cost.  

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An individual taxpayer reports the following items for the current year: Ordinary income from Partnership A, operating a movie theater in which the taxpayer materially participates $70,000 Net loss from Partnership B, operating an equipment rental business in which the taxpayer does not materially participate (9,000) Rental income from building rented to a third party 7,000 Short-term capital gain from sale of stock 4,000 What is the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income for the year?

Answers

Answer:

$74,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income for the year

Taxpayer’s adjusted gross income=Net loss from Partnership B+Capital gain from sale of stock

Let plug in the formula

Taxpayer’s adjusted gross income=$70,000+ $4,000

Taxpayer’s adjusted gross income=$74,000

Therefore the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income for the year is $74,000

Bow-Wow Company manufactures a product with a unit variable cost of $50 and a unit sales price of $88. Fixed manufacturing costs were $240,000 when 10,000 units were produced and sold. The company has a one-time opportunity to sell an additional 1,000 units at $70 each in a foreign market which would not affect its present sales. If the company has sufficient (excess) capacity to produce the additional units, acceptance of the special order would affect net income as follows:

a. Income would decrease by $4,000.
b. Income would increase by $4,000.
c. Income would increase by $70,000.
d. Income would increase by $20,000.

Answers

20,000 dollars at least could be it

Match each example to the appropriate term.

a. Trees used to make paper
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital

b. A printing press used to make books.
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital

c. A method of organizing workers to increase production per hour.
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital

d. The skills workers learn during a training session.
1. Human capital
2. Technological knowledge
3. Physical capital

Answers

Answer:

a equals 3

b equals 3

c equals 1

d equals 2

Monetary stimulus is only helpful to an economy: __________

a. experiencing significant negative externalities.
b. that's in recession.
c. with few public goods.

Answers

That is in recession. B is the correct answer.

Which of the following statements is true?

a. Overhead can be applied slowly as a job is worked on.
b. Overhead can be applied when the job is completed.
c. Overhead should be applied to any job not completed at year-end in order to properly value the work in process inventory.

Answers

Answer:

the answer should be

a. Overhead can be applied slowly as a job is worked on.

Answer:

A: overhead can be applied slowly as a job is worked on.

Explanation:

Im pretty sure i already learned that! so trust it!

hope it helps!

if its wrong report my answer!

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