FILL IN THE BLANK. codes for glossectomy procedures are assigned from the___heading of the cpt digestive system subsection.
Codes for glossectomy operations are allocated under the CPT digestive tract subsection's Tongue & Floor of Mouth category.
However, these codes must be recorded together along with CPT code 43020 (Esophagotomy, cervical method, with removal of foreign body) or CPT code 43045 when removing a foreign body (Esophagotomy, thoracic method, with removal of foreign body). The codes for combined adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy (42820-42821) reveal another coding trap that you must stay clear of. Use the combination tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy codes if the surgeon conducts an adenoidectomy and a tonsillectomy concurrently operations . When different endoscopic techniques are used to complete the same surgery, only the successful endoscopic operations should be reported. When urethral catheter is carried out independently of another operation, urethral catheter codes (51701-51702) are recorded.
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False positives for the presence of nitrites can happen if the specimen is ________ for too long.
Answer:
at room temperature
Explanation:
Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following, EXCEPT:- infant mortality.- stillbirth.- increased risk for hypertension as an adult.- increased risk for cancer as an adult.- increased risk for diabetes as an adult.
Health risks associated with a small-for-gestational-age infant (SGA) include all of the following are - increased risk for cancer as an adult.
The common age at prognosis is 10 overall (a long time zero to 19), 6 years antique for children (elderly zero to 14), and 17 years antique for adolescents (elderly 15 to 19), at the same time as adults' common age for most cancers prognosis is 66. Childhood most cancers isn't one disease - there are extra than 12 fundamental forms of pediatric cancers and over a hundred subtypes.
Infants born with fetal increase restrict small for gestational age (FGR SGA) are at multiplied threat of short- and long-time period headaches and death. Conditions consisting of maternal hypertension, kidney disease, infections, malnutrition, smoking, and substance abuse boom the threat of getting an FGR SGA infant.
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a percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disk
The answer to the statement " a percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disc " is false.
The correct answer choice is option b.
What is meant by percutaneous diskectomy?A percutaneous diskectomy simply refers to that surgical or medical procedure which is performed in order to remove a herniated disc. This purpose of this procedure is to get relief for the patient suffering the health condition which occur as a result this disc irritating the nerve fibers. This goes to say that when there is an irritation in the nerve structure of the body, a fractured disc is not removed but a herniated disc.
That being said, it is a health condition which needs proper medical attention by a qualified medical personnel in order to improve the condition.
In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanation given above that a percutaneous diskectomy is a surgical procedure.
Complete question:
A percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disk.
a. True
b. False
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final diagnosis: acute bronchitis, with bronchospasm, due to rhinovirus the correct code(s) for this case is/are
Final diagnosis: acute bronchitis with bronchospasm brought on by a rhinovirus; J20 is the proper code(s) in this case. Code J44 is used to report chronic obstructive pulmonary illness.
J31 is used to report chronic purulent rhinitis. Discharge Summary: Final diagnosis: acute rhinovirus-induced bronchospasm and bronchitis J20 is the proper code in this circumstance. a condition where the bronchial tube's (the tube that transports air to and from the lungs) lining is irritated as chronic disease. Breathlessness, a mucus-filled cough, and a slight fever are all results of this. A chest cold is another name for acute bronchitis. Most acute bronchitis symptoms continue for up to two weeks. Some people's coughs can persist for as long as 8 weeks. Long-lasting chronic bronchitis.
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Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
A. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.
B. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm.
C. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims.
D. Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.
The correct statement about drowning is laryngospasm following submersion in water rescue breathing difficult.
what is drowning?
When the mouth and nose are submerged in liquid, it results in asphyxia known as drowning.
Laryngospasm, a reflex contraction of the vocal cords, is a common symptom of dry drowning. It prevents water from entering the lungs but can also impair proper air intake through the windpipe. If untreated, laryngospasm, which can happen minutes to hours after the first water inhalation, might be fatal.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. final diagnosis: chronic cardiopulmonary disease with pulmonary arteritis. the correct code(s) for this case is/arE ____ and ____.
Chronic cardiopulmonary illness with pulmonary arteritis was the ultimate diagnosis. I27.9 and I28.8 are the appropriate code(s) to use in this situation. Navigate to content To search, click.
A chronic condition is a sickness that develops over time or a human health condition that is persistent or has other long-lasting impacts. When a chronic disease's progression lasts for longer than three months, the word "chronic" is frequently used. A very uncommon cause of pulmonary hypertension is pulmonary arteritis. Primary and secondary causes of pulmonary arteritis can be distinguished, as can vessel size-related causes. Only giant cell arteritis and Takayasu arteritis are the predominant kinds of big vascular vasculitis that are linked to pulmonary hypertension.
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dedice whether this is a positive correlationbetween smoking and mortality rate due to all types of disease
Tobacco use is linked to cancer, heart disease, stroke, lung disease, diabetes, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
It is estimated that cigarette smoking causes the following: Every year, over 480,000 people die (including deaths from secondhand smoke) Men die at a rate of 278,544 per year (including deaths from secondhand smoke).
Smoking is responsible for approximately 80% (or 8 out of 10) of all deaths from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Cigarette smoking raises the risk of death from any cause in both men and women. In the United States, the risk of dying from cigarette smoking has increased over the last 50 years.
A number of mechanisms for smoking's potentially beneficial effects have been proposed, but three stand out: the 'anti-estrogenic effect,' changes in prostaglandin production, and stimulation of nicotinic cholinergic receptors in the central nervous system.
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a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb
22.7 the weight of the child in kg. when a medical assistant is preparing to administer an intramusuclar injection to a child who weights 50 lb.
A material is injected into a muscle during an intramuscular injection, often known as IM. It is one of various strategies for administering drugs via parenteral infusion in medicine. The shoulder, hip, and thigh are only three examples of potential sites for intramuscular injection. Before administering an injection on themselves, those who must do so should acquaint themselves with the procedure and get help from their doctor. Medical personnel known as medical assistant support doctors in hospitals and clinics. It usually takes between nine months and two years for the majority of aspirants to become medical assistants, while the precise length of time might vary. Graduating from high school, enrolling in medical assistant training, and earning certifications are all necessary stages to become a medical assistant.
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Psychotropic medications may act at the neural synapse to accomplish which of the following? (Select all that apply)
a. Inhibit the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters, creating more availability
b. Inhibit catabolic enzymes, promoting more availability of a neurotransmitter
c. Block receptors, resulting in less neurotransmitter activity
d. Add synthetic neurotransmitters found in the drug
Psychotropic medications may act at the neural synapse to accomplish the options a,b and c.
Drugs known as psychotropics are those that affect mood, perception, and behaviour. Psychotropic medicines can be effective tools for treating illnesses like borderline personality disorder (BPD), anxiety, bipolar disorder, depression, and schizophrenia, especially when combined with psychotherapy.
These medications work by changing the ratio of neurotransmitters in your body, including serotonin, dopamine, and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). These chemical messengers transmit signals between your organs to help control how they work. They support neuronal communication in the brain, which regulates mood, focus, perception, and other aspects of mental function. They target particular cells only.
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if an identical twin has schizophrenia, the co-twin's chances of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta.
If an identical twin has schizophrenia, chances the co-twin's of being similarly afflicted are in 10 if they shared a placenta are then there's a 30-50% danger that the alternative dual may have it as well.
Identical twins much more likely to expand schizophrenia than non-equal. They determined that after evaluating equal dual research, that they'd a concordance fee of 40% whilst non-equal twins had 7.4%. equal twins, if a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative dual has a 1 in 2 danger of growing it, too.
This is proper even supposing they may be raised separately. In non-equal twins, who've distinctive genetic make-ups, while a dual develops schizophrenia, the alternative simplest has a 1 in eight danger of growing the condition.
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huntington's disease is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder that can affect both men and women. imagine a couple has had seven children, and later in life, the husband develops huntington's disease. he is tested and it is discovered he is heterozygous for the disease allele, hh. the wife is also genetically tested for the huntington's disease allele, and her test results show she is unaffected, hh
Answer:
a) probability that the first child of this couple will have Huntington's disease is 1/2 = 50%
b) probability that any six of the seven children will have Huntington's disease is 0.05468 ( 5.468% )
Step-by-step explanation:
a)Given that;Hh ( diseased father) and hh (normal)
H h
h Hh hh
h Hh hh
therefore Hh ⇒ 2 and hh ⇒ 2
so here we can see that chances of getting Huntington's disease is 1 : 1
so probability that the first child of this couple will have Huntington's disease is 1/2 = 50%b)
probability that 6 out of the 7 children will have Huntington's disease;
we use the expression: <P> = (n! / (S! × t!)) × p^S × q^t
where n! is total number of children factorial
S! is diseased number of children factorial
t! is healthy number of children factorial
p is probability of diseased children
q is probability of healthy children
so we substitute: <P> = (7! / (6! × 1!)) × 1/2^6 × 1/2^1
= (7 × 6! / (6! × 1!)) × 1/2⁶ × 1/2
= 7 × 1/64 × 1/2
= 0.05468
probability that any six of the seven children will have Huntington's disease is 0.05468 ( 5.468% )
two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: _________
The two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: falls and motor vehicle collisions.
What is Blunt trauma?The term "blunt trauma" refers to injuries to the body caused by a violent impact, a fall, or a physical assault with a dull instrument. It is sometimes referred to as "non-penetrating trauma" or "blunt force trauma." In contrast, penetrating trauma results in an open wound when an item or surface pierces the skin. Combinations of forces, including as acceleration and deceleration (the change in speed of a moving item), shearing (the sliding and stretching of organs and tissue in relation to one another), and crushing pressure can result in blunt trauma.Contusion, abrasion, laceration, and fracture are the four main subtypes of blunt trauma. A contusion, also referred to as a bruise, is an area of skin where tiny veins and capillaries have broken. Abrasions happen when the skin's layers have beenTo learn more about Blunt trauma refer to:
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assume the mpc is 0.8. assuming only the multiplier effect matters, a decrease in government purchases of $100 billion will shift the aggregate demand curve to the group of answer choices
A $100 billion reduction in government purchases shifts the aggregate demand curve to the left by about $500 billion.
What is MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume)?In economics, marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is defined as the percentage of wage increases that consumers spend on goods and services rather than saving. Customers can also save some extra money. These trends are not mere observations. They serve as the basis for the marginal propensity to save (MPS) and the marginal propensity to spend.
The marginal propensity to consume is calculated by dividing the change in consumption by the change in income. For example, if a person's spending increases by 90% for every new dollar earned, the formula would be 0.9/1 = 0.9.
With an MPC of 0.65 and a $20 billion decrease in government purchases, this is:
= Purchase / (1 - MPC)
= 100 billion / (1 - 0.8)
= 500 billion
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a mental health nurse has been asked to be a guest speaker at a seminar on self-concept. when describing the normal patterns of self-concept, which component would the nurse most likely address? select all that apply.
When a mental health nurse is asked to describe normal patterns of self-concept, the nurse will most likely address the following components :
Body imageSelf-esteemPersonal identityRole performanceThe image we have of ourselves is referred to as our self-concept. Many factors influence it, including our interactions with important people in our lives.
Self-concept is our perception of our own behaviors, abilities, and distinguishing characteristics. Self-concept How you perceive your personality traits, such as whether whether you are an extrovert or an introvert, self-concept is how you perceive your life roles, such as whether you believe being a parent, sibling, friend, or partner are important parts of your identity
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Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT
O pressure changes in the thorax
O urinary output
O venous valves
O activity of skeletal muscles
Factors that aid venous return include pressure changes in the thorax, venous valves, and activity of the skeletal muscles except urinary output. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is Venous return?
Venous return is the rate of back flow of blood to the heart. It normally limits the cardiac output. Superposition of the cardiac function curve and venous return curve is used in hemodynamic model. The main driver force in venous return is the blood flowing back to the heart which is driven by the pressure difference between the mean systemic filling pressure and right atrial pressure (RAP).
Venous return can be facilitated by a number of different factors, such as inspiration, increased total blood volume, the cardiac suction effect, the presence of venous valves and the skeletal muscle pump.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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botulism food poisoning is a preventable illness if special precautions are taken during food preparation. in this case, what could sue have done to prevent the outbreak of botulism? select all that apply.
Before serving the food to her family, Sue could have boiled it for at least 10 minutes.
During the canning process, Sue realised that the pressure cooker was having issues. She ought to have bought a new pressure cooker, repaired the one she had, or borrowed one that was in good working order. By using safe food handling techniques, such as swiftly putting leftovers in the refrigerator, you can help prevent botulism. oil-preserved food must be consumed within ten days of being opened. preserving in the refrigerator things like herbs and vegetables that are preserved in oil. Antitoxin medications are used by doctors to treat botulism because they stop the toxin from doing further damage. The harm that a poison has already caused cannot be repaired by an antitoxin.
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why do you think dr. walker suspected the milk as the source of infection? imagine that you are working for johnson dairy. describe three practices (during or after production) that would help limit the chance of contamination in their milk?
There is no context given, but most likely, after detecting Campylobacter Jujeni in the sample, Dr. Walker assumed the milk was the source of the infection.
Campylobacter Jejuni is a kind of bacteria that is regularly found in milk. Ingestion of infected, raw, or undercooked chicken, as well as unpasteurized milk and other dairy products, is the most prevalent way Campylobacter Jejuni is transmitted.
As a worker at Johnson Dairy, what are the three practices that would help limit the contamination in the milk?Campylobacter Jejuni is a frequent pathogen in the dairy business. Consumption of raw milk, in particular, increases the chance of contracting this pathogen. Undiagnosed mastitis in cows and poorly sterilized equipment could also be issues.
To limit the possibility of contamination, the following practices should be conducted:
Equipment must be cleaned on a regular basis, and cows should be tested for disease on a regular basis.Dairy products marketed without pasteurization must be tested for microorganisms on a regular basis.Any abnormal findings must be reported as soon as possible.Learn more about pathogen here: brainly.com/question/10500193
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an rn is leading a public health education program about the west nile virus. the given community has had multiple cases of west nile virus in the past month. the rn aims to provide teaching regarding transmission, symptoms, and prevention.
In 1937, a woman in Uganda's West Nile district became the first person to contract the West Nile Virus (WNV). In the Nile delta region, it was discovered in birds (crows and columbiformes) in 1953.
Any person with a fever or acute neurologic illness who has recently been exposed to mosquitoes, blood transfusion, or organ donation should be evaluated for West Nile virus (WNV) disease, especially in the summertime in regions where viral activity has been observed.
People can develop neurological disorders and pass away from West Nile Virus (WNV). WNV is frequently found in West Asia, North America, Europe, the Middle East, and Africa. The cycle of WNV maintenance in nature involves bird-to-mosquito transfer. Infected mammals include humans, horses, and other mammals.
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Which of the following is an example of composting?
A. creating mulch from yard and food scraps
B. using animal ding as a fuel source
C. recycling steel replace dependence on iron ore
D. purchasing products that have less packaging
E. using less toxic materials the build products
Creating mulch from yard and food scraps and using animal ding as a fuel source are the example of composting.
What is the process of composting?Composting is the natural, in controlled conditions occurring 'rotting' or breakdown of organic waste by microbes. After being composted, raw organic materials including agricultural leftovers, animal waste, food waste, some municipal wastes, and acceptable industrial wastes become more suited for use as fertilizing resources in the soil.An abundant supply of organic materials is compost. In order to maintain soil fertility and, by extension, sustainable agricultural output, soil organic matter is crucial. In addition to being a source of plant nutrition, it enhances the physico-chemical and biological qualities of the soil. These enhancements make the soil:( I) more resilient to pressures including drought, illness, and toxicity (ii) aids the crop in better nutrient uptake; (iii) thanks to active microbial activity, has a capacity for active nutrient cycling.Learn more about composting refer to :
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a nurse educator is preparing to discuss immunodeficiency disorders with a group of fellow nurses. what would the nurse identify as the most common secondary immunodeficiency disorder?
When preparing to discuss immunodeficiency disorders with a group of fellow nurses, the nurse educator would identify AIDS as the most common secondary immunodeficiency disorder.
The most prevalent secondary condition is AIDS, which is also the most well-known secondary immunodeficiency disorder. AIDS is caused by an infection with HIV, or the human immunodeficiency virus. AIDS stands for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. AIDS is the most well-known secondary immunodeficiency due to its widespread prevalence and high fatality rate if left untreated.
Meanwhile, the most common immunodeficiency in the world is caused by severe malnutrition, which affects both adaptive and innate immunity. When the immune system of our body is weakened because of an environmental cause, a secondary immune deficiency disease develops.
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The clinician is seeing a toddler for a follow-up visit. The chart indicates that the previous examiner noted an innocent murmur. You should suspect a possible pathological murmur if the examination reveals the following
A. Murmur is grade I-II/IV
B, Murmur changes with the toddler's position. C. Murmur is musical in quality. D. Murmur is diastolic.
The clinician should suspect a possible pathological murmur in the toddler, as his/her previous examiner noted an innocent murmur, if the examination reveals the murmur is diastolic. Hence, the correct answer is D.
Pathological murmurs have a sound level of 3rd grade or above, a diastolic murmur, or an increase in severity as the patient stands. All children who have any of these symptoms should see a pediatric cardiologist. Heart murmurs are noises produced by choppy and rapid blood flow through the heart, such as swishing and whooshing. A stethoscope can be used to listen to the heart murmur. When the heart valves close, a typical heartbeat generates two noises that sound like "lubb-dupp" that often written as "lub-DUP".
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FILL IN THE BLANK. ___ age is an individual's adaptive capacities compared with those of other individuals of the same chronological age.
The ability to adjust to new situations in comparison to people of a similar chronological age is what is meant by psychological age. The study of the mind and behavior's is known as psychology.
Studying conscious and unconscious phenomena, such as thoughts and feelings, is part of psychological age. It is an academic field with a colossal extent that merges the social and natural sciences. psychological age work to comprehend the brain's emergent characteristics, which ties their field to neuroscience. Chronological age is the period of time from a person's birth to a specific date. Chronological quotation units include years, months, weeks, days, etc. Because biological age takes into account a variety of biological and physiological development factors, such as genetics, lifestyle, and nutrition, it differs from chronological age.
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A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ferrous gluconate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? " should stay upright for at least 15 minutes after taking this medication." should take this medication with 8 ounces of milk. should notify my provider il my stools turn black * should take an antacid with this medication to prevent stomach upset"
Answer:
I should stay upright for 15 minutes after taking this medication.
Explanation:
You are examining an elderly woman and find a grade 3/6 crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur with radiation to the neck. This is most likely caused by:
A. aortic stenosis
B. aortic regurgitation.
C. anemia.
D. mitral stenosis.
The best choice is mitral stenosis.
The valve between the two left heart chambers narrows in mitral valve stenosis, also known as mitral stenosis. Blood flow into the main pumping chamber of the heart is decreased or blocked by the constricted valve. The lower left heart chamber, commonly known as the left ventricle, serves as the heart's primary pumping chamber.
A mitral valve stenosis condition might leave you feeling exhausted and breathless. Dizziness, abnormal heartbeats, chest pain, and bloody coughing are some more symptoms that could exist. Symptoms may go unnoticed by some people.
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proof is the percentage of alcohol in a drink by volume, so 40 proof means 40% alcohol
The proof is the percentage of alcohol in a drink by volume, so 40 proof means 40% alcohol is false.
Is alcohol by a volume equivalent to proof?Alcohol-by-volume and proof are the two primary measures used to describe a beverage's alcohol level. A spirit's proof is simply twice its alcohol by volume in the US. Accordingly, a bottle of 151-proof rum has a 75.5% abv, compared to 45% in a bottle of 90-proof bourbon.
The amount of alcohol in a beverage is measured as a percentage of the total weight of the beverage and is known as alcohol by weight (ABW). In the US, where alcohol proof is regarded as having twice the quantity of alcohol by volume, this method of determining alcohol content is therefore primarily employed (ABV). Alcoholic beverage weight values and the Bureau of Alcohol are frequently cited in United States.
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communication is the interchange of information through thoughts, feelings, messages, or perceptions as by speech, gestures, writing, or behavior. the elements of the sender-receiver process include?
Communication means transferring thoughts, information, emotion and ideas through gesture, voice, symbols, signs and expressions from one person to another, communication process they are Sender, Receiver and the Channel.
what is communication ?Communication is a two-way process where it involves transfer of information or messages from one person or group to another.
This process goes on and includes a minimum of one sender and receiver to pass on the messages, it can either be any ideas, imagination, emotions, or thoughts.
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You are assigned to a 21-year-old primipara, who is 36 hours post-birth and breastfeeding her healthy newborn son. During your assessment, you note that there is a small reddened area on the right side of the left areola. Based on this assessment finding, which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A. Instruct the woman to change feeding position from cradle hold to football hold.
B. Instruct the woman to air-dry her nipples for 15 minutes after each feeding.
C. Instruct the woman to apply a lanolin cream to the area after each feeding.
D. Instruct the woman to feed from only the right breast for 24 hours.
C. Instruct the woman to apply a lanolin cream to the area after each feeding.
If you notice a small inflamed patch on the right side of the left areola, you should instruct the mother to switch from cradle hold to football hold.
The football or clutch hold are further choices. If you have large breasts or are recuperating from a caesarean section, this position can be a suitable fit for you. With your elbow bent, hold your infant close by. Supporting your infant's head with an open hand, turn him or her toward your breast. Due to its capacity to relieve strain on the mothers' belly, the football hold position is the most comfortable nursing position following caesarean section. The mother may be able to direct her infant more successfully in this position since she can see the baby's mouth and nose more clearly.
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Is a chronological description of the patient's present illness.
when outcomes are drugs or alcohol, the transition from declarative to procedural knowledge may happen...
When outcomes are drugs or alcohol, the transition from declarative to procedural knowledge may happen quickly.
What are declarative and procedural knowledge?Declarative knowledge can be defined as conscious knowledge, and it's frequently verbalized. Declarative knowledge, in other words, is metalinguistic knowledge, or information about a linguistic form. Meanwhile, procedural knowledge is related to knowing how to do something. Procedural knowledge includes things like knowing how to swim, ride a bike, and drive.
The study finds that when the outcomes involve alcohol or drugs, the transition from declarative to procedural knowledge might happen more quickly. Different brain pathways are involved in declarative and procedural knowledge, namely the dorsolateral striatum and the dorsomedial striatum.
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