Paauto A: Isulat sa papel ang alpabetong Ingles at bilang I hanggang 10 sa istilong
Roman ng pagleletra.​

2nd class leaver refers to such leaver in which load lies between effort and fulcrum.In a nut cracker too load is in between effort and fulcrum.Thus, nut cracker is a 2nd class leaver.......

Answer:

hhhhhhhjjjkkllkcftkbgfjknhglncg

The high frequency radio waves used for telecommunications links travel by line of sight and so are obstructed by the curve of the Earth. The purpose of communications satellites is to relay the signal around the curve of the Earth allowing communication between widely separated geographical points.

Explanation:

hope it helps!!

Answer:

You should multiply 60 kg*9.8 and answer will come.

Hope this will help you.

Answer:

yes she is right you should multiple 60*9.8

have a great day God bless you

Answer:

T = 1/f = 1/50(s)

ω = 2πf = 100π (rad/s)

(vote 5 sao nhó :3 )

The question is incomplete, the complete question is;

Light of frequency f falls on a metal surface and ejects electrons of maximum kinetic energy K by the photoelectric effect.

Part A If the frequency of this light is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons will be If the frequency of this light is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons will be

K/2.

K.

2K.

greater than 2K.

Answer:

2K

Explanation:

Given that the kinetic energy of photo electrons is given by;

K= E -Wo

Where;

K = kinetic energy

E= energy of incident photon

Wo = work function

But;

E= hf

Wo = fo

h= Plank's constant

f= frequency of incident photon

fo= Threshold frequency

So:

K= hf - hfo

Where the frequency of incident light is doubled;

K= 2hf - hfo

Hence, maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons in this case will be 2K

Explanation:

Given: [tex]\lambda = 500\:\text{nm} = 5×10^{-7}\:\text{m}[/tex]

[tex]\nu = \dfrac{c}{\lambda} = \dfrac{3×10^8\:\text{m/s}}{5×10^{-7}\:\text{m}}[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:= 6×10^{14}\:\text{Hz}[/tex]

The work function [tex]\phi[/tex] is then

[tex]\phi = h\nu = (6.626×10^{-34}\:\text{J-s})(6×10^{14}\:\text{Hz})[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:\:\:= 3.98×10^{-19}\:\text{J}[/tex]

The work function of the surface is equal to 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁹J.

The frequency can be explained as the number of oscillations of a wave in one second. The frequency has S.I. units of hertz.

The wavelength can be explained as the distance between the two adjacent points such as two crests or troughs on a wave.

The expression between wavelength (λ), frequency, and speed of light (c) is:

c = νλ

Given, the wavelength of the light, ν = 500 nm

The frequency of the light can determine from the above-mentioned relationship:

ν = c/λ= 3 × 10⁸/500 × 10⁻⁹ = 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz

The work function = h ν =  6 × 10¹⁴ × 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴

φ = 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁹J

Therefore, the work function of the surface is 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁹J.

Learn more about wavelength and frequency, here:

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A roller coaster uses 800 000 J of energy to get to the top of the first hill. During this climb, it gains 500 000 J of potential energy and pauses for a fraction of a second at the very top before heading down the other side. At the top of the hill total, the kinetic energy of the roller coaster would be zero as the velocity is zero at the top of the hill, therefore the total mechanical energy is only because of potential energy.

Mechanical energy is the combination of all the energy in motion represented by total kinetic energy and the total stored energy in the system which is represented by total potential energy.

The expression for total mechanical energy is as follows

ME= KE+PE

As total mechanical energy is the sum of all the kinetic as well as potential energy stored in the system.As given in the problem a roller coaster uses 800000 J of energy to get to the top of the first hill. During this climb, it gains 500 000 J of potential energy which means 300000 J of energy is lost in the frictional energy while climbing the hill,

Thus at the top of the hill, the total energy of the roller coasters is only due to the potential energy.

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Answer:

Iceland lies on a boundary where two plates are moving away from each other. Heat from Earth’s interior rises through this plate boundary at a fast rate. This fact makes Iceland well-suited to producing electricity using its abundance of geothermal energy.

Explanation:

Edmentum sample answer.

Answer:

The distance between mirror and you is 2 ft.

Explanation:

diameter, d = 8 ft

radius of curvature, R = 4 ft

magnification, m = 0.5

focal length, f = R/2 = 4/2 = 2 ft

let the distance of object is u and the distance of image is v.

[tex]\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{u}\\\\\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{u}\\\\v = \frac {2 u}{u - 2}[/tex]

Use the formula of magnification

[tex]m = \frac{v}{u}\\\\0.5 =\frac { u}{u - 2}\\ \\u - 2 = 2 u \\\\u = -2 ft[/tex]

(C)

Explanation:

[tex]E = hf = (6.626×10^{-34}\:\text{J•s})(8.0×10^{15}\:\text{Hz})[/tex]

[tex]= 5.3×10^{-18}\:\text{J}[/tex]

Answer:

It's D

Explanation:

It's from alvs

When the rock is suspended in the air, the net force on it is

∑ F₁ = T₁ - m₁g = 0

where T₁ is the magnitude of tension in the string and m₁g is the rock's weight. So

T₁ = m₁g = 37.8 N

When immersed in water, the tension reduces to T₂ = 32.0 N. The net force on the rock is then

∑ F₂ = T₂ + B₂ - m₁g = 0

where B₂ is the magnitude of the buoyant force. Then

B₂ = m₁g - T₂ = 37.8 N - 32.0 N = 5.8 N

B₂ is also the weight of the water that was displaced by submerging the rock. Let m₂ be the mass of the displaced water; then

5.8 N = m₂g   ==>   m₂ ≈ 0.592 kg

If one takes the density of water to be 1.00 g/cm³ = 1.00 × 10³ kg/m³, then the volume of water V that was displaced was

1.00 × 10³ kg/m³ = m₂/V   ==>   V ≈ 0.000592 m³ = 592 cm³

and this is also the volume of the rock.

When immersed in the unknown liquid, the tension reduces further to T₃ = 20.2 N, and so the net force on the rock is

∑ F₃ = T₃ + B₃ - m₁g = 0

which means the buoyant force is

B₃ = m₁g - T₃ = 37.8 N - 20.2 N = 17.6 N

The mass m₃ of the liquid displaced is then

17.6 N = m₃g   ==>   m₃ ≈ 1.80 kg

Then the density ρ of the unknown liquid is

ρ = m₃/V ≈ (1.80 kg)/(0.000592 m³) ≈ 3040 kg/m³ = 3.04 g/cm³

Answer:

6.94 km/hr

Explanation:

m/s to km/hr -> Multiply by 18/5

25/(18/5)

=> 25 x 5/18

=> 125/18 km/hr

=> 6.94 km/hr

Answer: 90,000 m = 90 km

Explanation:

Given information

Time = 1 hour

Speed = 25 m/s

Given expression deducted from the given information

Distance = speed × time

Convert units of time

1 hour = 60 minutes

1 minute = 60 seconds

1 hour = 60 × 60 = 3600 seconds

Substitute values into the expression

Distance = 25 × 3600

Simplify by multiplication

Distance = [tex]\boxed{90,000 m=90km}[/tex]

Hope this helps!! :)

Please let me know if you have any questions

It stands for energy=mass times the speed of light squared.

Answer:

1.5kg

Explanation:

Given data

mass m1= 2.5kg

mass m2=??

velocity of mass one v1= 1.5m/s

velocity of mass two v2= 4.1m/s

common velocity after impact v= 2.5m/s

Let us apply the formula for the conservation of linear momentum for inelastic collision

The expression is given as

m1v1+ m2v2= v(m1+m2)

substitute

2.5*1.5+ m2*4.1= 2.5(2.5+m2)

3.75+4.1m2= 6.25+2.5m2

collect like terms

3.75-6.25= 2.5m2-4.1m2

-2.5= -1.6m2

divide both sides by -1.6

m2= -2.5/-1.6

m2= 1.5 kg

Hence the second mass is 1.5kg

Answer:

The rise in temperature is 0.06 K.

Explanation:

mass of bullet, m = 15 g

initial speed, u = 865 m/s

final speed, v = 534 m/s

mass of water, M = 13.5 kg

specific heat of water, c = 4200 J/kg K

The change in kinetic energy

[tex]K = 0.5 m(u^2 - v^2)\\\\K = 0.5\times 0.015\times (865^2-534^2)\\\\K = 3473 J[/tex]

According to the conservation of energy, the change in kinetic energy is used to heat the water.

K = m c T

where, T is the rise in temperature.

3473 = 13.5 x 4200 x T

T = 0.06 K

Answer:

[tex]v=(6ti+6k)\ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

The position of a particle is given by :

[tex]r(t) = (3.0 t^2 i + 5.0j+ 6.0 tk) m[/tex]

Let us assume we need to find its velocity.

We know that,

[tex]v=\dfrac{dr}{dt}\\\\=\dfrac{d}{dt}(3.0 t^2 i + 5.0j+ 6.0 tk) \\\\=(6ti+6k)\ m/s[/tex]

So, the velocity of the particle is [tex](6ti+6k)\ m/s[/tex].

Answer:

in parallel combination : potential difference between two terminal of resistors are always constant. ... hence, potential difference ( voltage ) must be same across each resistor .

Explanation:

Answer:

a. Find the graph in the attachment

b. 720 kΩ

c. The ratio V/I gives us our resistance which is 720 kΩ

Explanation:

a) plot a graph of V against I.

To plot the graph of V against I, we plot the corresponding points against each other. With the voltage V measured in volts and the current I measured in mA, the plotted graph is in the attachment.

b) Determine the wire's resistance , R.

The resistance of the wire is determined as the gradient of the graph.

R = ΔV/ΔI = (V₂ - V₁)/(I₂ - I₁)

Taking the first two corresponding measurements. V₁ = 72 V, I₁ = 0.1 mA, V₂ = 144 V and I₂ = 0.2 mA

R = (144 V - 72 V)/(0.2 - 0.1) mA

R = 72 V/0.1 mA

R = 72 V/(0.1 × 10⁻³ A)

R = 720 × 10³ V/A

R = 720 kΩ

c) State ohm's law and try to relate it your results.​

Ohm's law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage across it provided the temperature and all other physical conditions remain constant.

Mathematically, V ∝ I

V = kI

V/I = k = R

Since the ratio V/I = constant, from our results, the ratio of V/I for each reading gives us the resistance. Since we have a linear relationship between V and I, the gradient of the graph is constant and for each value of V and I, the ratio V/I is constant. So, the ratio V/I gives us our resistance which is 720 kΩ.

Since V/I is constant, we thus verify Ohm's law.

The corresponding frequency of this sinewave, in kHz, expressed to 3 significant figures is: 155 kHz.

Given the following data:

Note: μs represents microseconds.

Conversion:

1 μs = [tex]1[/tex] × [tex]10^-6[/tex] seconds

645 μs = [tex]645[/tex] × [tex]10^-6[/tex] seconds

To find corresponding frequency of this sinewave, in kHz;

Mathematically, the frequency of a waveform is calculated by using the formula;

[tex]Frequency = \frac{1}{Period}[/tex]

Substituting the value into the formula, we have;

[tex]Frequency = \frac{1}{645 * 10^-6}[/tex]

Frequency = 1550.39 Hz

Next, we would convert the value of frequency in hertz (Hz) to Kilohertz (kHz);

Conversion:

1 hertz = 0.001 kilohertz

1550.39 hertz = X kilohertz

Cross-multiplying, we have;

X = [tex]0.001[/tex] × [tex]1550.39[/tex]

X = 155039 kHz

To 3 significant figures;

Frequency = 155 kHz

Therefore, the corresponding frequency of this sinewave, in kHz is 155.

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Answer:

0

Explanation:

The speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 0 because any object at rest or in uniform motion has no speed or velocity

Using the left-hand rule,

[tex](4\,\vec\imath+\vec k)\times(2\,\vec\imath+\vec\jmath-3\,\vec k) = \begin{vmatrix}\vec\imath&\vec\jmath&\vec k\\4&0&1\\2&1&-3\end{vmatrix} = -\vec\imath+14\,\vec\jmath+4\,\vec k[/tex]

Then in the right-handed rectangular coordinates, the cross product is the negative of this,

[tex]\boxed{\vec\imath-14\,\vec\jmath-4\,\vec k}[/tex]

Answer:

The metabolic power for starting flight=134.8W/kg

Explanation:

We are given that

Mass of starling, m=89 g=89/1000=0.089 kg

1 kg=1000 g

Power, P=12 W

Speed, v=11 m/s

We have to find the metabolic power for starting flight.

We know that

Metabolic power for starting flight=[tex]\frac{P}{m}[/tex]

Using the formula

Metabolic power for starting flight=[tex]\frac{12}{0.089}[/tex]

Metabolic power for starting flight=134.8W/kg

Hence, the metabolic power for starting flight=134.8W/kg

Answer:

B) The same as the momentum change of the heavier fragment.

Explanation:

Since the initial momentum of the system is zero, we have

0 = p + p' where p = momentum of lighter fragment = mv where m = mass of lighter fragment, v = velocity of lighter fragment, and p' = momentum of heavier fragment = m'v' where m = mass of heavier fragment = 25m and v = velocity of heavier fragment.

0 = p + p'

p = -p'

Since the initial momentum of each fragment is zero, the momentum change of lighter fragment Δp = final momentum - initial momentum = p - 0  = p

The momentum change of heavier fragment Δp' = final momentum - initial momentum = p' - 0 = p' - 0 = p'

Since p = -p' and Δp = p and Δp' = -p = p ⇒ Δp = Δp'

So, the magnitude of the momentum change of the lighter fragment is the same as that of the heavier fragment.  

So, option B is the answer

Answer:

4√6 rad/s

Explanation:

Since the spring is initially stretched a length of x = 4 in when the 4 lb mass is placed on it, since it is in equilibrium, the spring force, F = kx equals the weight of the mass W = mg.

So, W = F

mg = kx where m = mass = 4lb, g = acceleration due to gravity = 32 ft/s², k = spring constant and x = equilibrium displacement of spring = 4 in = 4 in × 1ft /12 in = 1/3 ft

making k the spring constant subject of the formula, we have

k = mg/x

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

k = mg/x  

k = 4 lb × 32 ft/s² ÷ 1/3 ft

k = 32 × 4 × 3

k = 384 lbft²/s²

Now, assuming there is no friction and no external force, we have an undamped system.

So, the natural frequency for an undamped system, ω = √(k/m) where k = spring constant = 384 lbft²/s² and m = mass = 4 lb

So, substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

ω = √(k/m)

ω = √(384 lbft²/s² ÷ 4 lb)

ω = √96

ω = √(16 × 6)

ω = √16 × √6

ω = 4√6 rad/s

Answer:

It will travel Vx * t = 30 m/s * 2 s = 60 m

Answer:

Gap left = Change in length on heating

Gap=Initial length×Coefficient of linear expansion×change in temperature

Gap=10×0.000012×15m

⟹Gap=0.0018 m

this is an example u have to put your equation in it

Answer:

Accuracy is how much the consequence of an estimation adjusts to the right worth or a norm' and basically alludes to how close an estimation is to its concurred esteem

《OAmalaOHopeO》

Answer:

In a set of measurements, accuracy is closeness of the measurements to a specific value, while precision is the closeness of the measurements to each other.

Explanation:

_Hope it helps you_

Answer:

impulse applied to an object produces an equivalent vector change in its linear momentum, also in the resultant direction. The SI unit of impulse is the newton second (N⋅s), and the dimensionally equivalent unit of momentum is the kilogram meter per second (kg⋅m/s).