how do you work out 28.4 x 1.92

Answer:

x-√x -12

Step-by-step explanation:

(√x +3)(√x -4)=

x-√x -12

Answer:

the answer is C

Step-by-step explanation:

I used PEMDAS and school knowledge that I learned 2 years ago that I can't explain much, cause I i am bad at math, most of the time

Answer:

0.88175960442

Step-by-step explanation:

The square root of 0.7775 is 0.88175960442

The value of standard deviation will be;

⇒ 0.8803

What is mean by square root of a number?

A square root of a number is a value that multiplied by itself gives the same number.

Given that;

The value of Variance = 0.7775

Now,

Since, The standard deviation is the square root of the variance.

Hence, We can formulate;

The value of standard deviation = √0.7775

                                                 = 0.8803

Thus, The value of standard deviation will be;

⇒ 0.8803

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Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

well if we draw the graph we have the following image, and the only one that applies is

B

because 4>3

D) in the question

1002, 3001

Answer:

a) 503 b) 307 c) 56789 D) 1002

Step-by-step explanation:

Numbering starts from the left hand side and are arranged in ascending order.

A) (530, 503)

503 < 530

503 is lesser than 530 and as such it is encountered first when numbers are written, hence 503 will appear on the left side of the number line when both are written.

B.) (370, 307)

370 > 307

307 comes before 370, therefore it will appear on the left side of 370 when illustrated on a number line.

C.) (98765, 56789)

98765 > 56789

56789 will appear on the leftside of 98765 when both number are illustrated on a number line.

D.) 1002 < 3001

1002 will appear on the leftside of 98765 when both number are illustrated on a number line.

Answer:

3(6)

??

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The third option is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

I am a 100% sure.

Hope this helps....

Have a nice day!!!!

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

nPr=n!/(n-r)!

5!/(5-3)!

(5*4*3*2*1)/(2*1)

120/2

60

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

A permutation is a rearrangement of its elements in any sequence or linear order.

We are asked to rearrange the word BEACH into three letter permutations.

We find that each letter represents the first letter 5 x 3 = 15

Then distributes 5 places, so that 15 x 5 = 60

Answer:

[tex]-2 \geq w \geq 2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]|-w| \geq 2[/tex]

Required

Solve for w

[tex]|-w| \geq 2[/tex]

In absolution functions;

[tex]|-w| = |w|[/tex]

So, the given expression can be rewritten as

[tex]|w| \geq 2[/tex]

Removing the absolute sign, will gibe

[tex]w \geq 2[/tex] or [tex]w \leq -2[/tex]

When the second inequality os rewritten, it gives

[tex]w \geq 2[/tex] or [tex]-2 \geq w[/tex]

Reorder both inequalities

[tex]-2 \geq w[/tex] or [tex]w \geq 2[/tex]

Lastly, both inequalities are combined

[tex]-2 \geq w \geq 2[/tex]

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

You take the 1500 shots and take away the 300 and 450 you get 750 you divide 750 from 1500 then you get 0.5 and you multiply it with 100 and you get the answer 50.

Out of 1500 flu injections the share of flu vaccines which has been given is 94.33%.

A percentage is that the number or ratio expressed as a fraction of 100. it's denoted by the expression %. it's calculated by the subsequent formula:

Percentage=Number/total*100

It is provided that out of 1500 flu vaccines , 300 got in September, 450 got in October and 665 got in November.

Total vaccines given= 300+450+665

=1415

Percentage=1415/1500*100

=0.9433*100

=94.33%

Hence the proportion of flue vaccine that has been given is 94.33%.

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Answer:

Correct

1.5×10^5

Step-by-step explanation:

first multiply 0.00045x500000 then you get 200 and divide that by 0.0015 you will get 150000 the equation will be 1.5x10^5

The expression is in scientific notation [tex]1.5 \times 10^5[/tex].

The expression is;

[tex]\dfrac{0.00045 \times 500,000}{0.0015}[/tex]

Firstly simplify the equation

[tex]= \dfrac{0.00045 \times 500,000}{0.0015}\\\\= \dfrac{2225}{0.0015}\\\\= 150,000[/tex]

Scientific notation is a form of presenting very large numbers or very small numbers in a simpler form.

Therefore,

The expression is in scientific notation.

[tex]= 150,000\\\\= 15 \times 10000\\\\= 1.5 \times 10 \times 10000\\\\= 1.5 \times 10^5[/tex]

Hence, the expression is in scientific notation [tex]1.5 \times 10^5[/tex].

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Answer:

z= -3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

1/2z =-3/4 + 1/4z

Collect like terms

1/2z - 1/4z = -3/4

Add 1/2z - 1/4z

2z-z / 4 = -3/4

We have

z/4=-3/4

Same as

z(1/4) = -3/4

Divide both sides by 1/4

z(1/4) ÷ 1/4 = -3/4÷1/4

z(1/4) × 4/1= -3/4 × 4/1

z(4/4) = -12/4

z= -3

The value of z= -3

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right on the test

Answer:

7x - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

If PR, RS, and PS  are line segments then the equation below will work.

PR + RS = PS

(4x-2) + (3x-5) = 7x - 7

Answer:

288.4m

Step-by-step explanation:

This track is split into a rectangle and two semi-circles.

We can find the length of the semi-circles by finding its circumference with the formula [tex]2\pi r[/tex].

[tex]2\cdot3.14\cdot30\\188.4[/tex]

However this is half a circle, so:

[tex]188.4\div2=94.2[/tex].

There are two semi-circles.

[tex]94.2\cdot2=188.4[/tex]

Since there are two legs of 50m each, we add 100 to 188.4

[tex]188.4+100=288.4[/tex]m

Hope this helped!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for the perimeter, we first look at the rectangle in the middle. the length is 50m, and there are two sides to it, so: 50 * 2 = 100m for the top and bottom of the track.

For the circle, we can see the diameter is 30m. To solve for the circumference, we need to use the formula 2πr.

15 * 2π ≈ 94.2477796077

We add that to 100m and get:

194.2477796077

Answer:

4 is tenths (a) and 5 is hundredths (b)

Step-by-step explanation:

Now, 0.45

0 indicates the ones place (it comes before the decimal)

0.45 can also be written as:

0.4+0.05

= 4/10+5/100

what can we conclude from this?

we can say that 4 is in the tenths whilst 5 is in the hundredths.

therefore, a is 4 and b is 5.

Hope this helps you! :)

Answer:

the number is 126

Step-by-step explanation:

1) multiply each side by 32: (n-2) / 32 = 4

2) subtract 2 from each side: n-2 = 128

3) n = 126

Answer:

130

Step-by-step explanation:

So basically this number, minus 2, divided by 32 is 4, so lets write the unknown number as x.

So, (x-2)/32 = 4.

First multiply both sides by 32 to get rid of the denominator.

(32)(x-2)/32 = 4(32)          x-2 = 128

Now the -2 remains to figure out x, so you add 2 to both sides to get rid of the -2.

So, x-2+2 = 128+2,    -2 +2 is 0, and 128 +2 is 130, so you have x = 130.

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

when 3 is added 3597 becomes 3600 which is square of 60

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let S be the sample space, n(S) = 60

a) Let A be the event that the selected athlete uses

s less than a minute, n(A) = 59

The probability that a randomly selected athlete uses less a minute,  P(A) = n(A)/n(S) = 59/60 = 0.9833

b) 1 - 0.9833 = 0.0167

c)  1 - 1 = 0

Answer:

4th option

Step-by-step explanation:

The two triangles are not similar as their measurements are different

hope this helps

plz mark as brainliest!!!!!!

The true statement is: ΔABC and ΔEDC are not similar .

so, option 4 is correct.

Here, we have,

given that,

from the given diagram, we get,

triangle ABC => AB = 8

BC = 4

CA = 10

and, for triangle DCE =>

DE = 20

CD = 10

CE = 25

so, we get,

the three sides of the two triangles are not proportional with each other.

so, we have,

ΔABC and ΔEDC are not similar with each other.

we get,

The two triangles are not similar as their measurements are different.

Hence, The true statement is: ΔABC and ΔEDC are not similar .

so, option 4 is correct.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

C=153.86153...

100000C=15386153.86153...

subtract

99999C=15386000

C=15386000/99999

2 π r=15386000/99999

r=7693000/99999π≈24.5

Answer:

2.09 or 2 and 9/100

Step-by-step explanation:

2 1/2 - 41/100 =

5/2 - 41/100=

250/100 - 41/100=

209/100=

2  and  9/100 Or 2.09

I hope this helped you.

Answer:

x = 1,  x = 2,  x = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello, please consider the following.

[tex](x^2-4x)^2+7x^2-28x+12=0 \\\\(x(x-4))^2+7x(x-4)+12=0\\\\\text{Let's note }X = x(x-4)\text{ the equation becomes}\\\\X^2+7X+12=0\\\\\text{The sum of the zeroes is -7=-3+(-4) and the product is 12=(-4)*(-3).}\\\\\text{Wo we can factorise.}\\\\X^2+7X+12=X^2+4X+3X+12=X(X+4)+3(X+4)=(X+4)(X+3)=0\\\\X=-4 \ \ or \ \ X=-3[/tex]

So we need to solve:

[tex]x(x-4)=-4 \ \ or \ \ x(x-4)=-3\\\\<=> x^2-4x-4=(x-2)^2=0 \ \ or \ \ x^2-4x+3=(x-1)(x-3)=0[/tex]

So, the solutions are x = 2, x = 1, x = 3

Thank you

Answer:

(0,-3)

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-y = 3

x+2y = -6

Multiply the first equation by 2 so we can eliminate y

2(2x-y =3)

4x -2y = 6

Add this to the second equation

4x -2y = 6

x+2y = -6

-----------------

5x +0y = 0

x = 0

Now find t

x+2y = -6

0+2y = -6

2y =-6

Divide by 2

y = -3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's try to eliminate y.

First we multiply the first equation by 2,

4x - 2y = 6

x + 2y = -6

Then we add them together

5x = 0

x = 0

Now we plug x into the first equation,

4(0) - 2y = 6

-2y = 6

y= -3

Now we plug x into the second equation,

0 + 2y = -6

2y = -6

y = -3

So our answer is,

(0,-3)

Answer:

5/3

Step-by-step explanation:

5×(10×1/3)

=10×5/3

=since 5×(10×1/3) gives 50/3 so thus 10×5/3.

The fraction is therefore 5/3

Step-by-step explanation:

L*b=1800m^2

L=2b

2b*b=1800

2b^2=1800

b^2=900

b=30m

L=2*30

=60m

Perimeter=2(l+b)

=2(60+30)

=2*90

=180m

Answer:

8/81

Step-by-step explanation:

8/18 x 4/18 = 32/324 = 8/81

The probability of drawing a blue and then a green and replacing the candy after the draw is 8/81.

Probability is defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes in other words the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

Probability = Number of favorable outcomes / Number of sample

It is given that in a bag of M&MS there are 4 green, 6 yellow, and 8 blue candies.

The probability for blue = 8/18

The probability for green = 4/18

The probabilities of drawing a blue then green if you replace the candy after the draw will be calculated as below:-

Probability = 8/18 x 4/18

Probability = 32/324

Divide the number 32 by 324 to get the probability.

Probability = 8/81

Therefore, the probability of drawing a blue and then a green and replacing the candy after the draw is 8/81.

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Answer:

Find an integer k for which the roots of the equation will be rational and unequal. To find a value of k that makes the roots rational and unequal the discriminant must be greater than 0 and a perfect square.

Step-by-step explanation:

So if k=0 or k=5 the roots will be rational and unequal.  hope this helps you :)

Answer:

2 teaspoons

Step-by-step explanation:

24 tsp/12 cups = x tsp /1 cup

Cross multiplying, we have:

12x = 24

x = 2

The solution is 2 teaspoons of cocoa

Number of teaspoons of cocoa is given by the equation A = 2 teaspoons

Equations are mathematical statements with two algebraic expressions flanking the equals (=) sign on either side.

It demonstrates the equality of the relationship between the expressions printed on the left and right sides.

Coefficients, variables, operators, constants, terms, expressions, and the equal to sign are some of the components of an equation. The "=" sign and terms on both sides must always be present when writing an equation.

Given data ,

Let the number of teaspoons of cocoa be represented as A

Now , the equation will be

A batch of hot chocolate is made with 24 teaspoons of cocoa and 12 cups of milk

So , for 12 cups of milk = 24 teaspoons of cocoa is required

And , for 1 cup of milk A = 24 teaspoons of cocoa is required / 12

Substituting the values in the equation , we get

Number of teaspoons of cocoa A = 24 teaspoons / 12

Number of teaspoons of cocoa A = 2 teaspoons

Therefore , the value of A is 2 teaspoons

Hence , the number of teaspoons is 2

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Answer:

x = 58

Step-by-step explanation:

The secant- tangent angle 51° is half the difference of the measures of the intercepted arcs, that is

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] (160 - x) = 51 ( multiply both sides by 2 )

160 - x = 102 ( subtract 102 from both sides )

58 - x = 0 , thus

x = 58